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RIA - HAEMATOLOGY > sadsad > Flashcards

sadsad Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 white blood cell lines?

A
  • neutrophils
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes
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2
Q

what is the age distribution of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Bi modal; 2 peaks;

  • 20 years
  • 75 years
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3
Q

risk factors for Hodgkins lymphoma

A
  • HIV
  • EBV
  • autoimmune; RF & sarcoidosis
  • family history
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4
Q

what does EBV cause

A

glandular fever

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5
Q

features of lymphadenopathy in non hogkins lymphoma?

A
  • rubbery

- non tender

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6
Q

how does the lymphadenopathy sometimes change in sensation?

A

can become painful when individual drinks alcohol

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7
Q

name B symptoms

A
  • fever
  • weight loss
  • night sweats
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8
Q

staging for Lymphoma

A

Ann Arbor

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9
Q

outline the 4 Ann Arbor stages

A

1) Confined to single lymph node region
2) involvement of 2 or more nodal areas on the same side of the diaphragm
3) involvement of nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
4) Spread beyond lymph nodes e.g. liver or bone marrow

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10
Q

Ann arbor stage 1?

A

Confined to single lymph node region

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11
Q

Anna arbor stage 2?

A

involvement of 2 or more nodal areas on same side of diaphragm

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12
Q

Ann arbor stage 3?

A

Involvement of nodes on both sides of the diaphragm

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13
Q

Ann Arbor stage 4?

A

Widespread involvement including non-lymphatic organs such as the lungs or liver

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14
Q

diagnostic test - hodgkins lymphoma

A

lymph node excision biopsy

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15
Q

describe Reed-Sternberg cells

A

abnormally large B cells, have multiple nuclei with nucleoli inside

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16
Q

3 types of Non hodgkins lymphoma

A

Burkitt lymphoma

MALT lymphoma

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma

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17
Q

starry sky appearance under microscopy

A

Burkitts lymphoma

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18
Q

components of lymphoma MDT

A
  • haematologist
  • specialist nurse
  • clinical oncologist
  • radiologist
  • specialist histopathologist
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19
Q

differential diagnoses for cervical lymphandenopathy

A
  • disseminated malignancies
  • TB
  • lymphoma
  • sarcoid
  • glandular fever
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20
Q

lymph of the head, neck, face, meningeal lymphatic vessels drain into…

A

deep cervical lymph nodes

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21
Q

symptoms of ALL

A
  • anaemia (low Hb)
  • infection (low WCC)
  • bleeding (low platelets)
22
Q

malignancy of lymphoid cells, affecting B or T cell lines. promoting uncontrolled proliferation of immature blast cells with marrow failure & tissue infiltration

A

ccute lymphoblastic leukaemia

23
Q

neoplastic proliferation of blast cells derived from myeloid elements

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

24
Q

peripheral blood film of the acute form of leukaemia

A

dominated by immature cells or blast cells and classifird into; acute myeloblasts or lymphoblasts leukaemia.

25
Q

peripheral blood film of the chronic form of leukaemia

A

dominated by more mature cells .e.g neutrophils/lymphocytes

26
Q

which leukaemia most commonly affects under 5 year olds

A

acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

27
Q

which leukaemia commonly affects over 75 year olds

A

acute myeloid leukaemia

28
Q

what is petechiae?

A

tiny spots of blood under the skin that do not blanch

29
Q

why is purpura/petechiae a common presentation for leukaemia?

A

due to low platelet count, patient more likely to bleed

30
Q

differentials for non blanching rash (6)

A
  • leukaemia
  • meningococcal septicaemia
  • vasculitis
  • HSP
  • ITP
  • NAI
31
Q

timeframe for FBC when suspeciting leukaemia

A

FBC within 48 hours when suspect leukaemia

32
Q

definitive diagnosis of leukaemia achieved how?

A

bone marrow biopsy

33
Q

which leukaemia is associated with down’s syndrome?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

34
Q

blood film in ALL

A

blast cells

35
Q

ALL associated with what translocation?

A

Philadelphia chromosome (9:22)

36
Q

what is Richter’s transformation

A

CLL transforming into high-grade lymphoma

37
Q

blood film shows ‘smear’ or ‘smudge’ cells

A

Chronic LL:

Occur during the process of preparing the blood film where aged or fragile white blood cells rupture and leave a smudge on the film

38
Q

which leukaemia has 3 phases & what are they?

A

CML

chronic, accelerated, blast phase

39
Q

what happens in the accelerated phase of CML?

A

the abnormal blast cells take up a high proportion of cells in the bone marrow and blood - patient become symptomatic developing anaemia, thrombocytopenia & become immunocompromised

40
Q

most common leukaemia in adults

A

AML

41
Q

blood film in AML

A

high proportion of blast cells. the blast cells can have rods in side their cytopasm that are named Auer rods

42
Q

characteristic of blast cells seen on blood film in AML

A

blast cells can have rods called Auer rods (in their cytoplasm)

43
Q

leukaemia most commonly associated with Philadelphia translocation (9:22)

A

CML

44
Q

which leukaemia has a 5 year asymptomatic phase

A

CML

45
Q

management of leukaemia (6)

A
  • Oncology MDT
  • Chemotherapy
  • Steroids
  • Radiotherapy
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • Surgery
46
Q

what is tumour lysis syndrome a complication of?

A

chemotherapy

47
Q

what is tumour lysis syndrome caused by?

A

release of uric acid from cells that are being destroyed by chemotherapy

48
Q

name 8 complications of chemotherapy

A
  • infertility
  • tumour lysis syndrome
  • secondary malignancy
  • neurotoxicity
  • cardiotoxicity
  • failure
  • stunted growth in children
  • infections due to immunodeficiency
49
Q

what can uric acid from tumour lysis syndrome become?

A

urate crystals & lodge in kidneys

50
Q

medications used to reduce high amounts of uric acid in tumour lysis syndrome (2)

A
  • allopurinol

- rasburicase

51
Q

3 tings release in tumour lysis syndrome

A
  • uric acid
  • potassium
  • phosphate

RIA - HAEMATOLOGY (6 decks)

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