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Nccpt Flashcards

1
Q

what role does a muscle fibers arrangement play?

A

speed of contraction, and force output

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2
Q

what is a myofibril?

A

the smallest unit of a muscle cell

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3
Q

concentric strength

A

the amount of muscular skeletal force to overcome a resistance by a shortening of the muscle fiber

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4
Q

eccentric strength

A

the amount of muscular skeletal force displayed when a muscle is lengthened under tension

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5
Q

overload principle

A

the attempt to challenge the muscular skeletal system with unaccustomed stimulation such as increased weight speed, or volume of training

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6
Q

five major factors that effect training

A

level of fitness, intensity,duration,frequency, and genetics

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7
Q

metabolism

A

the chemical and physiological process in the body that provides energy for maitenence of life

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8
Q

glycemic index

A

1-100 given to determine rate at which a carb is broken down into glucose. the lower the # the longer it takes to break down

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9
Q

cholesterol

A

is a lipid or fat related substance necessary for good health. it is a normal component of most body tissues especially those of the brain, nervous system, liver, and blood.

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10
Q

normal cholesterol range

A

120-160 mg/dl

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11
Q

9 essential amino acids

A

phenylalanine, valine, tryptophan, methionine, threonine, histidine, isoleucine, lycine, leucine

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12
Q

what % of ingested calcium is absorbed?

A

20-30%

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13
Q

flexibility

A

the capability of a joint to move freely in every direction or specifically through a full ROM

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14
Q

range of motion

A

the possible movement about a joint in a static or dynamic state within the anatomical limits of the joint structure

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15
Q

six factors that can influence or limit joint mobility

A

genetics, age, hypokinesis, gender, body type, body temperature

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16
Q

4 benefits of stretching

A

decrease risk of injury, reduce stress, reduce low back pain, improve muscular balance and body alignment awareness, increase neuromuscular coordination

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17
Q

what causes multiple sclerosis

A

is the process of demyelination and subsequent disruption of the nerve impulse flow

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18
Q

what should be avoided in exercise program for someone with MS

A

avoid overheating

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19
Q

what response can you expect from a client taking beta blockers

A

decreased exercise HR

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20
Q

what response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client taking calcium channel blockers

A

lower blood pressure

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21
Q

sagittal plane

A

splits body into right and left halves. elbow flexion

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22
Q

frontal plane

A

splits body into front and back halves. lateral flexion of the trunk.

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23
Q

horizontal plane

A

splits body into top and bottom halves. trunk rotation.

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24
Q

what is scapular abduction

A

joint movement away from anatomical position in the frontal plane or transverse plane. hen a joint is movement is moving from a position of adduction to or past neutral

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25
Q

what is scapular adduction?

A

joint movement returning to anatomical position or crossing midline of the body in the frontal or transverse plane

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26
Q

2 most important functions of the skeletal system

A

leverage, and support

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27
Q

what is trabeculae

A

plates of calcified tissue that make up the inner most layer of the bone

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28
Q

what is the strong fibrous membrane that offers strength and stiffness to the skeleton

A

periosteum

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29
Q

wolffs law

A

every change in the form and function of a bone or of their function alone is followed by a certain difinitive change in their internal architecture and equally definite secondary alteration in their external conformation i accordance with mathematical laws.

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30
Q

the cartilaginous joints are mad up of what cartilidge?

A

fibrocartilage, or hyaline growth cartilage.

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31
Q

In diarthrodial (synovial) joints the ends of the bones are free to move in relation to one another. true or false?

A

true

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32
Q

all synovial joints have what 5 characteristics?

A

joint capsule, joint cavity enclosed by the joint capsule, a synovial membrane that lines the inner surface of the capsule, synovial fluid that forms a film over the joint surfaces, hyaline cartilage that covers the joint surfaces.

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33
Q

what are proximal joints?

A

are the most proximal and foundation for extremities, (shoulder,hip) these joints generally have the greatest freedom of movement and have a great deal of muscular support in fan shaped arrangement

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34
Q

what are distal joints?

