SAM II Final Exam - Oncology Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: Use of Doxorubicin is a prognosticator in cats with lymphoma

A

True

Better outcome in cats with doxorubicin use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If the standard of care is recommended to treat an osteosarcoma (curative intent), what is the expected cure rate (2 year survival)?

  • 0-5%
  • 5-10%
  • 15-25%
  • 30-40%
A

15-25%​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

________ is a neoplastic proliferation of hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow

A

leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What chemotherapeutic drugs are affected by multidrug resistance?

A

vinca alkyloids, anthracyclines, actinomycin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What lymph nodes typically experience the most dramatic enlargement in a case of multicentric lymphoma?

A

mandibular and superficial cervical

Diagnosis in these patients is usually very easy (fine needle aspirate), but it is important to immunophentype!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CD79a-positive stain. Is this a B cell or T cell lymphoma in this dog?

A

B cell lymphoma

B cells have a fair response to chemotherapy. Once these patients reach remission, it is usually a very durable remission and these patients have a much higher chance (than T cell) of being cured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of chemotherapeutic drug is Toceranib?

A

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

After treatment with Doxorubricin, how many days should you wait to look for myelosupression?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a side effect of cyclophosphamide therapy caused by acrolein?

  • Vesicant
  • Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis
  • Gastrointestinal toxicity
  • Neurotoxicity
A

Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

‘Petal’, the 12 year old FN Siamese presents with a mammary mass. What is the first thing you recommend?

  • FNA
  • Biopsy
  • Radical bilateral, staged mastectomy
  • Three thoracic radiographs
  • Coagulation profile
A

Three thoracic radiographs​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Some side-effects are specific to a particular chemotherapeutic agent or group of agents. Renal damage is most associated with what chemotherapeutic drug?

A

Cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Joey (who is a dog) has peripheral lymphadenopathy with a T-cell lymphoma but is otherwise healthy. Lymphoma cells are found in his spleen and liver with FNA but not in the bone marrow. The lymphoma is classified as a Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage A. You decide to treat Joey with a 19 week protocol.

He went into remission 1 month after starting CHOP, completed his 19 week protocol. 6 months later he relapsed. What rescue protocol would you use, and what is the expected RR and remission time?

  • Doxorubicin, 70-90% RR, remission of 7-9 months
  • Cyclophosphamide and Prednisolone combo, 60% RR, 3 months remission
  • CCNU (Lomustine) or LOPP, 40% RR, 5 months remission time
A

CCNU (Lomustine) or LOPP, 40% RR, 5 months remission time​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Some side-effects are specific to a particular chemotherapeutic agent or group of agents. Cardiomyopathy is most associated with what chemotherapeutic drug?

A

Doxorubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug may be used as a single agent protocol for multicentric lymphoma?

A

Doxorubicin

  • 50-75% complete remission*
  • Median survival of 6-8 months*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When staging an oral tumor, what would it mean to say a tumor is a T2a?

A

The tumor is 2-4 cm in diameter, without bone invasion

  • T1: Tumor
  • T2: Tumor 2-4 cm diameter
  • T3: Tumor >4 cm diameter
  • A: without bone invasion
  • B: with bone invasion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: Paraneoplastic syndromes often precede the onset of the primary cancer by weeks to months

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: This presentation is consistent with lymphadenitis

A

False

This presentation is consistent with _lymphoma_. Note the homogenous population of lymphoblasts (~3-5x the size of RBCs) occupying more than 50% of the cell population

Lymphadenitis would be characterized by a large population of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Joey (who is a dog) has peripheral lymphadenopathy with a T-cell lymphoma but is otherwise healthy. Lymphoma cells are found in his spleen and liver with FNA but not in the bone marrow. The lymphoma is classified as a Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage A.

When we consider Joey’s lymphoma, which is a negative prognosticator?

  • Stage
  • Location (multicentric)
  • Immunophenotype (T cell)
  • Grade
A

Immunophenotype (T cell)​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T/F: Mediastinal lymphoma is most common in younger FIV-positive cats

A

False

Mediastinal lymphoma is most common in younger _FeLV-positive_ cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The most commonly used chemotherapeutic drug associated with thrombocytopenia is:

A

lomustine (CCNU®)

If this toxicity occurs, you MUST stop using the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

T/F: Oral melanoma may be treated by vaccination

A

True

  • Canine melanoma vaccine - fully licensed for Stage II and III oral melanoma
  • Sensitize the dog to Tumor Associated Antigen (TAA) – unique or a mutation
  • Xenogeneic DNA vaccine - tyrosinase
  • Dosage
    • 0.4 mL dose administered with the Canine Transdermal Device
    • Injection site: muscles of the medial thigh just caudal to the femur
    • Initial treatment: 4 doses of vaccine at two week intervals
    • Booster dose at six month intervals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Refer to the images below. What is the correct criticism for this chemotherapy administration protocol?

