Samplex 2014 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following has a malignant predisposition?

A. lichen sclerosus
B. squamous metaplasia of the cervix
C. moderate dysplasia of the cervix
D. atrophic vaginitis

A

C

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2
Q

The patient consulted for painful ulcers at the vulva. What is the cause?

A. Chlamydia
B. Herpes simplex
C. Trichomonas
D. Gardnerella vaginalis

A

B

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3
Q

The vaginal discharge is diagnosed by wet mount preparation of the vaginal discharge:

A. Chlamydia
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Genital TB
D. HPV infection

A

D

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4
Q

All of the following genital infections are not sexually transmitted except:

A. trichomoniasis
B. TB salpingitis
C. candidiasis
D. genital tract actinomycosis

A

A

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5
Q

All of the following are not sexually-transmitted organisms except:

A. trichomonas
B. mycoplasma tuberculosis
C. c.candida albicans
D. actinomyces

A

D

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6
Q

Cell diagnostic of HPV:

A.	Clue cell
B.	Koilocytosis
C.	Paget cell
D.	Squamous enucleated cell
E.	Parakeratotic cell
A

B

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7
Q

The diagnosis of this vulvar infection can be determined by wet mount preparation of the vaginal discharge

A. Candidiasis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Genital tuberculosis
D. HPV infection

A

A

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8
Q

What is the stage of the cervical neoplasm with stromal invasion of more than 5mm in depth?

A. stage 0
B. stage 1a1
C. stage 1a2
D. stage 1b

A

D

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9
Q

What is the critical size of tumor depth to differentiate between Stage 1a1 and 1a2?

A. 3mm
B. 4mm
C. 5mm
D. 7mm

A

A

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10
Q

What is the maximum depth of stromal invasion for a microspically visible lesion?

A. 3 mm
B. 4 mm
C. 5 mm
D. 7 mm

A

A

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11
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a 25 year old woman with a thickened endometrium on ultrasound on day 21 of menstrual cycle?

A. Proliferative endometrium
B. Secretory endometrium
C. Pill endomterium
D. Endometrial hyperplasia

A

B

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12
Q

Endometrial changes resulting from use of oral contraceptives resulting includes which of the following?

A. secretory endothelium with lag in its secretory characteristics with respect to its expected date
B. inactive endometrial glands and active deciduous stroma
C. active endometrial glands and inactive endometrial stroma
D. AOTA

A

B

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13
Q

Endometrial cancer unrelated to estrogen

A. Serous
B. Clear cell
C. Endometrioid
D. A and B only
E. all of the above
A

D

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14
Q

Stage of endometrial tumor that has gone beyond the internal os.

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

A

B

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15
Q

Primary ovarian neoplasm in younger population

A. juvenile granulose cell neoplasm
B. teratoma
C. yolk sac carcinoma
D. AOTA
E. a and b only
A

D

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16
Q

What kind of ovarian tumor may be associated with endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma?

A. granulose cell tumor
B. fibrothecoma
C. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
D. carcinoid

A

A

17
Q

Nomenclature of primary uterine tumor composed of benign glandular epithelium and malignant stroma

A. adenofibroma
B. atypical polyploidy adenomyoma
C. adenosarcoma
D. malignant mixed Mullerian tumor

A

C

18
Q

What is the most common type of malignancy encountered in the dermoid cyst of the ovary?

A. Thyroid carcinoma
B. Melanocarcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

A

C

19
Q

Conditions associates with theca lutein cysts include all of the ff except:

a. H mole
b. Pregnancy
c. Combined oral contraceptive use
d. Choriocarcinoma

A

B

20
Q

What primary ovarian tumor causes masculinization:

a) Mucinous tumor
b) Granulosa cell tumor
c) Clear cell tumor
d) Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

A

D

21
Q

Which of the following contains mutations in KRAS:

a) Mucinous cystadenoma
b) Mucinous cystadenoma of low malignant potential
c) Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
d) All of the above
e) A and B

A

D

22
Q

what is the clinical staging of an ovarian tumor confined to one ovary, with tumor cells found in the peritoneal washings?

a. Ia
b. Ib
c. Ic
d. II

A

C

23
Q

Causes of late abortion except:

A. maternal infection
B. chromosomal abnormalities of the fetus
C. uterine abnormalities
D. maternal disease
A

B

24
Q

An abnormal invasion of the myometrium by the placenta

A. placenta accrete
B. placenta increta
C. placenta percreta

A

B

25
Q

What is the most likely histomorphology of a 62-year old woman with vaginal bleeding that yielded abundant hemorrhagic tissue on curettage?

	A. senile cystic atrophy
	B. endometrial adenocarcinoma
	C. endometrial hyperplasia
	D. all of the above
	E. B and C
A

B

26
Q

The following are features of gestational endometrium except which one?

A. predecidual reaction in a markedly edematous stroma
B. Arias-Stella reaction brought about by voluminous secretory endometrial glands
C. fibrinoid layer with placental site multinucleated syncytial cells D. ruptured and exhausted endometrial glands amidst degenerated stromal cells admixed with acute inflammatory cells
A

D

27
Q

What is the most common endometrial polyp?

A. functional
B. hyperplastic
C. atrophic
D. all are equally common
A

B

28
Q

Which type of endometrial adenocarcinoma has a poor prognosis?

A. villoglandular carcinoma
B. well-differentiated endometrial carcinoma
C. adenosquamous carcinoma
D. all of the above
A

C

29
Q

This kind of trophoblasts consists mainly of HPL and small quanities of HCG.

A. syncytiotrophoblasts
B. cytotrophoblasts
C. intermediate trophoblasts
D. A and B only

A

C

30
Q

Placental pathology in pre-eclampsia includes which of the following?

a. placental infarcts
b. retroplacental hemmorhage - abruptio
c. megaplacenta - hydrops
d. AOTA
e. a & b

A

A

31
Q

Invasion of the entire uterine wall

a. accreta
b. percreta
c. increta
d. previa

A

A

32
Q

Placenta previa during the development has a problem with which of the following?

a. decidua
b. placenta
c. endometrium
d. implantation

A

D

33
Q

what is the most differentiated layer that invades the deciduas/endometrium

a. cytotrophoblast
b. syncitiotrophoblast
c. chorionic villi
d. intermediate trophoblast

A

B

34
Q

Which of the following is/are the one that produces both hCG and hPL

a. syncitiotrophoblast
b. intermediate trophoblast
c. both
d. neither

A

C

35
Q

Retroplacental hematoma is usually associated with

a. abruptio
b. atheroma
c. previa
d. choriocarcinoma

A

A

36
Q

In chorioamnionitis, what is the most common finding?

a. neutrophilia
b. neutropenia
c. leukocytosis
d. leukopenia

A

A

37
Q

The pathogenesis of pre-eclampsia can be traced from the inability of the trophoblast to invade the:

a. endometrium
b. spiral arteries
c. myometrium
d. chorion

A

B

38
Q

What is the most likely event when the placenta has missing cotyledons?

A. abruptio
B. percreta
C. preeclampsia
D. hypertension

A

B

39
Q

Placental infarcts

A. triangular
B. rectangular
C. pyramidal

A

B