A

complex structure (wrist,ankle) with a variety of motions available with intricate control

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35
Q

what is a synergist?

A

when 2 muscles have a common joint action but also have a joint action that opposes each other. the synergy occurs during the common joint action. ex: pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi during internal rotation of the humerus.

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36
Q

which muscle dorsi flexes the foot

A

tibialis anterior

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37
Q

what is the action of the rectus abdominus?

A

compresses the abdomino-pelvic cavity;and flexes the vertebral column

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38
Q

what is the action of the transversus abdominis?

A

compresses the abdomino-pelvic cavity

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39
Q

what is the origin of the serratus anterior?

A

outer surface of the first 9 ribs

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40
Q

what is the insertion of the pectoralis major?

A

greater tubercle of the humerus

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41
Q

what nerve innervates the deltoid?

A

axillary nerve

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42
Q

what is the insertion of the biceps brachii?

A

tuberosity of the radius

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43
Q

what is the origin of the brachioradialis?

A

lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus

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44
Q

what is the insertion of the psoas major? actions?

A

lesser trochanter of the femur. flex the thigh; flex the trunk

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45
Q

what makes up the posterior oblique system?

A

the posterior oblique system consists of latissimus dorsi, gluteus maximus and the intervening thoraco-lumbar fascia.

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46
Q

what makes up the anterior oblique system?

A

obliques and contralateral adductor muscles and intervening abdominal fascia.

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47
Q

what makes up the deep longitudinal system?

A

erector spinae, the deep lamina of the thoraco-lumbar fascia, the sacrotuberus ligament, and the bicep femoris muscle.

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48
Q

what muscles make up the inner unit?

A

the multifidus, transversus abdominis, diaphragm, and the pelvic floor

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49
Q

what are the 6 steps to any resistance exercise?

A

motion to be performed, determine direction of resistance, determine starting position, monitor joint position/stabilization, monitor the path of motion, determine and monitor ROM

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50
Q

what are the 3 types of ROM?

A

passive, active, and resistance

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51
Q

define ROM

A

your muscular ability to move

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52
Q

how many vertebrae make up the vertebral column?

A

33

53
Q

how much does the intradiskal pressure increas when someone goes from standing to seated?

A

30-40%

54
Q

when training the rectus abdominis you cant create regional emphasis on upper and lower abs. true or false?

A

false

55
Q

what muscles play a role in stabilizing the trunk?

A

back extensors, lateral flexors, anterior abdominals.

56
Q

what is the law of facilitation?

A

when an impulse passes once through a given set of neurons to the exclusion of others it will tend to do so on a future occasion and each time it travels this path the resistance will be smaller.

57
Q

what is the goal of a seated posture trainer?

A

to teach proper body alignment and increase postural control, and strength.

58
Q

what is abdominal coordination?

A

the ability to stabilize the pelvis and lumbar curvature while simultaneously raising and lowering the legs.

59
Q

what is the key to using the back extension machine?

A

the key is control. do not allow machine to push you into a slouched position. spinal flexion.

60
Q

what is the shoulder girdle composed of?

A

clavicle, and scapula. its the foundation for the head, neck, and upper extremities.

61
Q

what are the motions of the shoulder girdle?

A

elevation, depression, adduction, and abduction

62
Q

what is scapulohumeral rhythm?

A

the relationship between the shoulder joint and the scapulothoracic joint. 2 degrees of shoulder motion for every 1 degree of scapulothoracic motion.

63
Q

what is considered to be normal ROM in shoulder flexion?

A

160-180 degrees

64
Q

name the SITS muscles

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, sub scapularis

65
Q

what are the three divisions of the pectoralis major?

A

clavicular, sternal, costal fibers

66
Q

when performing a lateral raise what is the prime mover?

A

deltoid

67
Q

each hip bone is fused by which 3 bones?

A

ilium, ischium, pubis

68
Q

what is the true function of the hip abductors?