  • No mask, eye shield, double gloving (nitrile) gloves used
  • A catheter does not necessarily need to be placed for Vincristine
  • The vet should not be smiling, cancer is serious business
  • I don’t see a Phaseal system in place
A

No mask, eye shield, double gloving (nitrile) gloves used​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In dogs, Stage ___ lymphoma is characterized by generalized lymph node involvement

A

In dogs, Stage III lymphoma is characterized by generalized lymph node involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

It is important to check hematology prior to chemotherapy and 7 days post-chemotherapy, except when using __________ or __________, which both have a severe delay in the myelosuppressive effect (so we’ll check them 2-3 weeks post-chemo).

A

It is important to check hematology prior to chemotherapy and 7 days post-chemotherapy, except when using carboplatin or lomustine, which both have a severe delay in the myelosuppressive effect (so we’ll check them 2-3 weeks post-chemo).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Refer to the diagram and indicate at what point CT/MR would be able to detect cancer:

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Joey (who is a dog) has peripheral lymphadenopathy with a T-cell lymphoma but is otherwise healthy. Lymphoma cells are found in his spleen and liver with FNA but not in the bone marrow. The lymphoma is classified as a Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage A.

What treatment would you recommend for Joey if the owner elects curative intent?

  • Prednisolone
  • Single agent CCNU
  • Single agent Doxorubicin
  • Multi-agent COP
  • Current CHOP (19 week protocol)
A

Current CHOP (19 week protocol)​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F: The majority of mammary gland tumors in cats are malignant

A

True

In cats, MGTs have a tendency to move into the lungs and are associated with high prevalence of developing pleural effusion. We don’t really even biopsy mammary tumors in cats… we just cut them out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F: The use of TMS for 14 days post-doxorubicin markedly reduces the likelihood of needing gastrointestinal antibiotics

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F: Alopecia is the most common side effect associated with chemotherapeutic agents

A

False

Gastrointestinal effects account for the majority of the side effects

  • Anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, colitis
    • Direct effect on gut lining
    • Pancreatitis (L-asparaginase)
    • Central effect (CTZ) (Cisplatin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In cats, presentation can be similar for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and alimentary lymphoma. Because veterinarians have racked up some sort of good karma throughout the years, the treatment for both of these conditions is essentially the same! Woo!

What is the treatment?

A

Chlorambucil and prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What chemotherapeutic agent MUST be included in any chemotherapy protocol for hemangiosarcoma?

A

Doxorubicin

Note: there doesn’t seem to be much difference in whether Doxorubicin is used alone or as part of a multi-agent therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

8 year old Golden Retreiver with generalized lymphadenopathy. On FNA, this is what you see.

What is your diagnosis?

A

lymphoma

There are >50% blasts (consistent with lymphoma). The best treatment for this dog would likely be chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which is correct regarding feline intestinal lymphoma?

  • The most common form is high grade, lymphoblastic
  • Mostly FeLV positive
  • Young siamese are predisposed
  • Characterized by diffuse thickening of the muscularis propria on ultrasonography
A

Characterized by diffuse thickening of the muscularis propria on ultrasonography​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: If your patient has normal PTHrp levels, you’re able to easily rule out malignant cancer

A

False

Normal PTHrp DOES NOT RULE OUT CANCER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What dog breeds are predisposed to developing mammary gland tumors?

A

poodles, dachshunds, spaniels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What method of administration is NOT associated with reduced risk of the sterile hemorrhagic cystitis (as the result of acrolein toxicity)?

  • Divided doses orally over three days
  • Administration of Mesna at the same time as IV drug
  • Administration of Furosemide period to Cyclophosphamide
  • Giving the drug at night
  • Salty snacks to encourage drinking
A

Giving the drug at night​

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In dogs, Stage ___ lymphoma is characterized by liver and spleen involvement

A

In dogs, Stage IV lymphoma is characterized by liver and spleen involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Nasal lymphoma can often mimic nasal adenocarcinoma. One big difference is sensitivity to radiotherapy. Which tumor type is sensitive to radiotherapy?

