sample test nccpt Flashcards

1
Q

what is the prime mover, antagonist, and stabilizers for the bench press?

A

pectoralis major, rhomboids, trapezius, posterior deltoid, rotator cuff musculature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe what occurs during the systolic and diastolic phase of blood pressure.

A

systolic is the pressure in the arterial walls during the ventricle contraction. diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventrical filling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

explain the difference between concentric and eccentric in resistance training.

A

concentric is the shortening of the muscle fibers. eccentric is the lengthening of the muscle fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the definition of OBLA?

A

onset of blood lactate accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the valsalva maneuver?

A

exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

with exercise lasting longer then 10 seconds what system kicks in to provide ATP?

A

glycolytic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how long does glycolysis last?

A

10 seconds to 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define reciprocal inhibition?

A

when agonist or prime mover is called upon to perform a desired motion, the antagonist are neurologically inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is co-contraction?

A

when agonist and antagonist contract simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a spurt muscle?

A

muscles that have their distal tendon close to the joint axis. biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a double jointed muscle?

A

a muscle in the body that crosses 2 joints and is able to produce motion at more then 1 joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is a motor unit?

A

a single a-motor neuron and all the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what body type is characterized by a muscular build?

A

mesomorph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called?

A

fasiculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define visceral or smooth muscles

A

they operate blood vessles and tubular organs such as the stomach, and uterus. has no striations and doesnt require concious thought

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define origin of a muscle

A

attachment nearest the midline of the body and or the end attached to the least moveable bone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the ACSM recommended intake of carbs, proteins, and fats?

A

58% carb 30% protein 12% fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how much water should a person drink daily

A

64 ounces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define basal metabolic rare

A

amount of energy expended to support the ongoing metabolic work of the bodys cells at rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the institute of medicines recommended intake of carbs, proteins, and fats?

A

45-65%carbs 10-35%proteins 20-35%fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

give an example of saturated fat

A

any fat that is solid at room temperature. palm oil or coconut oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which types of vitamins may have a risk for toxicities?

