Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pathology 3 > SAM Quizzes > Flashcards

SAM Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Barotrauma causes injury to…

A

-lungs
-nasal sinuses
-ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pulmonary overpressurization occurs when

A

Holds his or her breath during ascent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pathophysiology of decompression sickness

A

An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of passive rewarming

A

-removing wet clothing
-applying blankets
-encouraging ambulating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are heat cramps caused by

A

Sodium loss due to sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nitrogen gas bubbles in the joints or the folds of the intestinal tract are called…

A

The bends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When frozen tissues thaw slowly

A

Partial refereeing of melted water may cause greater tissue damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Classic heatstroke

A

Typically affects older people and and is not associated with exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Altitude sickness is caused by

A

Hypoxia due to low atmospheric pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Heat loss

A

Thermolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Low wind chill factor increases heat loss through

A

Convection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most predominant sign of acute mountain sickness

A

A throbbing headache and fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Production of heat by the body

A

Thermogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Examples of active external rewarming techniques

A

-hot packs
-heated blankets
-bairhugger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

High-altitude pulmonary edema

A

A high-altitude illness that presents with hyperpnea, crackles, rhonchi, tachycardia and cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is HACE caused by?

A

Cerebral vasodilation from hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can a diagnosis of heatstroke be made

A

-core temperature of >40C and an altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If a patient is in hypothermic arrest you should

A

Attempt a single shock for V-fib or V-tach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What temperature does a heat stroke patient need to be cooled to in order to restore their own natural cooling mechanisms

A

38.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Any diver who loses consciousness immediately following a dive should be assumed to have experienced

A

An air embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most invasive form of rewarming

A

Active internal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In a cold environment, the body produces heat through these mechanisms

A

-thermogenesis
-shivering
-vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Nitrogen narcosis

A

A condition where nitrogen readily displaces oxygen in the brain, resulting in feelings or euphoria and disorientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Example of convection

A

A person blowing on hot food to cool it down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

High humidity

A

Decreases the body’s ability to eliminate excess heat through evaporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Exertional heat stroke

A

Affects young healthy people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Osborne wave

A

An upward flextion immediately following the QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Why does nitrogen cause decompression sickness

A

On ascent because of the bubbles the form on reduction or pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Where is the body’s thermoregulation centre

A

The hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Passive rewarming

A

An intervention that promotes heat retention it is different from other forms of rewarming in that it relies on the bodies existing energy and thermogenic mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The first step in treating a patient with a heat emergency is to

A

Move the patient to a cooler area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

POPS occurs

A

On ascent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two forms of heat exhaustion

A

Water-depleted and sodium depleted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prehospital treatment for mild hypothermia

A

Warm IV fluids and heat packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Conduction

A

The transfer of heat from a hotter object to a cooler object by direct physical contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Acute mountain sickness

A

Results from ascent in a high altitude the present with tachycardia, increased respiratory rate and ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the pathophysiology of decompression sickness

A

An imbalance of nitrogen in the tissues and alveoli due to rapid ascent

38
Q

Approximately 5 minuets following ascent from the water, a 30 year old male diver complains of sharp chest pain and mild dyspnea, by the time you arrive on scene the pt is unresponsive. What should you be suspicious of?

A

An arterial gas embolism

39
Q

Shallow water blackout occurs when

A

A decreasing PaO2 during ascent results in syncope

40
Q

After an adult victim is struck by lightning and experiences cardiac arrest…

A

His or her heart may resume beating spontaneously

41
Q

What is the most common cause of death due to electrical injury

A

Asphyxia leading to cardiac arrest

42
Q

What is a poision

A

Toxic by nature, no matter how it enters the body or in what quantities it is taken

43
Q

What is a toxidrome

A

A readily identifiable pattern of clinical signs and symptoms that result from certain classes of chemicals and medication

44
Q

Most ingested poisons cause

A

Nausea and vomiting

45
Q

A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index

A

Can be given, but not without close patient monitoring

46
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Difference between median effective dose and the median toxic dose

47
Q

What would help a paramedic differentiate a patient experiencing a sympathomemtic OD from an anticholinergic OD

A

Diaphoresis

48
Q

True or false: injecting medication that is normally ingested will increase its potency, but otherwise will not change the drugs effects or how it is metabolized