A

lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Joey (who is a dog) comes to your clinic for a 7 day follow-up check post-cyclophosphamide (CHOP). He is due to receive vincristine. His neutrophil count is 1200 cells/uL (1.2.10^9/L: >3.10^9/L). What do you suggest to Joey’s owner?

  • Give the vincristine, but at a 25% reduced dose
  • Substitute with a non-myelotoxic drug
  • Postpone chemotherapy for 7 days and prescribe antibiotics (TMS)
  • Stop chemotherapy altogether
A

Postpone chemotherapy for 7 days and prescribe antibiotics (TMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Anaplastic carcinoma tends to infect the ________ mammary glands in dogs

A

inguinal (5th set of mammary glands)

Anaplastic carcinomas are highly aggressive and nasty, but only make up ~4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

There are really only two instances in which we utilize bone marrow biopsy in the diagnosis of lymphoma. What are they?

A
  1. If we see cytopenias
  2. If there is an extranodal lymphoma and we think surgery alone could cure
    1. (want to be sure there is no cancer anywhere else)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

With regard to cancer treatment, what does it mean in veterinary medicine for an animal to be ‘cured’?

A

Two years of remission while not receiving chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In a general sense, what type of tumor is present in this patient?

A

carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

________ is the most common metastatic intracranial neoplasm

A

hemangiosarcoma

mechanism of metastasis is hematogenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many radiographic views should be taken to assess tumor metastasis?

A

Three

right lateral, left lateral, and dorsoventral views

46
Q

Pilot, 14 yr, MN, Chow presents with an ulcerated, swollen mass on the muzzle. FNA confirms it is a MCT. The owner decides that she would like to proceed with definitive treatment for the MCT. The grade is Patnaik III, or grade II on the 2-tiered system, c-kit PCR positive. What treatment do you recommend after staging?

  • Radiation: LINAC
  • Chemotherapy: CCNU & Vinblastine
  • Chemotherapy: Masivet
  • Surgery/radiation for locoregional control and chemotherapy for distant (L and M) and long-term Masivet
A

Surgery/radiation for locoregional control and chemotherapy for distant (L and M) and long-term Masivet​

Masitinib (Masivet®) is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor

47
Q

Some side-effects are specific to a particular chemotherapeutic agent or group of agents. Cystitis is most associated with what chemotherapeutic drug?

A

Cyclophosphamide

48
Q

What is the highest predictor for a dog developing osteosarcoma?

A

wither height (size of the dog)

  • The bigger the dog, the higher the chance of developing osteosarcoma*
  • Exceptions: Poodles and Pekingese are also at high risk of developing osteosarcoma*
49
Q

Pilot, 14 yr, MN, Chow presents with an ulcerated, swollen mass on the muzzle. FNA confirms it is a MCT. The owner has very limited funds. What is the best option for him?

  • Curative intent - surgery, radiation, and vinblastine/CCNU
  • TKI - Toceranib
  • Palliative steroid therapy with H1 and H2 blockers
  • NSAID and tramadol
  • Doxorubicin single agent chemotherapy
A

Palliative steroid therapy with H1 and H2 blockers

50
Q

T/F: Alimentary lymphoma is most commonly seen in dogs

A

False

  • Alimentary lymphoma is most commonly seen in cats*
  • Full thickness biopsy is the best technique for diagnosis*
51
Q

T/F: The majority of mammary gland tumors in dogs are malignant

A

False

Mammary gland tumors in dogs are ~50% benign, ~50% malignant

52
Q

When staging an oral tumor, what would it mean to say a tumor is a T3b?

A

The tumor is >4 cm in diameter, with bone invasion

  • T1: Tumor <2 cm diameter
  • T2: Tumor 2-4 cm diameter
  • T3: Tumor >4 cm diameter
  • A: without bone invasion
  • B: with bone invasion
53
Q

T/F: Biopsy is almost always indicated for feline mammary gland tumors

A

False

~90% of feline mammary gland tumors are malignant - don’t need to biopsy

54
Q

T/F: Nasal squamous cell carcinoma in dogs and cats is very sensitive to radiotherapy

A

False

Nasal squamous cell carcinoma in cats is very sensitive to radiotherapy. Not in dogs.

55
Q

T/F: The majority of lymphomas in canines are multicentric

A

True

80-85% of lymphomas in dogs are multicentric

56
Q

What PCR test can provide information about whether a lymphoma is monoclonal or polyclonal?