A

fat soluble vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

give examples of disaccharides

A

maltose, lactose, sucrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

name the essential fats

A

linolenic, linoleic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
list some benefits of vitamin c
helps maintain collagen, can reduce histimines, and is an antioxident
26
the recommended intake for dietary fiber is?
25-30g
27
8 grams per kilogram is the rda recommendation for healthy adults for which micronutrient?
protein
28
galactose and glucose make up the disaccharide?
lactose
29
while the body is at rest, what percentage of fat is utilized for fuel?
60%
30
glucose sucrose and fructose are examples of what?
monosaccharides
31
define golgi tendon organ
a sensory organ situated at the musculotendinous junction
32
what is a dynamic stretch?
the bodys own movement causes the stretch
33
what are the dangers of hyper flexibility?
joint instability
34
what sensory receptor activates the stretch reflex mechanism?
muscle spindle
35
what can you do to increase the efficiency in the process of reciprocal innervation?
a good warm up
36
flexibility around a joint is affected by..
bone structure, ligaments, elasticity of the skin, muscles, tendons, and fascia
37
tendons a resistant to what kind of force?
tensile force
38
what % of body fat for men and women is considered obese?
men 25% women 32%
39
what is a form of treatment for osteoarthritis?
a non steroidal anti inflammatory or some form of analegesic
40
name 2 things a trainer should pay attention to if working with someone with hypertension
never do exercises with head below the heart and should avoid lifting heavy weights over their head
41
how many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with fibromyalgia?
11 out of 18 for 3 months or longer
42
what is the primary symptom of fibromyalgia?
muscle soreness
43
what problems can multiple sclerosis cause?
muscle controll, strength, vision, balance, sensation, and mental functions
44
what considerations should you take when training someone with cancer?
avoid high impact aerobics due to risk of bone fractures. avoid pressure or friction on skin because it can cause bruising
45
what are some recommendations you might make to a client with osteoporosis?
avoid high impact aerobic activity, uncontrolled spinal flexion, decrease caffeine, increase weight bearing activities, and take adequate intake of calcium and vitamin D
46
define diastasis
it is the separation of the rectus abdominis muscle
47
what are some considerations when training someone with cancer?
general weakness, neausua, risk of bone fractures, and bruising
48
define the term supination
movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position
49
define external
refers to a segment rotating around a vertical axis so that the anterior surface of the segment moves away from midline of the body
50
what is circumduction?
a combination of 4 movements: flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction
51
define cephalic
pertaining to the head
52
define caudal
pertaining to the tail end
53
the pes anserinus consists of?
the insertion of the gracilis, semitendinosus, and the sartorius
54
what muscle plantar flexes the foot?
gastrocnemius
55
what muscle dorsi flexs the ankle?
tibialis anterior
56
what type of joint allows flexion and extension?
ball and socket, or hinge joint
57
give an example of a fusiform muscle
biceps brachii, sartorious, brachialis, rectus femoris, and rector abdominis
58
what makes up the shoulder girdle?
clavicle, and scapula
59
what does the triceps surae consist of?
the 2 heads of the gastrocnemius and soleus
60
name the muscles of the quadraceps
vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus inermedius, and rectus femoris
61
what is the longest muscle in the body?
sartorius
62
define sesamoid bone
this bone is a short bone embedded within a tendon or joint capsule
63
what are the three basic body types in samatotyping?
ectomorph, mesomorph, and endomorph
64
what types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position?
stabilizers
65
name the 3 heads of the triceps brachii
long, medial, and lateral
66
how many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine?
7
67
the deltoids and the gluteus maximus are examples of :
penniform muscles
68
give an example of a class 2 lever system
wheel barrow, can opener, or the MTP joint in plantar flexion
69
what motions are performed by the iliopsoas?
hip flexion, external rotation concentrically, hip extension and internal rotation eccentrically
70
movement from the extremities originate and emanate from?
the core
71
how should a client position themselves for a supine pelvic hold level 1?
lying on back arched naturally, feet positioned close to butt as possible
72
what % of adult population will experience low back pain?
80%
73
what is considered to be normal ROM in horizontal abduction?
30 to 40 degrees
74
what is the motion in a seated cable row? direction of resistance?
shoulder extension concentrically. outward
75
how can you make the dumbbell pullover a safer exercise?
decline bench
76
what is a Q angle?
is formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and the line of pull of the patellar ligament
77
an individuals mechanic ability to perform multiple joint movements simultaniously under load is primarily based upon what?
the length of the levers or segments connecting these joints
78
list 2 machines that train the latissimus dorsi?
pull up bar, lat pull down machine, or a row machine
79
what is a carrying angle?
the angle between the humerus and the forearm
80
what are the prime movers in a squat?
quadraceps at the knee, and gluteus maximus at the hip
81
what muscles are antagonists at the hip in hip extension?
hip flexors
82
what are some of the risks when performing an upright row?
excessive internal rotation during abduction
83
when a multi-joint compound exercise is executed immediately after a single joint exercise, what type of training is this an example of?
pre-exhaustion
84
what muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle?
pectorolis major, pectorolis minor, subscapularis, and anterior deltoid
85
a squat, bench press, barbell curl, and a leg press are examples of?
closed kinetic chain exercises
86
what are the prime movers in a leg press?
vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, rectus femoris
87
when working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should the rest periods be?
45 seconds to 2 minutes
88
what is the double double training technique?
the user performs 2 different double jointed exercises for the same muscle group back to back
89
what are the 4 components of a fitness routine?
flexibility, balance/stabilization, strength/hypertrophy, cardiovascular
90
for hypertrophy effect to occur the repetition range should be?
6-12 reps per set
91
normal resting heart rates are?
60-80 bpm
92
force times distance divided by time =?
power
93
the stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of?
eccentric action, followed by concentric action
94
normal range of motion for hip extension is
15-30 degrees
95
how do you treat heat cramps?
rest, gentle stretches, ice, rehydrate
96
what are symptoms of a sprain?
swelling, limited ROM, discoloration, soreness
97
what are symptom of cardiac arrest?
heart stops beating, no pulse, no breathing, ischemia(lack of oxygen to the heart)
98
how much does a cybex hack squat carriage weigh?
65 pounds
99
what is the weight of a 7 foot olympic bar weigh?
45 pounds
100
what is the weight of an E-Z curl bar?
25 pounds
101
how many deaths in th US per year are attributed to lack of physical exercise?
250,000
102
of people age 55 and older what % report essentially sedentary lifestyles?
38%