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Years 1+2 > S3Anatomy > Flashcards

S3Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of the skull?

A

The skull protects the brain and organs of special sense and forms a skeleton for the upper part of the alimentary and respiratory tracts

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2
Q

What makes up the neurocranium?

A 
Ethmoid
Sphenoid
Frontal
Occipital
Temporal
Parietal
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3
Q

What makes up the viscerocranium?

A 
Vomer
Inferior Nasal Concha
Zygomatic
Maxilla
Lacrimal
Palatine
Mandible
Nasal
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4
Q

What are the 3 sutures of the skull?

A

Frontal
Sagittal
Lamdoidal

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5
Q

What are intersections between sutures called?

A

Fontanelles

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6
Q

What are the four fontanelles in neonatal skulls?

A

Anterior
Posterior
Anterolateral (sphenoidal)
Posterolateral

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7
Q

What is the anterior fontanelle called when it is closed?

A

Bregma

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8
Q

What is the posterior fontanelle called when it is closed?

A

Lambda

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9
Q

What is the anterolateral fontanelle called when it is closed?

A

Pterion

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10
Q

What is the posterolateral fontanelle called when it is closed?

A

Asterion

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11
Q

What is the metopic suture and when does it fuse?

A

Midline of the frontal bone

fuses around 7 years

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12
Q

What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint?

A

Synovial, modified hinge joint

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13
Q

What are the superior articulating surfaces of the temporomandibular joint?

A

Mandibular fossa

Articular tubercle of the temporal bone

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14
Q

What structure forms the inferior articulating surface of the temporomandibular joint?

A

Head of mandible

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15
Q

what type of cartilage covers the articulating surface of the temporomandibular joint?

A

Fibrocartilage

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16
Q

What happens when the jaw fully opens?

A

The head of the mandible slides forward from the mandibular fossa onto the articular tubercle. This movement is termed translation and it occurs in the superior articular cavity. In the inferior articular cavity the head of the mandible rotates around a transverse axis.

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17
Q

What helps prevent posterior dislocation of the mandible?

A

Lateral temporomandibular ligament

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18
Q

What are the 3 ligaments associated with the temporomandibular joint?

A

Lateral temporomandibular ligament
Stylomandibular ligament
Sphenomandibular ligament

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19
Q

What are the boundaries of the temporal fossa?

A

Superior - inferior temporal line
Anterior - frontal process of zygomatic bone
Medial - parietal & temporal bone
Lateral – zygomatic arch
Inferior - infratemporal crest of sphenoid
Posterior – inferior temporal line

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20
Q

What are the boundaries of the infratemporal fossa?

A

Superior - greater wing of sphenoid
Anterior – maxillary tuberosity
Medial – lateral pterygoid plate
Lateral – ramus & coronoid process of mandible

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21
Q

What are the boundaries of the pterygopalatine fossa?

A

Superior - inferior surface of body of sphenoid
Anterior - maxillary tuberosity
Medial - vertical plate of palatine bone
Lateral – pterygomaxillary fissure,
Inferior - pterygopalatine canal
Posterior – pterygoid process of sphenoid

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22
Q

What region of the brain is the anterior cranial fossa associated with?

A

Frontal Lobes

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23
Q

What regions of the brain is the middle cranial fossa associated with?

A

Pituitary gland and temporal lobes

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24
Q

What regions of the brain is the posterior cranial fossa associated with?

A

Cerebellum, pons and medulla

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25
Q

What is the arachnoid mater?

A

Thin, avascular membrane composed of fibroblasts, collagen fibres and some elastic fibres.
It is pushed up against the inner surface of the dura mater by the pressure of the cerebrospinal fluid
lines the dural sac and the dural root sheaths

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26
Q

What is the diaphragmatic sellae?

A

A sheet of dura mater which attaches to the clinoid process of the sphenoid bone. It covers the pituitary gland and contains an opening through which the infundibulum and hypophysial veins pass

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27
Q

What is the falx cerebelli?

A

A dural reflection that attaches to the internal occipital crest, it partially separates the cerebellar hemispheres.