A

PARR

_P_CR for _a_ntigen _r_eceptor _r_earrangement

  • Helpful for differentiating monoclonal vs. polyclonal
    • Benign - polyclonal
    • Malignant - monoclonal
  • Can monitor for cellular remission (residual disease)
  • Ideal for relapse, pleural fluid, and bone marrow
57
Q

When is it recommended to give recombinant granulocyte colony stimulating factor (rG-CSF)?

A

if you’ve accidentally and severely overdosed your patient

and you know that in 7-10 days time there will be a massive myelosuppression

58
Q

Vincristine and Vinblastine are specific to what phase of the cell cycle?

A

Mitosis

  • Vincristine and Vinblastine are plant alkaloids*
  • The benefit of knowing this is that you can predict when the maximum side effects will occur. So if you know that a drug works in a specific stage of the cycle, toxicity to the host will predictably occur ~7 days after.*
59
Q

________ is the most common form of cutaneous neoplasia in the dog

A

mast cell tumor (MCT)

60
Q

What type of chemotherapeutic drug is cyclophosphamide?

A

alkylating agent

creates cross-linked DNA with strand breaks

61
Q

Joey, 6 yo, MN Golden Retreiver is diagnosed with an osteosarcoma. The owner wants curative intent. What are your treatment recommendations?

  • Start him on chemotherapy only
  • Amputate the limb or limb sparing surgery
  • Amputation/limb sparing + chemotherapy combination
  • Radiation therapy of the sarcoma - stereostatic “gamma knife”
  • Pain killer including biphosphonates - it is a poor prognosis
A

Amputation/limb sparing + chemotherapy combination​

62
Q

What class of chemotherapeutics are most often used as rescue drugs?

A

Alkylating agents

They don’t have cross-reactivity with MDR resistance

63
Q

________ is the most common clinical sign associated with multiple myeloma

A

anemia

64
Q

The __________ refers to the proportion of proliferating cells within a tumor

A

growth fraction (GF)​

65
Q

What is anatomical staging of a tumor?

A

Defining the anatomical extent of the tumor in terms of primary site and distant spread​

66
Q

What is the term to describe a neoplasm associated alteration in bodily structure or function that occurs distant to a tumor?

A

paraneoplastic syndrome

parallels the underling malignancy, with resolution of paraneoplastic syndrome after successful treatment of the tumor

67
Q

T/F: Elevated ALKP is associated with a poorer prognosis in dogs with osteosarcoma

A

True

68
Q

What is the most common site of origin for hemangiosarcomas?

A

spleen (50%)

69
Q

T/F: Alkylating agents and anti-tumor antibiotics are cell cycle non-specific

A

True

Because of this, it can be difficult to predict when the maximum side effects will occur.

70
Q

How do you definitively differentiate between lymphoma and acute leukemia?

A

bone marrow aspirate

  • Acute leukemia will have more than 30-40% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow. Lymphoma will have less than 30% lymphoblasts.*
  • In addition to bone marrow aspirate, there will be a much more pronounced lymphadenopathy with lymphomas. Splenomegaly will be seen with acute leukemia
71
Q

T/F: The majority of splenic masses are malignant and the majority of malignancies are hemangiosarcomas

A

True

2/3 of splenic masses are malignant and 2/3 of malignancies are hemangiosarcomas

72
Q

Joey (who is a dog) comes to your clinic for a 7 day follow up check post-doxorubicin (CHOP). His neutrophil count is 300 cells/uL and he has a fever. What do you suggest to Joey’s owner?

  • Recommend repeat sampling in 7 days to see if he has recovered from his nadir
  • Substitute doxorubicin in the future with dactinomycin
  • Send Joey home with TMS for a course of antibiotics
  • Admit Joey to the isolation facility and start with broad spectrum antibiotics
A

Admit Joey to the isolation facility and start with broad spectrum antibiotics​

73
Q

In a general sense, what type of tumor is present in this patient?

A

round cell tumor

74
Q

If your patient is still persistently hypoglycemic after surgery, what is the drug of choice for medical management?

A

Diazoxide

  • Prevents the release of insulin into circulation
  • Very expensive and usually requires a compounding pharmacist for formulation
75
Q

Joey has peripheral lymphadenopathy with a T-cell lymphoma but is otherwise healthy. Lymphoma cells are found in his spleen and liver with FNA but not in the bone marrow. The lymphoma is classified as a Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage A.

What is the estimated response rate and remission time if we treated Joey with a 19 week protocol?

