SAM Quizzes Flashcards by Abbey Cromwell

Barotrauma causes injury to…

-lungs
-nasal sinuses
-ears

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Pulmonary overpressurization occurs when

Holds his or her breath during ascent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the pathophysiology of decompression sickness

An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Examples of passive rewarming

-removing wet clothing
-applying blankets
-encouraging ambulating

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What are heat cramps caused by

Sodium loss due to sweating

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Nitrogen gas bubbles in the joints or the folds of the intestinal tract are called…

The bends

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When frozen tissues thaw slowly

Partial refereeing of melted water may cause greater tissue damage

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Classic heatstroke

Typically affects older people and and is not associated with exertion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Altitude sickness is caused by

Hypoxia due to low atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Heat loss

Thermolysis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Low wind chill factor increases heat loss through

Convection

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most predominant sign of acute mountain sickness

A throbbing headache and fatigue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Production of heat by the body

Thermogenesis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Examples of active external rewarming techniques

-hot packs
-heated blankets
-bairhugger

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

High-altitude pulmonary edema

A high-altitude illness that presents with hyperpnea, crackles, rhonchi, tachycardia and cyanosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is HACE caused by?

Cerebral vasodilation from hypoxia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When can a diagnosis of heatstroke be made

-core temperature of >40C and an altered mental status

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If a patient is in hypothermic arrest you should

Attempt a single shock for V-fib or V-tach

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What temperature does a heat stroke patient need to be cooled to in order to restore their own natural cooling mechanisms

38.8

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Any diver who loses consciousness immediately following a dive should be assumed to have experienced

An air embolism

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the most invasive form of rewarming

Active internal

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In a cold environment, the body produces heat through these mechanisms

-thermogenesis
-shivering
-vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Nitrogen narcosis

A condition where nitrogen readily displaces oxygen in the brain, resulting in feelings or euphoria and disorientation

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Example of convection

A person blowing on hot food to cool it down

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

High humidity

Decreases the body’s ability to eliminate excess heat through evaporation

Exertional heat stroke

Affects young healthy people

Osborne wave

An upward flextion immediately following the QRS complex

Why does nitrogen cause decompression sickness

On ascent because of the bubbles the form on reduction or pressure

Where is the body’s thermoregulation centre

The hypothalamus

Passive rewarming

An intervention that promotes heat retention it is different from other forms of rewarming in that it relies on the bodies existing energy and thermogenic mechanisms

The first step in treating a patient with a heat emergency is to

Move the patient to a cooler area

POPS occurs

On ascent

What are the two forms of heat exhaustion

Water-depleted and sodium depleted

Prehospital treatment for mild hypothermia

Warm IV fluids and heat packs

Conduction

The transfer of heat from a hotter object to a cooler object by direct physical contact

Acute mountain sickness

Results from ascent in a high altitude the present with tachycardia, increased respiratory rate and ataxia

What is the pathophysiology of decompression sickness

An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent

Approximately 5 minuets following ascent from the water, a 30 year old male diver complains of sharp chest pain and mild dyspnea, by the time you arrive on scene the pt is unresponsive. What should you be suspicious of?

An arterial gas embolism

Shallow water blackout occurs when

A decreasing PaO2 during ascent results in syncope

After an adult victim is struck by lightning and experiences cardiac arrest…

His or her heart may resume beating spontaneously

What is the most common cause of death due to electrical injury

Asphyxia leading to cardiac arrest

What is a poision

Toxic by nature, no matter how it enters the body or in what quantities it is taken

What is a toxidrome

A readily identifiable pattern of clinical signs and symptoms that result from certain classes of chemicals and medication

Most ingested poisons cause

Nausea and vomiting

A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index

Can be given, but not without close patient monitoring

Therapeutic index

Difference between median effective dose and the median toxic dose

What would help a paramedic differentiate a patient experiencing a sympathomemtic OD from an anticholinergic OD

Diaphoresis

True or false: injecting medication that is normally ingested will increase its potency, but otherwise will not change the drugs effects or how it is metabolized

False

Common signs and symptoms of a tricyclic antidepressant OD

Altered mental status and tachycardia with widening QT intervals

The most common cause of death following tricyclic antidepressant overdose is

Cardiac dysrhythmia

Death from acetaminophen overdose is most often caused by

Progressive liver failure

Severe salicylate (ASA) toxicity produces

Metabolic acidosis

Reversal of toxic doses of benzodiazepine with flumazenil places patient at risk for

Untreatable seizure activity

What is the antidote for a beta blocker OD

Glucagon

The most common signs of overdose with calcium channel blockers are

Hypotension and bradycardia

Tricyclic antidepressant OD may lead to all of the following cardio toxic effects

V-Fib Asystole Vtach NOT BRADYCARDIA

You are treating a 4 year old male who has ingested 45 extra strength tylenol. What is the most important information to give to poison control

The child’s weight

Any sympathomemtic drug will cause

Tachycardia

You would expect a person to be hypertensive and tachycardic if they are exposed to

-Cocaine -Meth -MDMA

What would the ECG of someone with cocaine toxicity show

Prolongation of the QT interval

LSD is

A hallucinogenic

Signs and symptoms of marijuana use include

-blood shot eyes -euphoria -drowsiness

Most common symptom of cocaine intoxication

Chest pain

What is the opium intoxication triad

Pinpoint pupils CNS depression Respiratory depression

What is the antidote for an acute opioid OD

Naloxone

A patient experiencing euphoria with vivid hallucinations and synaesthsia is likely taking

Ecstasy

Treatment for a meth OD is

Valium

What occurs in the warm zone

Decontamination

Examples of chemical weapons

Vesicants Industrial chemicals Pulmonary agents

The primary route of exposure to pulmonary agents is

Inhalation

Smallpox blankets and mailed anthrax are both examples of terror attacks using

Biological agents

When identifying the amount of radiation a patient has been exposed to you need to consider all the following except

Patients natural resistance

At a CBRNe scene, the inner most circle surrounding the hazardous agent/event is called the

Hot zone

Vesicant agents inflict injury by causing

Burn like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract

Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include

Salivation, pinpoint pupils, diarrhea

A multiple casualty incident is defined as

An event where the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders

An individuals span of control

Represents the number of personnel who report to him or her

What does the safety officer do

Has the authority and responsibility to stop an emergency operation if he believes a rescuer is in danger

If your unit is the first to arrive at an incident, you should keep yourself safe, size up the scene, and then

Notify dispatch, identify your unit, apprise dispatch of the situation, and assume command

What is the primary duty of the triage officer

Ensure that every patient receives a triage assessment

The staging supervisor is responsible for

Coordinating with all incoming and outgoing ambulances

The first step in the START triage system involves

Directing all the walking and wounded to an easily identifiable landmark

According to START triage system, a non-breathing patient should be triaged as immediate if

A manual airway maneuver restores breathing

You arrive on scene to an MCI, incident command has already been established, what should you do

Stay at your vehicle until given instructions

The goal of doing the greatest good for the greatest number of people mandates that

Triage assessment is brief and patient condition categories are basic

A single command system is one which

One person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond

The unified command

Allows representative from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility

During a disaster, logging of all pts and the hospitals to which they are transported to is primarily the responsibility of the

Transportation supervisor

During a small-scale incident, the incident commander:

May perform all the command functions

As soon as the triage officer receives patients from the triage section, he or she should:

Perform secondary triage

Patients with delirium often experience

Hallucinations

What is initial treatment for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning

Ethanol