A

to maintain pelvic stability in single leg standing.

69
Q

what bones make up the knee joint?

A

the knee is formed by the articulation of the distal femur and proximal tibia. together they form the tibia-femoral or knee joint.

70
Q

how is lower extremity alignment accomplished?

A

by ensuring that the femur is directed toward the toes.

71
Q

the ankle is a hinge joint formed by what bones?

A

tibia, fibula, and talus

72
Q

what 2 muscles make up the calf muscles?

A

gastrocnemius, and soleus

73
Q

what action does the gastrocnemius perform?

A

flexes the leg; plantar flexes the foot

74
Q

what should a client concentrate on the first 6-9 months of training?

A

developing basic strength, endurance, and flexibility. efficient connective and supportive systems, stabilization and proper movement patterns.

75
Q

what is tensile loading?

A

the amount of tension developed in the muscle fibers when loaded.

76
Q

what is relative strength?

A

the maximum force the muscles can generate in relation to your body weight.

77
Q

when do slow twitch fibers fatigue?

A

begin at 6 seconds and fully fatigue at 3-5 minutes.

78
Q

the tempo of movement determines what?

A

the load, amount of tension developed, and use of mechanical energy.

79
Q

what is the stretch shortening cycle?

A

the sequence of eccentric, isometric, and concentric action. when the action of eccentric to concentric takes place the muscle is stretched, and when the muscle is stretched it stores elastic energy. this stored elastic energy provides a more forcible concentric lift.

80
Q

how much time under tension is needed to receive a maximal strength/hypertrophy training effect?

A

20-40 seconds

81
Q

what training effect will a client receive if they train with a 1-6 repetition load? adaptation?

A

neural training effect. relative strength gain, adaptation.

82
Q

what is metabolic adaptation?

A

a change in structure. increase in the size of muscle fiber and connective tissues, increase in the size and function of blood vessles, and increased substrate stones, giving a fuller look.

83
Q

what is the rational behind performing 6 different exercises per body part, but only doing 1 set per exercise?

A

allows for the greatest variety in overloading various lines of movement and joint angles, but doesnt specialize in skill of any one exercise.

84
Q

how long should rest periods last if working above 90% of maximum?

A

3-5 minutes

85
Q

what occurs if the individual is given to long of a rest period?

A

core body temperature decreases, loss of performance, risk of injury is increased

86
Q

why is it important to use unilateral movements?

A

to restore balance in size or strength within the muscular system

87
Q

what is alternating periodization?

A

involves alternating between volume, intensity. this type of program avoids the detraining issues that are involved with linear periodization. suitable for the advanced individual

88
Q

why is it important to do fitness testing?

A

to ensure proper exercise program is prescribed

89
Q

what is considered normal resting HR?

A

60-100 bpm

90
Q

a high fat weight is a risk factor for what?

A

disease, cancer, diabetes, and other health problems

91
Q

how do you calculate body mass index?

A

divide the body weight in kg by the height in meters squared. kg/m2

92
Q

what determines how an individuals subcutaneous fat levels are distributed?

A

age, gender, body type,and activity levels

93
Q

the waist to hip ratio is effective in measuring what?

A

shows the individuals fat distribution as well as their risk for mortality, and morbidity

94
Q

what is the normal waist to hip ratio for a male 17-39?

A

0.90.

95
Q

what is the estimated accuracy range of hydrostatic weighing?

A

2.5%

96
Q

describe how an individual would take a skin fold measurement on the axilla.

A

vertical fold on the midxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process

97
Q

the bioelectrical impedance technique is based on what assumption?

A

tissues high in water content will conduct electrical currents with less resistance then those with little water, because adipose tissue contains little water, fat will impede the flow or electric current

98
Q

what is the estimated accuracy range of bioelectrical impedance analysis?

A

4%

99
Q

what is the purpose of the sit and reach test?

A

the test measures flexibility of the erector spinae muscles, hamstring, and upper back, and calves

100
Q

how do you score a client on the sit and reach test?