  • 30%, 3 months
  • 60%, 6 months
  • 80%, 12 months
  • 90%, 2 years
A

80%, 12 months​

76
Q

Joey has peripheral lymphadenopathy with a T-cell lymphoma but is otherwise healthy. Lymphoma cells are found in his spleen and liver with FNA but not in the bone marrow. The lymphoma is classified as a Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage A. You decide to treat Joey with a 19 week protocol.

He relapses in the middle of his 19 week CHOP protocol. What do you recommend?

  • Reinduce with CHOP, week 1
  • CCNU
  • Prednisolone
  • Euthanize
A

Reinduce with CHOP, week 1​

77
Q

The chemotherapeutic agent of choice for transmissible venereal tumor (TVT) is:

A

Vincristine

78
Q

T/F: Prednisolone may be indicated in the treatment of hypercalcemia

A

True

but ONLY after you have ruled out the possibility of cancer. You will forever mask the cancer if you give prednisolone and you haven’t diagnosed it. Also , if the patient has lymphoma and you give prednisolone, you will worsen the prognosis because the patient will be more likely to be resistant to chemotherapy

79
Q

T/F: The majority of patients with lymphoma are asymptomatic

A

True

80
Q

What is the most important prognosticator for lymphoma in the dog?

A

substage

  • Substage a: no systemic signs
  • Substage b: systemic signs**​

Prognosis is much worse for dogs showing clinical signs. These patients do not do as well with chemotherapy and have a predictably shorter mean survival time

81
Q

‘Petal’, the 12 year old FN Siamese presents with a mammary mass. Petal’s MGT: single, left cranial thoracic MG mass, 4.7 cm diameter, LNN normal size. What is the correct negative prognosticator?

  • Size: >4 cm is bad
  • Tumor type: sarcoma vs. carcinoma
  • MG location: thoracic good
  • Only one mass - good
  • N0 - good
A

Size: >4 cm is bad​

82
Q

T/F: There is no difference in outcome in cats between T cell and B cell lymphoma

A

True

83
Q

T/F: The presence of cancer cachexia is a negative prognosticator

A

True

  • Cancer cachexia: weight loss and metabolic alterations observed despite adequate nutritional intake
    • ​(whereas alterations observed due to poor nutritional intake is termed cancer anorexia)
84
Q

The chemotherapeutic agent of choice for mast cell tumors and relapse lymphoma is:

A

Lomustine (CCNU®)

Lomustine is an alkylating agent

85
Q

The chemotherapeutic of choice for multiple myeloma is:

A

Melphalan

  • Melphalan is an alkylating agent*
  • Treatment for multiple myeloma involves Melphalan and prednisone*
86
Q

T/F: When using an emetogen (Cisplatin), it is recommended to withhold food on the morning of chemo treatment

A

True

This will help to avoid food aversion

87
Q

Which is an example of a paraneoplastic syndrome?

  • Peripheral neuropathy due to vincristine
  • Microcytic hypochromic anemia in a cat from intestinal MCT
  • Microcytic hypochromic anemia in a dog due to dermal MCT
  • Thrombocytopenia due to a splenic hemangiosarcoma
A

Microcytic hypochromic anemia in a dog due to dermal MCT​

88
Q

In terms of predicting outcome with mast cell tumors, the most important aspect of staging is:

A

lymph node evaluation (FNA or biopsy)

89
Q

What is the main treatment for mammary tumors?

A

SURGERY

Chemotherapy and endocrine therapy is unproven

90
Q

T/F: Ovariohysterectomy does not play a role in the development of mammary tumors

A

False

  • Ovariohysterectomy does play a role in the development of mammary tumors. Ovariohysterectomy can reduce risk in both cats and dogs*
  • Note, however, that if you’re surgically removing a mammary gland tumor, performing OVH concurrently has no effect on progression of malignant tumors, time to metastasis, or overall survival*
91
Q

What is the general guideline for osteosarcoma predilection sites?

A

away from the elbows, toward the knees

distal radius is most common (except in small dogs, where the femur is most common). The site with the worst prognosis is the proximal humerus (one of the rarest locations)

92
Q

What is the expected MST in a dog that has had a splenectomy for hemoabdomen but no follow-up chemotherapy?

  • 3 weeks - 3 months
  • 3 months - 6 months
  • 6 months - 12 months
  • 2 years
A

3 weeks - 3 months​

93
Q

How do you differentiate acute vs. chronic leukemia?

A
  • Acute: Neoplastic transformation early in the cell lineage (proliferation of blasts)
    • Easier to diagnose (it’s not normal to see lymphoblasts in circulation)
    • Poor prognosis
  • Chronic: Neoplastic transformation late in the cell lineage (proliferation of mature cells)
    • The distinguishing characteristic for chronic leukemia is a massive lymphocytosis
    • Good prognosis
94
Q

What is not a prognosticator for OSA in a dog?