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28
Q

What is extradural space?

A

A pathological space that forms when blood leaks from torn meningeal vessels and pushes the periosteum away from the cranium.

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29
Q

What is the falx cerebri?

A

An infolding of meningeal dura mater located in the longitudinal fissure. Attaches to the median plane of the calvarium from the frontal crest of frontal bone and crista galli of ethmoid bone anteriorly to the internal occipital protuberance posteriorly.

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30
Q

What is the pia mater?

A

A very thin, highly vascularized membrane that adheres to the surface of the brain and follows all its contours
directly covers the spinal cord, the roots of the spinal nerves and the spinal blood vessels

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31
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

Lies between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, it contains cerebrospinal fluid, arteries and veins.

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32
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

A

Dural reflection which separates the occipital lobes from the cerebellum. It attaches to the clinoid processes of sphenoid bone, petrous temporal bone, internal surface of occipital bone and part of the parietal bone.

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33
Q

What is the the dura mater?

A

Tough fibrous membrane .
Consists of an outer periosteal layer and an inner meningeal layer.
forms the spinal dural sac

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34
Q

Where does the middle meningeal artery enter the skull?

A

Enters the middle cranial fossa of the skull via the foramen spinosum

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35
Q

What does the middle meningeal artery bifurcate into?

A

Frontal and parietal branches

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36
Q

The middle meningeal artery arises in the infratemporal fossa, which vessel does it arise from?

A

Maxillary artery

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37
Q

Where does the middle meningeal artery lie?

A

Between meningeal and periosteal dura mater

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38
Q

What is the thinnest part of the skull?

A

Pterion

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39
Q

What forms the pterion?

A

Frontal, parietal, sphenoid and temporal bones

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40
Q

The middle meningeal veins accompany the arteries. Where do they drain into?

A

Pterygoid plexus

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41
Q

What innervates the dura mater?

A

Branches of the vagus, trigeminal and first three cervical nerves

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42
Q

What causes the sensation of headaches?

A

Stimulation of the nerves by stretch results in the sensation of headache. Stimulation of nerve endings above the level of the tentorium cerebelli results in headache on the same side of the head. Stimulation of receptors below the tentorium cerebelli leads to pain on the back of the neck and scalp

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43
Q

What is the denticulate ligament?

A

Fibrous sheet of pia mater which suspends the spinal cord in the dural sac. It extends laterally from the spinal cord and attaches to the inner surface of the dural sac.

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44
Q

What are the dural root sheaths?

A

Lateral extensions of the spinal dura mater which surround the nerve roots.

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45
Q

What is the lumbar cistern?

A

An enlargement of the subarachnoid space, caudal to the conus medullaris, extending between L2 to S2 vertebra. It contains CSF and the cauda equina

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46
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate?

A

L1

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47
Q

Where does the spinal dura and arachnoid mater terminate?

A

S2

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48
Q

What plane intersects the spinous process of L4?

A

Supracristal plane - the highest points of the iliac crest

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49
Q

Describe spina bifida occulta

A

Failure of vertebral arch fusion alone, a dimple or tuft of hair may overlie the abnormality, clinical abnormalities rare.

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50
Q

Describe Meningomyelocele

A

Failure of vertebral arch fusion, with herniation of the meninges and elements of the spinal cord. May result in paralysis of the limbs and faecal and urinary incontinence.

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51
Q

Describe Meningocele

A

Failure of vertebral arch fusion, with herniation of the meninges. May be corrected with surgery with minimal consequences.

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52
Q

What does the ventricular system consist of?

A

our ventricles (lateral x 2, 3rd and 4th) that are interconnected by channels and are continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord and the subarachnoid space

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53
Q

What are the ventricles lined by?

A

Ependymal cells

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54
Q

What are the groups of specialised ependymal cells that secrete CSF?

A

Choroid plexus

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55
Q

What is the route of the CSF?

A 
Lateral ventricles
Interventricular foramen
Third ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
Fourth ventricle
Median/ Lateral apertures
Subarachnoid space
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56
Q

What returns CSF to the venous system?