A

the client score is the best of 3 and can be compared to the norms of their sex and age.

101
Q

what is the assumption of the three minute step test?

A

is that if clients have lower recovery HR one minute after completing test, it is assumed that the client is in better physical condition and has a higher VO2MAX

102
Q

how many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the 3 minute step test?

A

96 bpm

103
Q

the push up test measures? in what muscles?

A

upper body endurance. pectoralis musculature, anterior deltoid, and triceps brachii

104
Q

the sit up test measures? in what muscles?

A

enduance of the trunk muscles. rectus abdominis, internal, and external obliques

105
Q

the crunch test has recently been developed as?

A

a safe alternative to determine endurance of the trunk muscles

106
Q

why apply ice to an injury?

A

ice causes vaso-constriction. decreasing the blood flow to the injured area resulting in decreased swelling.

107
Q

how long should you apply ice to an injury?

A

15-20 minutes every 1-2 hours during the first 48-72 hours after injury

108
Q

why should you elevate the injured part?

A

elevation of injured part above heart level uses gravity to help drain excess fluid and decrease swelling.

109
Q

what are symptoms of heat exhaustion?

A

pale clammy skin, rapid or weak pulse, weakness, headaches, nausea, cramps in abdomin or limbs

110
Q

what is the treatment for a contusion?

A

apply ice

111
Q

what is a sprain?

A

trauma to a joint capsule or ligament.

112
Q

what are the symptoms of fainting?

A

light headedness, dizziness, pale, light sweat

113
Q

what are the disadvantages of the cybex equipment line?

A

requires technique, some of the lever arms and stability features are too long or too far away and the strength profiles not always optimal for 2 joint muscles

114
Q

what is the benefit of the recumbent bike?

A

same cardiovascular benefits, but less stressful to the system resulting in less perceived exertion because of easy blood return.

115
Q

what is unique about cybex squat press?

A

great strength profile, weight is closer to the user for less momentum and safety, easy to load the weight because its lower to the ground, moving platform keeps a solid contact surface with the feet.

116
Q

what are the advantages of hammer strength equipment?

A

isolateral, unilateral, or bilateral movement based, rather then muscle based, safety; no moving weight stack to get caught in, starting weight can be 0lbs because it is not selectorized, you may increase in smaller increments, handles are designed to minimize stress on wrist joints, converging and diverging axes.

117
Q

what is the number 1 killer in america?

A

cardiovascular disease

118
Q

what percentage of american adults get enough exercise to acheive cardiovascular fitness?

A

22%

119
Q

what % of adults are not active at all?

A

25%

120
Q

in high school enrollment in daily p.e. classes dropped from 42% in 1991 to 25% in 1995. true or false?

A

true

121
Q

what are the 4 keys to handling objections?

A

acknowledge, isolate, overcome, close

122
Q

what is hard selling?

A

you are trying to collect money immediately. your goal is to not let them walk out without buying something.

123
Q

what are the 5 main points to look for on the clien profile?

A

goal, exercise experience, medical history, job or career, signature

124
Q

what form should you always make sure the client signs prior to engaging in activity?

A

client profile. make sure they sign the release of liability prior to exercising. if they dont sign, dont train them.

125
Q

define the term personal trainer

A

student/empathetic teacher of the movement and functions of the human body, the internal and external forces that act upon it and who professionally motivates, plans, and monitors the benefits of fitness exercise and nutrition as it relates to their clients health related goals.

126
Q

the greatest legal concerns for a personal trainer are?

A

pre-activity health screening of clients, interpreting results, the developement of physical activity recommendations and parameters for training, the instruction and supervision of physical activity, emergency preparations, and timely fulfillments of such services.

127
Q

define exercise physiology

A

the study of cellular functions in the human body before, during, and after exercise.

128
Q

what is glycolysis, and how long does it last?

A

it is the breakdown of carbohydrate,to pyruvate or lactic acid to produce ATP. it lasts 10 seconds to 3 minutes

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