Samplex 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

A vulvar malignancy:

a. Squamous hyperplasia
b. Paget’s disease
c. Erythroplakia
d. Lichen sclerosus

A

B

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2
Q

A usual pap smear can directly diagnose:

a. Vulvar cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Cervical cancer
d. Fallopian tube cancer

A

C

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3
Q

Lining of a Bartholin’s duct cyst:

a. Glandular
b. transitional
c. squamous
d. \any of the above

A

C, D

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4
Q

The second most common malignancy of the vulva is

a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Melanoma
c. adenocarcinoma
d. sarcomas

A

A

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5
Q

Gross picture of vulvar cancer:

a. Raised
b. Flat
c. Ulcer
d. Any of the above

A

D

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6
Q

Common etiologic agent of bacterial vaginosis:

a. Gardnerella
b. actinomyces
c. Shaquillobacter
d. Entamoeba coli

A

A

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7
Q

The expected pap smear organism in a vagina showing thick, curd-like discharge :

a. small, very short bacilli
b. clue cells
c. yeasts and (pseudo) hyphae
d. large, multinucleated squamous cells

A

C

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8
Q

Vaginal cancer in the young (~teen-age)

a. sarcoma botryoides
b. squamous cell CA
c. clear cell carcinoma
d. glassy cell carcinoma

A

C

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9
Q

vaginal cancer in children (~2 year old):

a. sarcoma botryoides
b. squamous cell CA
c. clear cell carcinoma
d. glassy cell CA

A

A

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10
Q

True of melanoma (in the vagina and elsewhere):

a. aggressive behavior
b. may be pigment-free (in 10% of the cases)
c. similar morphology, whether vaginal or elsewhere
d. all of the above

A

D

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11
Q

The more commonly encountered HPV types:

a. 6, 11
b. 16, 18, 31
c. 35, 45, 56
d. all of the above

A

A

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12
Q

The cytologic hallmark of HPV infection:

a. clue cell
b. koilocyte
c. angular or raisinoid nucleus with peri-nuclear clearing
d. B and C

A

D

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13
Q

True of condyloma acuminata:

a. koilocytes present
b. at least low grade atypia on cytology
c. a sexually transmitted disease
d. all of the above

A

D

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14
Q

The feature that distinguishes CIN-3/CIS from MICA is:

a. degree of atypia
b. thickness of epithelial layer involved by atypia
c. mitotic activity
d. stromal invasion

A

D

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15
Q

Neoplastic cells fill up the lower 50% of the cervical epithelial thickness:

a. CIN-1
b. CIN-2
c. CIN-3
d. CIS

A

B

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16
Q

Neoplastic cells fill up the lower 50% of the cervical epithelial thickness, but has also infiltrated 3mm beyond the basement membrane.

a. CIN-3
b. CIS
c. MICA
d. squamous cell carcinoma, invasive

A

C

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17
Q

Of squamous cell CA, large cell, keratinizing:

a. HPV-related
b. Not HPV-related
c. Intracellular keratin accumulation
d. B and C only

A

D

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18
Q

It is difficult to definitely diagnose Adenoma Malignum in a cervical body specimen because:

a. the amount of dysplasia obtained is not enough
b. the criteria for diagnosis is vague
c. part of the criteria is based on depth of the tumor invasion into the cervical wall, which is usually not reached by a regular biopsy
d. The “existence” of the disease is controversial

19
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the cervix:

a. associated with long-term contraceptive use
b. most common type is the endocervical type
c. accounts for about 10% (5-15%) of all cervical CA
d. all of the above

20
Q

True of secretory phase endometrium

a. sub-nuclear vacuoles
b. saw-tooth glands
c. prominent stromal vessel walls
d. all of the above

21
Q

The basis for the diagnosis of adenomyosis/endometriosis:

a. endometrial glands outside the endometrium
b. endometrial stroma accompanying the above glands
c. either A or B alone
d. both A and B required

22
Q

The feature that distinguishes borderline or LMP mucinous and serous tumors from mucinous and serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary is

a. degree of atypia
b. mitosis
c. thickness of tumor
d. stromal invasion by tumor

23
Q

. By definition, an ovarian teratoma must have:

a. at least 2 germ layers represented
b. all 3 germ layers represented
c. only one germ layer represented, but must have at least 3 derivatives
d. skin and skin adnexae

24
Q

The invading trophoblast is the

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
c. intermediate trophoblast
d. all of the above

25
Q

The trophoblast responsible for HCG is the:

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
c. intermediate trophoblast
d. none of the above

26
Q

The proliferating trophoblast is the:

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncytiotrophoblast
c. intermediate trophoblast
d. all of the above

27
Q

In invasive mole, the mole usually is:

a. complete mole
b. partial mole
c. both
d. neither

28
Q

A triploid karyotype is the usual presentation of a:

a. complete mole
b. partial mole
c. invasive mole
d. choriocarcinoma

29
Q

Not part of TORCH:

a. toxoplasma
b. herpes
]c. cytomegalovirus
d. rubeola

30
Q

Partial mole features do not include:

a. villous fibrosis
b. trophoblastic inclusions
c. cisterns
d. villous scalloping

31
Q

A tumor of intermediate trophoblasts

a. complete mole
b. partial mole
c. choriocarcinoma
d. placental site trophoblastic tumor

32
Q

In placenta accrete, which is defective?

a. the myomtetrium
b. the deciduas
c. the endometrium
d. the membranes

33
Q

In chorionitis, neutrophils are expected in:

a. the amnion
b. the chorion
c. the umbilical cord
d. none of the above

34
Q

In funisitis, neutrophils are expected in:

a. the amnion
b. Wharton’s jelly
c. the artery
d. all of the above

35
Q

Compression of the umbilical cord may give rise to:

a. chorioamionitis
b. Velamentous insertion
c. placental ischemia
d. retroplacental hematoma

36
Q

In velamentous insertion of the placenta, the umbilical cord is:

a. at risk for rupture
b. anchored to the chorion
c. paper thin
d. marginally inserted

37
Q

Calcification in the placenta is normal:

a. at any time
b. in prematures
c. at term
d. when patient has high serum calcium

38
Q

Cannonball lesions may be seen in:

a. complete moles
b. choriocarcinomas
c. partial moles
d. preeclampsia

39
Q

Invasion of trophoblast by vessels is normal in:

a. preeclampsia
b. pregnancy
c. ectopic pregnancy
d. all of the above

40
Q

Which of the following invades the endometrium during implantation?

a. morula
b. embryo
c. blastocyst
d. invasive mole

41
Q

The “grapes” in complete mole are actually::
a. dilated membranes

b. trophoblasts
c. edematous villi
d. empty sacs

42
Q

High levels of HCG are expected in:

a. normal pregnancy
b. complete mole
c. choriocarcinoma
d. all of the above

43
Q

Chemotherapy may be given in:

a. complete mole
b. choriocarcinoma
c. both
d. neither

44
Q

A term placenta weights approximately:

a. 250 grams
b. 500 grams
c. 750 gams
d. 1 kilogram