A

Arachnoid villi

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57
Q

What are arachnoid villi?

A

sections of arachnoid mater which project into the dural venous sinuses

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58
Q

What forms subarachnoid cisterns?

A

Around the base of the brain, the distance between the arachnoid mater and pia mater is increased in some areas forming subarachnoid cisterns

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59
Q

What do subarachnoid cisterns contain?

A

Greater amounts of CSF, arachnoid trabeculae and some cranial nerve roots

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60
Q

What is the cerebellomedullary cistern? What is it also known as?

A

Cisterna Magna
The largest cistern, located between the cerebellum and medulla
receives CSF from the median and lateral apertures

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61
Q

Where is the chiasmatic cistern?

What does it contain?

A

Lies inferior and anterior to the optic chiasma

Contains the decussation of the optic nerves fibres

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62
Q

Where is the pontocerebellar (pontine) cistern?

A

Anterior to the pons

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63
Q

Where is the quadrigeminal cistern?
What is it also referred as?
What does it contain?

A

Cistern of the great vein
Located between posterior part of the corpus callosum and the cerebellum
Contains parts of the great cerebral vein and pineal gland

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64
Q

Where is the interpeduncular (basal) cistern?

A

Between the cerebral peduncles of the midbrain

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65
Q

Where is the cisterna ambiens?

A

Lateral aspect of the brain, and is continuous with the quadrigeminal cistern

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66
Q

What are dural venous sinuses?

A

At the site of attachment of the dural reflections the meningeal and periosteal layers of the dura mater become separated to form epithelial lined spaces

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67
Q

Where do the dural venous sinuses eventually empty?

A

IJV

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68
Q

Through which foramen does the internal carotid artery enter the skull?

A

Carotid canal

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69
Q

From which artery does the vertebral artery arise?

A

Subclavian

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70
Q

What does the internal carotid bifurcate into?

A

anterior and middle cerebral arteries

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71
Q

What ascends through the foramen transversarum?

A

Vertebral arteries

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72
Q

The great cerebral vein (of Galen) unites with the inferior sagittal sinus to form which sinus?

A

Straight sinus

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73
Q

Which sinus does the superior cerebral vein drain into?

A

Superior sagittal sinus

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74
Q

The inferior and superficial middle cerebral veins drain into which sinuses?

A

Straight
Transverse
[?]

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75
Q

The superior and inferior cerebellar veins drain into which sinuses?

A

Transverse

[?]

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76
Q

What makes up the vertebral column?

A 
7 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
4 coccygeal
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77
Q

Where does the sacrum transfer the body weight to the pelvis?

A

The sacroiliac joint

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78
Q

What does the lamina connect?

A

The spinous process and the transverse process

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79
Q

What forms the intervertebral foramen?

A

the superior notch on The pedicle of one vertebra and the inferior notch on the pedicle of an adjacent vertebra

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80
Q

How is the thoracic section of the vertebral column curved?

A

Concave anteriorly

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81
Q

What develops first: the lumbar or cervical curvature of the spine?

A

Cervical

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82
Q

What is a kyphosis?

A

An exaggerated sagittal curvature in the thoracic region

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83
Q

What is a lordosis?

A

An exaggerated sagittal curvature in the lumbar region

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84
Q

What might an increased weight of the uterus during pregnancy result in? (regarding spine)

A

Scoliosis

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85
Q

What movements are possible in the vertebral column?

A

Flexion, extension, lateral flexion, rotation and circumduction

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86
Q

Which vertebra has triangular vertebral foramen?

A

Lumbar

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87
Q

Which vertebra has a foramen transversarium on the transverse processes?

A

Cervical

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88
Q

Which was do the superior articular facets face on cervical vertebra?

A

Posteriorly and superiorly

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89
Q

Describe the pedicles on lumbar vertebra

A

Strong

Directed backwards

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90
Q

Which was do the superior articular facets face on thoracic vertebra?

