SA Preventative Med Flashcards
Persons (prev care guidlines, canine and feline vaccine guidelines)
____________ is a multi-faceted approach that includes veterinary evaluation of your pets overall health and risks of disease or other health problems.
preventative care
what are the 9 components of preventative care?
- regular physical exams
- vaccines
- disease screening
- dental care
- HW/F/T/Int Parasite prev
- nutrition + supplementation
- blood and urine analysis
- risk assessment
- behavior/training/socialization
many more!
Describe what the ‘S’ in SOAP stand for.
S = subjective
meaning information based on the individual themselves
ex. lifestyle, life stage, behavior, diet
Describe what the ‘O’ in SOAP stands for.
O = objective
unbiased, impartial. what are you actually seeing, feeling, and observing at that time.
ex.pain assessment, dental exam, BCS, MCS
Describe what the ‘A’ in SOAP stands for.
A= assessment
based on history, physical exam, etc. what is your assessment/diagnosis of the patient
ex. medical conditions, infectious diseases, parasite prev/control, dental care, genetic/age/breed considerations, behavior, nutrition
Describe what the ‘P’ in SOAP stands for
P = plan
today, tomorrow, next month, or next year what is the plan for the patient.
ex. vaccines, screening tests, nutrition adjustments, behavior, meds, etc.
what is the most important part of a wellness appointment?
a. history
b. thorough physical exam
c. diagnostic tests
d. diagnosis
a. history
Which of the following is FALSE about doing a good physical exam?
a. you should use a consistent method
b. you should perform a complete exam regardless of the complaint
c. you should focus on the most obvious complaint immediately
c. you should focus on the most obvious complaint
while this is going to occur at some point during the exam, you should avoid focusing only on this because you might miss other important clinical findings.
T/F: body condition and muscle condition are to be used interchangeably.
false – they are NOT the same thing
a dog can have a high BCS and a very low MCS, vice versa.
what are the 4 points evaluated on muscle condition scoring?
- spine
- shoulder blades
- skull
- hips
what are the “scores” of muscle condition?
normal
mild loss
moderate loss
severe loss
how can you FULLY assess a patients independent needs?
by identifying their history!
lifestyle, life stage, behavior, etc. will all influence the patients needs.
ie. a patient who never goes outside of the house other than to go to the bathroom is going to have different needs than a patient who travels for dog shows weekly or a patient who goes rabbit hunting often.
how should your hands be positioned when doing abdominal palpation during your physical exam?
flat hands together in praying position, slide them off the ribs and move caudally
Which of the following has a correctly matched pair for normal abdominal palpation findings?
a. livers should be soft, kidneys mildy firm
b. livers should be firm, kidneys mildly firm
c. livers should be soft, kidneys firm
d. livers should be soft, kidneys soft
a. livers should be soft, kidneys mildy firm
What are some things you might be looking for when doing an oral exam?
- gingiva – color, health
- teeth – absence, fractures, dead, lesions
- occlusions
- masses/lesions
A patient presents to your clinic with heavy tartar and periodontal disease with bone loss (as seen on the radiograph). The patient has oral pain. How would you score this patient?
a. grade 1
b. grade 2
c. grade 3
d. grade 4
c. grade 3
A patient presents to your clinic with mild to moderate tartar and some gingivitis. You score this patient as Grade 2. Which of the following recommendations should you give to the owner?
a. you can reverse this dental disease by brushing at home
b. scaling and polishing will reverse this dental disease
c. this patient likely has oral pain and needs extractions
d. periodontal disease is present and patient needs systemic antibiotics
b. scaling and polishing will reverse this dental disease
T/F: grade 4 dental disease is characterized by chronic infection that is destroying the gum, tooth, and bone but is reversible with dental scaling and cleaning.
false – irreversible!
why is it important that we document medical findings during a physical exam?
it notes the results found (normal or abnormal) and specifies what was examined or not.
this is important so that our colleagues can use this information to evaluate and track the patients conditions, provide a continuity of care, and understand the patients medical history in order to ask you follow-up questions if necessary.
what are the 4 aspects of PLANNING in your SOAP?
