sadsad Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 white blood cell lines?

A
  • neutrophils
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the age distribution of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Bi modal; 2 peaks;

  • 20 years
  • 75 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risk factors for Hodgkins lymphoma

A
  • HIV
  • EBV
  • autoimmune; RF & sarcoidosis
  • family history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does EBV cause

A

glandular fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

features of lymphadenopathy in non hogkins lymphoma?

A
  • rubbery

- non tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does the lymphadenopathy sometimes change in sensation?

A

can become painful when individual drinks alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

name B symptoms

A
  • fever
  • weight loss
  • night sweats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

staging for Lymphoma

A

Ann Arbor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

outline the 4 Ann Arbor stages

A

1) Confined to single lymph node region
2) involvement of 2 or more nodal areas on the same side of the diaphragm
3) involvement of nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
4) Spread beyond lymph nodes e.g. liver or bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ann arbor stage 1?

A

Confined to single lymph node region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anna arbor stage 2?

A

involvement of 2 or more nodal areas on same side of diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Ann arbor stage 3?

A

Involvement of nodes on both sides of the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Ann Arbor stage 4?

A

Widespread involvement including non-lymphatic organs such as the lungs or liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

diagnostic test - hodgkins lymphoma

A

lymph node excision biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

describe Reed-Sternberg cells

A

abnormally large B cells, have multiple nuclei with nucleoli inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

3 types of Non hodgkins lymphoma

A

Burkitt lymphoma

MALT lymphoma

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

starry sky appearance under microscopy

A

Burkitts lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

components of lymphoma MDT

A
  • haematologist
  • specialist nurse
  • clinical oncologist
  • radiologist
  • specialist histopathologist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

differential diagnoses for cervical lymphandenopathy

A
  • disseminated malignancies
  • TB
  • lymphoma
  • sarcoid
  • glandular fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

lymph of the head, neck, face, meningeal lymphatic vessels drain into…

A

deep cervical lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

symptoms of ALL

A
  • anaemia (low Hb)
  • infection (low WCC)
  • bleeding (low platelets)
22
Q

malignancy of lymphoid cells, affecting B or T cell lines. promoting uncontrolled proliferation of immature blast cells with marrow failure & tissue infiltration

A

ccute lymphoblastic leukaemia

23
Q

neoplastic proliferation of blast cells derived from myeloid elements

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

24
Q

peripheral blood film of the acute form of leukaemia

A

dominated by immature cells or blast cells and classifird into; acute myeloblasts or lymphoblasts leukaemia.

25
peripheral blood film of the chronic form of leukaemia
dominated by more mature cells .e.g neutrophils/lymphocytes
26
which leukaemia most commonly affects under 5 year olds
acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
27
which leukaemia commonly affects over 75 year olds
acute myeloid leukaemia
28
what is petechiae?
tiny spots of blood under the skin that do not blanch
29
why is purpura/petechiae a common presentation for leukaemia?
due to low platelet count, patient more likely to bleed
30
differentials for non blanching rash (6)
- leukaemia - meningococcal septicaemia - vasculitis - HSP - ITP - NAI
31
timeframe for FBC when suspeciting leukaemia
FBC within 48 hours when suspect leukaemia
32
definitive diagnosis of leukaemia achieved how?
bone marrow biopsy
33
which leukaemia is associated with down's syndrome?
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
34
blood film in ALL
blast cells
35
ALL associated with what translocation?
Philadelphia chromosome (9:22)
36
what is Richter's transformation
CLL transforming into high-grade lymphoma
37
blood film shows 'smear' or 'smudge' cells
Chronic LL: Occur during the process of preparing the blood film where aged or fragile white blood cells rupture and leave a smudge on the film
38
which leukaemia has 3 phases & what are they?
CML chronic, accelerated, blast phase
39
what happens in the accelerated phase of CML?
the abnormal blast cells take up a high proportion of cells in the bone marrow and blood - patient become symptomatic developing anaemia, thrombocytopenia & become immunocompromised
40
most common leukaemia in adults
AML
41
blood film in AML
high proportion of blast cells. the blast cells can have rods in side their cytopasm that are named Auer rods
42
characteristic of blast cells seen on blood film in AML
blast cells can have rods called Auer rods (in their cytoplasm)
43
leukaemia most commonly associated with Philadelphia translocation (9:22)
CML
44
which leukaemia has a 5 year asymptomatic phase
CML
45
management of leukaemia (6)
- Oncology MDT - Chemotherapy - Steroids - Radiotherapy - Bone marrow transplant - Surgery
46
what is tumour lysis syndrome a complication of?
chemotherapy
47
what is tumour lysis syndrome caused by?
release of uric acid from cells that are being destroyed by chemotherapy
48
name 8 complications of chemotherapy
- infertility - tumour lysis syndrome - secondary malignancy - neurotoxicity - cardiotoxicity - failure - stunted growth in children - infections due to immunodeficiency
49
what can uric acid from tumour lysis syndrome become?
urate crystals & lodge in kidneys
50
medications used to reduce high amounts of uric acid in tumour lysis syndrome (2)
- allopurinol | - rasburicase
51
3 tings release in tumour lysis syndrome
- uric acid - potassium - phosphate