A

Posteriorly and laterally

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91
Q

Describe the spinous process on cervical vertebra

A

Small

Bifid

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92
Q

Describe the body on lumbar vertebra

A

Large

Kidney shaped

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93
Q

Describe the spinous process on thoracic vertebra

A

Long

Downward pointing

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94
Q

Which was do the superior articular facets face on lumbar vertebra?

A

Medially

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95
Q

Describe the spinous process on lumbar vertebra

A

Short
Flat
Quadrangular

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96
Q

Describe the body on thoracic vertebra

A

Medium sized

Heart shaped

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97
Q

Describe the vertebral foramen on cervical vertebra

A

Large

Triangular

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98
Q

Where are costal facets present?

A

Thoracic vertebra

On the body and transverse process

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99
Q

Describe the body on cervical vertebra

A

Small body

Broad from side to side

100
Q

Describe the vertebral foramen on thoracic vertebra

A

Small

circular

101
Q

Which was do the inferior articular facets face on thoracic vertebra?

A

Anteriorly and medially

102
Q

Which was do the inferior articular facets face on lumbar vertebra?

A

Laterally

103
Q

Which was do the inferior articular facets face on cervical vertebra?

A

Anteriorly and inferiorly

104
Q

Describe C1

A

The atlas
No body or spinous process
Anterior and posterior arches with two lateral masses

105
Q

Where do the lateral masses on C1 articulate?

A

Articulates superiorly with the occipital condyles and inferiorly with the axis

106
Q

What do C2 possess making it unique?

A

An odontoid process (dens) projecting superiorly

107
Q

Why is C7 considered atypical?

A

Possesses a long, non-bifid spinous process

Foramen transversarium is small and only trasmits the vertebral vein (rather than both vein and artery)

108
Q

Where are the atlanto-occipital joints found?

A

Between the occipital condyles and the superior facets of the lateral masses of the atlas

109
Q

What movements do the atlanto-occipital joints allow?

A

Flexion, extension and lateral flexion.

110
Q

What type of synovial joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Condyloid

111
Q

What supports the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

The anterior and posterior atlanto-occipital membranes. The anterior atlanto-occipital membrane is a continuation of the anterior longitudinal ligament.

112
Q

The anterior atlanto-occipital membrane connects the anterior arch of the atlas to the anterior margin of which structure?

A

Anterior inferior margin of the foramen magnum

113
Q

What does the posterior atlanto-occipital membrane connect?

A

The posterior arch of the atlas to the posterior margin of the foramen magnum

114
Q

How many atlanto-axial joints are there?

A

There are three atlanto-axial joints; two lateral and one medial

115
Q

Where are the lateral atlanto-axial joints located?

A

Between the inferior facets of the atlas and the superior facets of the axis

116
Q

What type of synovial joints are the lateral atlanto-axial joints?

A

Plane

117
Q

Where is the medial atlanto-axial joints located?

A

Between the anterior arch of the atlas and the odontoid process of the axis.

118
Q

What type of synovial joint is the medial atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Pivot

119
Q

What is the job of the apical ligament?

A

Connects the odontoid process to anterior margin of foramen magnum

120
Q

What does the Alar ligament connect?

A

Connects the odontoid process to the medial side of the occipital condyles.

121
Q

Where is the transverse part of the cruciate ligament attached? What is its role?

A

Attached to the inner aspect of each lateral mass, holds the odontoid process against the anterior arch of atlas

122
Q

Where is the vertical part of the cruciate ligament?

A

Extends between the posterior surface of the body of the axis to the anterior border of the foramen magnum.

123
Q

What is the membrane tectoria?

A

An extension of the posterior longitudinal ligament, it attaches to the occipital bone and covers the odontoid process and other ligaments

124
Q

Where are the zygophophyseal joints located?

A

Between adjacent vertebral arches

125
Q

What forms the articular surfaces of zygophophseal joints?

A

The articular surfaces of adjacent superior and inferior articular facets

126
Q

What type of joint are zygophophyseal joints?

A

Synovial plane joints

127
Q

Where does the intertransverse ligament extend?