- diagnostics – CBC, chem, T4, SNAP, fecal
- therapeutic – NSAIDs, joint suppl., weight loss diet, rehab, training, COHAT
- preventative – F/T, bathing, exercise, training, nutrition
- follow-up– exam, bloodwork, phone consult, re-screening
How often should 4Dx tests be performed in dogs?
annually , regardless of vxn/prev status
tests for HW, borreliosis, anaplasmosis, ehrlichia
how often should cats be tested for FIV/FeLV?
initially as kitten or when newly adopted
then annually or biannually if high risk.
T/F: fecal floats should be performed annually on ALL patients of ALL ages
true
what is included on a diagnostic plan for puppies and kittens?
- fecal float
- FIV/FeLV screen
- +/- 4Dx in puppies under 6 months
- +/- ear cytology (stray cats)
T/F: not all patients should be on year round broad spectrum parasite control
false – every dog and cat should be regardless of age or lifestyle!
what are the 4 core canine vaccines?
- rabies virus
- canine distemper virus
- canine parvovirus
- canine adenovirus
what are the 4 “non-core”/”life-style” canine vaccines?
- bordetella
- borrelia burgorferi
- leptospirosis
- canine influenza
what are the 5 core feline vaccines?
- rabies virus
- feline panleukopenia
- feline herpesvirus-1
- calicivirus
- feline leukemia (kittens)
what are the 4 “non-core” feline vaccines?
- feline leukemia virus
- bordetella
- chlamydia
- FIP
how often should a senior/geriatric animal visit the vet?
a. every 6 months
b. monthly-every 3 months
c. every 2-3 weeks
d. annually
a. every 6 months
how often should a hypo or hyperthyroid animal visit the vet?
a. every 6 months
b. monthly-every 6 months
c. every 2-3 weeks
d. annually
b. monthly-every 6 months
How often should diabetic patients visit the vet?
a. depends on the level of control
b. monthly-every 6 months
c. every 6 weeks
d. annually
a. depends on level of control
how often should we be doing fecal screening in our patients?
a. every 3 months (4x year)
b. every 6 months (biannual)
c. every year (annually)
d. every 3 years
e. only if clinical signs are present
c. annually
and 2 weeks post treatment of intestinal parasites.
what is the #1 cause of lack of owner compliance?
poor or inadequate pet-owner education
T/F: dogs of different sizes and breeds are going to have personalized preventative care.
true
ex. a smaller breed dog is most likely doing to need annual COHATs and dental care, whereas a larger breed dog will need joint supplements/care.
T/F: the puppy stage is much shorter in smaller breeds and the adult stage is shorter in larger breeds.
true
in general, what are 2 critical components of juvenile care that are important in adult animals, but might not be as prevalent during the adult lifestage?
- reproductive health – spaying and neutering
- socialization
in general, what is a component of adult and senior animal veterinary care that is not as important during the juvenile life stage?
dental care
for senior animals, what is an important aspect of their veterinary care that is not as important during other lifestages?
routine lab tests
what types of things would you evaluating and discussing with owners at a kitten visit?
- looking for congenital health problems
- discussing lifestyle, diet, repro plans, microchipping, vxnation, and parasite control
- recommending ways to meet physical and social needs of kitten to prevent behavior problems
What types of things would you evaluating and discussing with owners at a junior cat visit (7 months - 2 years)?
- evaluating for any infectious diseases
- evaluating any problems related to fighting, hunting, or trauma
- discuss socialization
- diet and body weight monitoring
what types of things would you evaluating and discussing with owners at a adult cat visit (3-6 years)?
- vaccination and parasite control
- dental or gum disease (cleaning or home care recommendations)
- eval for obesity, cystitis, intestinal dz, heart dz, allergies, and problematic behaviors
what types of things would you evaluating and discussing with owners at a mature cat visit (7-10 years)?
- diabetes, kidney dz, high BP, hyperT4, cancer
- look for signs of dz: poor coat condition, weight loss, lethargy, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, change in appetite/thirst, change in urination, reduced activity
- eval: obesity
T/F: when cats get older, it is considered normal for them to slow down and develop clinical signs that appear to be associated with kidney disease, arthritis, diabetes, etc. but its attributed to age, not actual disease most of the time.
false – age is NOT the culprit
older cats (>7) are more prone to diseases such as hyperthyroidism, kidney dz, high BP, arthritis, diabetes, cancer, etc.
clinical signs assoc with these conditions should be investigated NOT passed off as old age.
T/F: senior cats eat and groom less which may lead to coat and skin problems as well as overgrown nails.
true
Which age range of cats has the GREATEST risk of age-related diseases (caner, kidney dz, heart dz, hyperthyroid, high BP, weight loss due to digestive problems, arthritis)?
super seniors (15+ yo)
what are the 4 big things included in your diagnostic plan for middle-aged through senior dogs?
- CBC
- Chemistry
- Urinalysis
- T4
what are the 3 big areas of lifestyle questions to ask dog owners?
- travel and outdoor activity
- home environment and home care
- unusual behaviors
what are the 4 big areas of lifestyle questions to ask cat owners?
- access to outdoor environment
- home environment and home care
- litter box habits
- routine and behavior
Which of the following is FALSE about attenuated/live/ML vaccines?
a. long duration of immunity
b. likely to prevent infection AND disease
c. may result in transient period of shedding attenuated/modified virus
d. requires careful storage and handling
e. requires adjuvant to induce immunity
e. requires adjuvant to induce immunity
which of the following is FALSE about inactivated/killed vaccines?
a. less immunogenic
b. shorter duration of immunity
c. protects against infection AND disease
d. associated with adverse reactions
e. requires adjuvant
c. protects against infection and disease
may not protect against infection, but decrease the severity of disease/clinical signs.
Which of the following is FALSE about recombinant/subunit vaccines?
a. long duration of immunity
b. uses a gene of the pathogen inserted into virus or bacterial plasmid
c. variable immunogenicity
d. may require frequent boosters
a. long duration of immunity
what type of vaccine is the cytopoint injection?
therapeutic biologic
intended to support treatment
The rabies vaccine ensures that the disease CANNOT develop. Is this vaccine sterilizing or protective?
sterilizing
The bordetella vaccine reduces the severity of disease rather than preventing it from occurring at all. Is this vaccine sterilizing or protective?
protective
T/F: with age the immune system function declines, therefore older patients are at higher risks for infection, autoimmune dz, and cancer.
true
T/F: patients with immunocomprimising conditions should be administered killed vaccines over ML vaccines.
true
T/F: you can give an intranasal vaccine subcutaneously
false
where should rabies be administered in dogs and what route?
right rear leg SQ
where should distemper be administered in dogs and what route?
right shoulder SQ
where should bordetella be administered and what route(s) in dogs?
intranasally, intraorally, or right/left shoulder SQ
where should influenza be administered in dogs and what route?
left shoulder SQ or left hip SQ
where should lyme be administered in dogs?
if DAPP = right shoulder SQ or left thorax SQ
if alone = left rear leg SQ or left shoulder SQ
_______ significantly interferes with the efficacy of most current core vaccines administered to puppies and kittens in early life. The levels vary, so it is recommended to give 3 vaccine doses with the final being delivered at 14-16 weeks of age or above.
maternal derived antibody
At what age (and no earlier than) are you permitted to give a rabies vaccine in dogs?
12 weeks
single dose.
Is a dog vaccinated for rabies on 3/1/23 considered immunized on 3/27?
no.
they are not considered immunized until 28 days after vaccine administration
when should dogs be revaccinated against rabies after their initial vaccine?
1 year following initial dose, then repeat every 1-3 years.
At what age should a dog receive a DA2P (distemper, adenovirus, parvo, parainfluenza) vaccine?
puppies as early as 6 weeks, then give at 2-4 week intervals until they are 16 weeks old
if over 16 weeks, give a single dose
When should a dog receive a DA2P (distemper, adenovirus, parvo, parainfluenza) booster after finishing the initial series?
single dose, 1 year following initial.
then repeat every 3 years.
when can a dog receive its first bordetella vaccine?
IN/oral single dose at 8 weeks of age, unless Intranasal then it can be given as early as 2-3 weeks of age.
parenteral 2 doses, 2-4 weeks apart starting at 8 weeks.
when should a dog be revaccinated against bordetella after receiving an initial series?
IN/oral – annually-biannually
parenteral – annually
what 4 serovars of lepto are covered by the killed vaccine?
C – canicola
P – pomona
I – icterohemorrhagiae
G – grippotyphosa
At what age should dogs receive the lepto vaccine?
start as early as 8 weeks – 2 doses, 2-4 weeks apart.
T/F: 2 doses of lepto, lyme, and flu are required regardless of dogs age at the initial vaccine
true
when should dogs be boostered for lepto after finishing the initial series?
single dose annually
when should dogs receive the lyme vaccine?
start as early as 8 weeks, 2 doses, 2-4 weeks apart
how often should lyme vaccines be boostered in dogs that have finished their initial series?
annually
Why is the Vanguard crLYME vaccine considered to be the “gold standard” lyme vaccine?
it provides broad-spectrum coverage against OspA found in the tick and OspC found in dog, as well as has 15-month duration of immunity, and has reduced infection by ~94%.
when should dogs be given the canine influenza vaccine?
start as early as 6-8 weeks old, give 2 doses, 2-4 weeks apart.
how often should a dogs flu vaccine be boostered after finishing the initial series?
annually
T/F: dogs receiving the canine influenza vaccine are not protected against disease or shedding
true
What are the most common vaccine reactions in dogs?
fever, lethargy, knots/lumps
what increases vaccine reactions in dogs?
- being neutered
- being 1-3 years of age
- being given more than one vaccine during visit
- decreased body weight (smaller breeds, etc.)
where are the following feline vaccines given and with what route?
a. rabies
b. FVRCP
c. FeLV
a. rabies – very distal right rear leg SQ
b. FVRCP – intranasal
c. FeLV – very distal left rear leg SQ
why are feline vaccines given on the most distal aspect of the limbs?
injection site sarcomas are a risk, so if they do occur, it would make removal easier or if amputation was needed.
when should cats be given the rabies vaccine?
no earlier than 12 weeks! given as a single dose.
when should cats be boostered for rabies after finishing the initial vaccine?
1 year following the initial dose and then repeat every 1-3 years.
Why is “PUREVAX” a better rabies vaccine choice for cats?
it does not have adjuvant, so there is protection against rabies without higher risk of feline injection-site sarcomas.
When should cats receive the FVRCP vaccine?
kittens: start as early as 6 weeks, then give every 3-4 weeks until 16-20 weeks old.
adults: 2 doses, 3-4 weeks apart
when should a cat receive FVRCP boosters after finishing the initial vaccine series?
consider at 6 months old, then every 1-3 years.
Is feline leukemia vaccine core or non-core?
core for ALL kittens (<1 yo)
non-core for low-risk adult cats
ie. get the initial series!
when should cats receive the feline leukemia vaccine?
kittens – start at 8 weeks, give 2 doses, 3-4 weeks apart
adults – 2 doses, 3-4 weeks apart
T/F: you should test for the antigen prior to giving the feline leukemia vaccine
true
how often should cats receive feline leukemia booster after they have finished the initial vaccine series?
single dose 1 year after initial
then every 2-3 years (low risk) or annually (high risk)
what are the most common adverse vaccine reactions in cats?
lethargy, fever, local pain/swelling at injection site, vomiting, facial/periorbital edema, pruritus
T/F: adverse vaccine reactions in cats are more likely in adult cats
false – young
when should you report feline vaccine reactions?
if the cat required in-clinic treatment
T/F: all injections (not just vaccines) may be associated with sarcoma formation in cats.
true
how can we mitigate injection site sarcomas in cats?
- administer SQ as distal in limb as possible
- increase intervals between vaccines (3 year)
- avoid using adjuvanted vaccines
- warm vaccines to room temp
T/F: if you have a patient with over-due vaccines or unknown vaccine history, it is ok to vaccinate them again.
true – the benefits of vaccination far outweigh the risks