  • Age, >7 year is worse
  • Location, proximal humerus is worse
  • ALKP, failure to decline to normal by D40 is worse
  • Metastasis, presence has a shorter MST
A

Age, >7 year is worse

95
Q

What is a specific hematological feature of hemangiosarcoma?

  • Anemia
  • Heinz bodies
  • Schistocytes
  • Spherocytes
  • Hypochromic RBC
A

Schistocytes​

96
Q

What therapeutic agents are registered for c-kit positive mast cell tumors?

A

Masitinib/Toceranib

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors

97
Q

What type of chemotherapeutic drug is carboplatin?

A

platinum compound

mechanism is similar to alkylating agents (cross-link DNA)

98
Q

What is the chemotherapeutic agent of choice for treatment of hypoglycemia?

A

Streptozocin

  • Islet cell specific chemotherapy
  • Typically used in conjunction with surgery for best prognosis.
  • Remember that this drug is associated with nephrotoxicity, so it requires diuresis beforehand
99
Q

What is NOT a clinical complication of a multiple myeloma?

  • CVA (Cerebrovascular accident)
  • Retinal detachment
  • CKD
  • Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  • Hypercalcemia
  • Thromboembolism
A

Thromboembolism​

100
Q

T/F: When chemotherapy and amputation are combined, we can acheive curative intent in patients with osteosarcoma

A

True

~20% of dogs treated with amputation + chemotherapy survive past 24 months (curative)

101
Q

CD3-positive stain. Is this a B cell or T cell lymphoma in this dog?

A

T cell lymphoma

T cell lymphomas MAY respond to chemotherapy, but they usually develop a relapse very quickly and they have a very short clinical remission

102
Q

You recheck a Pug you referred for radiation therapy (LINAC) for a muzzle MCT after the second week. What is the correct assessment?

  • The dramatic response is a good sign
  • Too early to make a decision, the tumor may recur
  • This is a highly aggressive tumor and carries a grave prognosis
  • The cancer is cured… go home, Pug
A

Too early to make a decision, the tumor may recur​

103
Q

Depigmented nose with bilateral discharge. What is your diagnosis?

A

aspergillosis

104
Q

Joey has peripheral lymphadenopathy with a T-cell lymphoma but is otherwise healthy. Lymphoma cells are found in his spleen and liver with FNA but not in the bone marrow. Classify this lymphoma:

  • Multicentric ,T cell, stage IV, substage A
  • Multicentric, T cell, stage V, substage A
  • Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage b
  • Extranodal lymphoma
  • Acute lymphocytic leukemia
A

Multicentric, T cell, stage IV, substage A​

105
Q

Gastroduodenal ulcers are due to an excess amount of ________ in MCTs (a negative prognosticator) or ________ in gastrinomas

A

Gastroduodenal ulcers are due to an excess amount of histamine in MCTs (a negative prognosticator) or gastrin in gastrinomas

106
Q

What cat breed is predisposed to developing mammary gland tumors?

A

Siamese

107
Q

T/F: Radiotherapy can provide definitive treatment for osteosarcomas

A

False

Osteosarcomas are radioresistant. Radiotherapy would be used for palliative treatment only

108
Q

Some side-effects are specific to a particular chemotherapeutic agent or group of agents. Neuropathy is most associated with what chemotherapeutic drug?

A

Vincristine

109
Q

T/F: Multiple myeloma is associated with polyclonal gammopathy

A

False

Multiple myeloma is associated with _monoclonal gammopathy_ (“finger of death”)

110
Q

A dog receives 6 Gy of radiation weekly for 4 weeks, weekly, before chemotherapy for an osteosarcoma. There is no amputation. Describe the type of radiation course:

  • Definitive, hypofractionated, adjuvant
  • Definitive, hyperfractionated, adjuvant
  • Palliative, hypofractionated, neoadjuvant
  • Palliative, hyperfractionated, adjuvant
A

Palliative, hypofractionated, neoadjuvant​

111
Q

What platinum compound is known to cause fatal pulmonary edema in cats?

A

Cisplatin

“Cisplatin splats cats”

112
Q

T/F: Alkylating agents and Carboplatin are not affected by multidrug resistance

A

True

Alkylating agents (Melphalan, Lomustine) and Carboplatin are not affected by multidrug resistance​