A

False

49
Q

Common signs and symptoms of a tricyclic antidepressant OD

A

Altered mental status and tachycardia with widening QT intervals

50
Q

The most common cause of death following tricyclic antidepressant overdose is

A

Cardiac dysrhythmia

51
Q

Death from acetaminophen overdose is most often caused by

A

Progressive liver failure

52
Q

Severe salicylate (ASA) toxicity produces

A

Metabolic acidosis

53
Q

Reversal of toxic doses of benzodiazepine with flumazenil places patient at risk for

A

Untreatable seizure activity

54
Q

What is the antidote for a beta blocker OD

A

Glucagon

55
Q

The most common signs of overdose with calcium channel blockers are

A

Hypotension and bradycardia

56
Q

Tricyclic antidepressant OD may lead to all of the following cardio toxic effects

A

V-Fib
Asystole
Vtach
NOT BRADYCARDIA

57
Q

You are treating a 4 year old male who has ingested 45 extra strength tylenol. What is the most important information to give to poison control

A

The child’s weight

58
Q

Any sympathomemtic drug will cause

A

Tachycardia

59
Q

You would expect a person to be hypertensive and tachycardic if they are exposed to

A

-Cocaine
-Meth
-MDMA

60
Q

What would the ECG of someone with cocaine toxicity show

A

Prolongation of the QT interval

61
Q

LSD is

A

A hallucinogenic

62
Q

Signs and symptoms of marijuana use include

A

-blood shot eyes
-euphoria
-drowsiness

63
Q

Most common symptom of cocaine intoxication

A

Chest pain

64
Q

What is the opium intoxication triad

A

Pinpoint pupils
CNS depression
Respiratory depression

65
Q

What is the antidote for an acute opioid OD

A

Naloxone

66
Q

A patient experiencing euphoria with vivid hallucinations and synaesthsia is likely taking

A

Ecstasy

67
Q

Treatment for a meth OD is

A

Valium

68
Q

What occurs in the warm zone

A

Decontamination

69
Q

Examples of chemical weapons

A

Vesicants
Industrial chemicals
Pulmonary agents

70
Q

The primary route of exposure to pulmonary agents is

A

Inhalation

71
Q

Smallpox blankets and mailed anthrax are both examples of terror attacks using

A

Biological agents

72
Q

When identifying the amount of radiation a patient has been exposed to you need to consider all the following except

A

Patients natural resistance

73
Q

At a CBRNe scene, the inner most circle surrounding the hazardous agent/event is called the

A

Hot zone

74
Q

Vesicant agents inflict injury by causing

A

Burn like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract

75
Q

Signs and symptoms of exposure to a nerve agent include

A

Salivation, pinpoint pupils, diarrhea

76
Q

A multiple casualty incident is defined as

A

An event where the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders

77
Q

An individuals span of control

A

Represents the number of personnel who report to him or her

78
Q

What does the safety officer do

A

Has the authority and responsibility to stop an emergency operation if he believes a rescuer is in danger

79
Q

If your unit is the first to arrive at an incident, you should keep yourself safe, size up the scene, and then

A

Notify dispatch, identify your unit, apprise dispatch of the situation, and assume command

80
Q

What is the primary duty of the triage officer

A

Ensure that every patient receives a triage assessment

81
Q

The staging supervisor is responsible for

A

Coordinating with all incoming and outgoing ambulances

82
Q

The first step in the START triage system involves

A

Directing all the walking and wounded to an easily identifiable landmark

83
Q

According to START triage system, a non-breathing patient should be triaged as immediate if

A

A manual airway maneuver restores breathing

84
Q

You arrive on scene to an MCI, incident command has already been established, what should you do

A

Stay at your vehicle until given instructions

85
Q

The goal of doing the greatest good for the greatest number of people mandates that

A

Triage assessment is brief and patient condition categories are basic

86
Q

A single command system is one which

A

One person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond

87
Q

The unified command

A

Allows representative from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility

88
Q

During a disaster, logging of all pts and the hospitals to which they are transported to is primarily the responsibility of the

A

Transportation supervisor

89
Q

During a small-scale incident, the incident commander:

A

May perform all the command functions

90
Q

As soon as the triage officer receives patients from the triage section, he or she should:

A

Perform secondary triage

91
Q

Patients with delirium often experience

A

Hallucinations

92
Q

What is initial treatment for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Ethanol

Pathology 3 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions