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HP Exam 4 > SA Zoonoses & Biosecurity > Flashcards

SA Zoonoses & Biosecurity Flashcards

Persons (SA zoonosis and biosecurity) Pelzer (SA zoonosis)

1
Q

which pathogen is most common acquired from animal bite wounds (particularly cats) and requires hospitalization?

A

pasteurella multocida

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2
Q

what are the most commonly identified aerobes of animal bite wounds?

A

strep
staph
moraxella
corynebacterium
neisseria

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3
Q

what are the most commonly identified anaerobic bacteria from animal bite wounds?

A

fusobacterium
bacteriodes
prevotella

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4
Q

what are the risk factors for an animal bite wound to become infected?

A
  1. victim > 50 yo
  2. puncture wound not thoroughly cleansed
  3. bite wound on hands
  4. delay (>24 hr) in treatment
  5. inadeq. attention paid to careful irrigation and debridement during initial wound management
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5
Q

what should you do if you are bitten by an animal?

A
  1. wash the wound
  2. check rabies status of animal that bit
  3. seek medical attention (esp. if pain or red)
  4. call healthy dept.
  5. ind. at high risk of developing infection should def seek medical attention
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6
Q

What gram negative organism is acquired by dog bites and has a tropism for endocardium and vascular endothelium causing sepsis.

A

capnocytophaga canimorus

(found in oral cavity of dogs, cats, and ruminants)

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7
Q

what pathogen causes cat scratch fever?

A

bartonella henselae

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8
Q

T/F: bartonella henselae is documented in 25-41% of normal cats and can transmit the organism only 2-3 weeks via oral of fecal secretion.

A

true

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9
Q

how do humans acquire bartonella henselae infections?

A

cat bites, scratches, or cats licking wonds

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10
Q

how do cats get bartonella henselae?

A

fleas

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11
Q

what symptoms does cat scratch fever (B. henselae) cause in humans?

A

lymphadenopathy, skin papules or pustules, fever, headache, sore throat, splenomegaly, vomiting, stomach cramps, encephalitis, etc.

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12
Q

____________ is proliferation of small blood vessels in skin and visceral organs in immunocompromised individuals infected with bartonella henselae.

A

bacillary angiomatosis

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13
Q

How do you diagnose and treat cat scratch fever?

A

dg: serology and PCR, rule out lymphoma!
tx: aspirate LN, doxycycline, erythromycin, and rifampin

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14
Q

T/F: humans can acquire lepto through handling of infected fetuses and/or placental materials

A

true

also infected urine and milk

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15
Q

which species is a persistently high shedder of lepto?

A

rodents

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16
Q

T/F: humans and dogs are definitive hosts of lepto

A

false – they are both incidental hosts.
it is shed in the urine of carrier animals and humans and pets become infected mostly during late summer/fall.

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17
Q

what illness does lepto cause in dogs?

A

renal or hepatic failure, uveitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, acute febrile illness, or abortion

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18
Q

what illness does lepto cause in humans?

A

anicteric form – fever, chills, myalgia, stiff neck, flu-like

icteric form – jaundice, petechiae, renal insuff., hepatomegaly, aseptic meningitis

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19
Q

what are the symptoms of rabies in humans?

A

anxiety, headache, hyperesthesia, photophobia, swallowing dysfunction, convulsions

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20
Q

which strain of rabies is most common in humans?
which is most common in VA?

A

humans –bat
VA – raccoon

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21
Q

what are the symptoms of rabies in cats and dogs?

A

aggression, incoordination, CNS signs

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22
Q

what are “low risk” animals when talking about rabies?

A

small rodents and lagomorphs (rabbits)

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23
Q

what the “high risk” animals when talking about rabies?

A

raccoons, skunks, foxes, bobcats +/- opossums, groundhogs, beavers

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24
Q

what animal is characterized as a “potentially rabid animal”?

A

a mammal that is considered high risk for rabies with or without compatible signs
OR
a low risk animal with compatible signs

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25
Q

T/F: the actual witnessing of a bite or animal attack is necessary to define rabies exposure.

A

false

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26
Q

T/F: domestic animals that bite other domestic animals are not usually considered rabies suspects unless they are showing signs of dz.

A

true

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27
Q

when an animal is being held in confinement for a suspect rabies case, what should you do if you notice signs that the animal is becoming ill?

A

notify the health department and take animal to vet for exam immediately.

if rabies is suspected, the animal will be immediately euthanized and brain tested for rabies.

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28
Q

T/F: state law does not require ferrets to be vaccinated against rabies

A

true
however there is a vaccine labeled for use in ferrets and it is encouraged to be used.

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29
Q

what is the procedure for when a human is exposed to a dog or cat suspected to have rabies?

A

confinement for 10 days.

if symptoms dev –> euthanasia

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30
Q

What is the protocol for vaccinated dogs and cats that were exposed to rabies?

A

receive immediate veterinary care, get wound cleansing, and booster vaccination.

animal should then be kept under owner control and observed for 45 d.

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31
Q

what is the protocol for unvaccinated dogs, cats, or ferrets that are exposed to rabies?

A

should be euthanized unless the exposing animal tests negative for rabies.

if the owner is unwilling to euthanize, then the animal must be kept in isolation for 4 months (dogs and cats) or 6 months (ferrets). A rabies vaccine will be given at time of quarantine entry.

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32
Q

what is the protocol for dogs and cats that are overdue for their rabies vaccine (w/ documentation) but were exposed to rabies?

A

receive immediate vet care, given rabies booster, and kept under owner observation for 45 days.

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33
Q

what is the protocol for dogs and cats that are overdue for their rabies vaccine (w/o documentation) but were exposed to rabies?

A

receive immediate vet care
given rabies vaccine
4 months of strict quarantine

34
Q

_________ is procedures intended to protect humans or animals against disease or harmful biological agents.

A

biosecurity

35
Q

what is the dot system?

A

it is a biosecurity system used in all patients in the VTH to assess contagious disease risk. The are assigned a biosecurity status (yellow, green, orange, or red) based on their signalment, hx, PE findings, and lab diagnostics).
This information helps determine where the animal will be placed within the hospital and their order of care.

36
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

FPT foal

A

yellow

37
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

ICU patient

A

yellow

38
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient receiving chemotherapy

A

yellow

39
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

unvaccinated dog

A

yellow

40
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

2 day old litter of puppies

A

yellow

41
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

healthy patient presenting for spay surgery

A

green

42
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient presenting for hyperthyroidism check

A

green

43
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient presenting for small wound from running into the fence when chasing a ball

A

green

44
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient presenting for MRI

A

green

45
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient presenting with neurological signs

A

orange

46
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

dog presenting for coughing

A

orange

47
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

horse that is refluxing but has no fever, leukopenia, or diarrhea

A

orange

48
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

food animal with suspected BRDC

A

orange

standard vaccination should provide protection for adjacent hospitalized patients

49
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient presenting with fever, leukopenia, and/or diarrhea

A

red

50
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

horse with strangles

A

red

51
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

food animal with crypto

A

red

52
Q

T/F: most disinfectants are inactivated by organic matter

A

true

53
Q

what are the 3 goals of biosecurity cleaning?

A
  1. decrease pathogen in env.
  2. reduce dose if animal is exposed
  3. decrease duration of exposure
54
Q

what are the “rule of thumb”s when attempting to clean/disinfect/sanitize something?

Hint: the 3 C’s

A

use the correct CONCENTRATION
use adequate CONTACT time (10 min minimum)
apply to CLEAN surface

55
Q

how do you diagnose ring worm in cats/dogs?

A
  1. trichogram
  2. fungal culture (DTM)
  3. +/- woods lamp (lots of false pos and negs)
56
Q

how do you do a DTM to diagnose ringworm?

A
  1. pluck hair sample from lesion or use sterile toothbrush
  2. place on DTM culture media
  3. store in dark area for 5-12 days
  4. positive result = growth and color change at same time
  5. examine under microscope to determine species
57
Q

T/F: ringworm can spread to other pets and people

A

true, but lesions are treatable/curable

58
Q

what would you recommend to a client whose cat was just diagnosed with ringworm in order to reduce the chances of it being transmitted to the humans?

A
  1. frequently wash items patient is in contact with
  2. dust all surfaces with disposable cloths
  3. use dilute (1:10) bleach
  4. sanitize or discard combs, brush, toys
  5. vacuum a lot
  6. wash hands
59
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

feline patient with ringworm lesions

A

orange

wear disposable gown and gloves

60
Q

You perform a fecal float on a recently-adopted puppy. You see hookworms and roundworms. How did the puppy get these parasites?

A

hooks – transmammary
rounds – transplacental or ingestion of eggs from env.

61
Q

You just diagnosed this guys dog with round and hooks. He asks you if he is going to become infected with these worms. What do you tell him?

A

technically yes, but not directly. He would have to ingest the eggs from the env. or the larvae would have to penetrate the skin.

62
Q

What would occur if a human were to be infected with roundworms?

A

visceral, ocular, or neural larval migrans

63
Q

what would occur if a human were to become infected with hookworms?

A

cutaneous larval migrans

64
Q

how can you prevent human infection with hookworms and roundworms?

A

remove dog feces
regular fecal exams and deworming
dont eat sand/dirt
wear shoes and gloves when gardening
cover sand boxes

65
Q

when should you deworm puppies with pyrantel pamoate?

A

2 weeks, 4 weeks, 6 weeks, and 8 weeks of age.

66
Q

What would result from toxoplasmosis infection in an adult woman?
what if she were pregnant?

A

healthy adults = asymptomatic

pregnant or immunocompromised ppl – abortion, congenital brain/eye defects, systemic disease (affects CNS)

67
Q

how do cats acquire toxoplasmosis?

A

ingestion of bradyzoites in mammalian or avian tissue (basically from hunting).

68
Q

how do humans acquire toxoplasmosis from cats?

A

litter box cleaning (if cat is shedding oocysts – 3-10d after ingestion)
or
ingestion oocysts from contaminated soil

69
Q

A pregnant woman comes to your clinic for advice on whether or not she needs to get rid of her cat to avoid contracting toxoplasma. What do you tell her?

A

no! just prevent hunting activity in the cat, do not feed any raw or undercooked meat, and have someone else clean the litter box daily.

70
Q

how do you diagnose the cause of suspected bacterial-induced rashes?

A

impression smear cytology + c/s

71
Q

Which pathogen is a human pathogen – MRSA or MRSP?

A

MRSA, however animals can be transiently colonized and/or opportunistic infections can occur.

MRSP is an animal pathogen and trans to people is rare.

72
Q

what type of dogs would be at most risk for developing MRSA infection?

A

therapy dogs that visit hospitals
(being fed treats or licking patients)

73
Q

What DOT color would the following patient be assigned?

patient with suspected MRSA infection

A

orange dot

wear PPE, wash hands, isolate patient, routinely clean/disinfect, and restrict activities of animal outside of hospital.

74
Q

how can people acquire rabies?

A

bites, scratches from rabid animal
or contact with CNS/neural tissue of infected animal

75
Q

What organisms is chlorhexidine NOT effective against?

A

non-enveloped viruses
dermatophytes

76
Q

what organisms is alcohol NOT effective against?

A

parvo
dermatophyte

77
Q

What organisms is quaternary ammonium NOT effective against?

A

non-enveloped viruses
dermatophytes

78
Q

T/F: quaternary ammonium is NOT inactivated by organic matter

A

false – it is moderately inactivated by OM

79
Q

what organisms is sodium hypochlorite NOT effective against?

A

it has spectrum against ALL viruses, bacteria, spores, and dermatophytes

80
Q

Sodium hypochlorite has spectrum against ALL viruses, bacteria, spores, and dermatophytes. That makes it a great cleaner to use.
What is the downside of this cleaner?

A

it is SIGNIFICANTLY inactivated by organic material

81
Q

T/F: potassium peroxymonosulfate has a spectrum against bacteria, spores, all viruses, and dermatophytes, and it also has a good efficacy in organic debris

A

true

82
Q

Which cleaner has a spectrum against bacteria, viruses, +/- dermatophytes and has a really short contact time (1-5 min)?

A

accelerated hydrogen peroxide

HP Exam 4 (5 decks)

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