A

Between adjacent transverse processes

128
Q

Where does the ligamentum favum extend?

A

Between the lamina of adjacent vertebrae

129
Q

Where does the supraspinous ligament extend?

A

Between tips of adjacent spinous processes

130
Q

What happens to the supraspinous and interspinous ligaments in the neck?

A

Become thicker to form a strong ligament that extends from C7 to the external occipital protuberance.

131
Q

What is the name given to the thickening of the supraspinous and interspinous ligaments in the neck?

A

Ligamentum nuchae

132
Q

What type of joint is between adjacent vertebral bodies?

A

Cartilaginous

133
Q

Which type of cartilage covers the articulating surfaces of the vertebral bodies?

A

Hyaline

134
Q

What are intervertebral discs?

A

The discs are pads of fibrocartilage which bind the bodies together thereby making the vertebral column a semi-rigid structure.

135
Q

How much of the length of the vertebral column is made up of intervertebral discs?

A

A quarter

136
Q

What do intervertebral discs consist of?

A

The annulus fibrosus and the nucleus pulposus

137
Q

What is the nucleus pulposis?

A

Central core of the IV disc

138
Q

What is the annulus fibrosus made of?

A

Concentric layers of fibrocartilage

139
Q

What is the nucleus pulposis composed of?

A

Semi-liquid gelatinous substance

140
Q

What is the annulus fibrosus?

A

The peripheral part of the IV disc

141
Q

What part of the intervertebral disc is avascular?

A

Nucleus pulposis

142
Q

Where does the annulus fibrosus insert?

A

The epiphyseal rim of the vertebral body

143
Q

Where does the annulus fibrosus bind?

A

The anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments

144
Q

What is the % of water in the nucleus pulposis at birth? In old age?

A

~90% at birth

~70% in old age

145
Q

What is the role of the nucleus pulposus?

A

It is able to change shape and permit movement between vertebrae
It also facilitates the role of the disc in shock absorption

146
Q

What is the role of anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments?

A

To hold the vertebrae together and allow some movement

147
Q

What is the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

A strong broad ligament that extends from the anterior surface of the sacrum to the occipital bone; it covers the anterolateral aspect of the vertebral bodies and IV discs

148
Q

Which movement of the vertebral column is limited by the anterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Extension

149
Q

Where does the posterior longitudinal ligament run?

A

Along the posterior border of the vertebral bodies and IV discs

150
Q

Which movement of the vertebral column is limited by the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

Flexion

151
Q

How many spinal segments are located in the cervical region of the spinal cord?

A

8

152
Q

How many spinal segments are located in the thoracic region of the spinal cord?

A

12

153
Q

How many spinal segments are located in the lumbar region of the spinal cord?

A

5

154
Q

How many spinal segments are located in the sacral region of the spinal cord?

A

5

155
Q

How many spinal segments are located in the coccygeal region of the spinal cord?

A

1

156
Q

What type of fibres are found in the ventral root?

A

Motor

157
Q

What type of fibres are found in the dorsal root?

A

Sensory

158
Q

What is located in the dorsal root ganglion?

A

Cell Bodies {apparently wrong on workbook}

159
Q

The dorsal and ventral roots unite to form which structure?

A

Spinal Nerve

160
Q

What arises from the conus medullaris?

A

Lumbar (L2 onwards), sacral and coccygeal nerve roots arise from the conus medullaris

161
Q

Where do the spinal nerves exit the vertebral canal?

A

Intervertebral foramen

162
Q

What happens when the spinal nerves enter the vertebral canal?

A

They divide into dorsal and ventral rami

163
Q

In the sacral region, where do the rami exit the vertebral column?

A

The ventral rami exit the vertebral column through the anterior sacral foramina and the dorsal rami exit via the posterior sacral foramina.

164
Q

Where does the dura mater extend? (spine)

A

Along the nerve roots and it merges with the connective tissue that surrounds each spinal nerve.

165
Q

What is the name used for the connective tissue that surrounds the spinal nerve?

A

Epineurium

166
Q

Where is the anterior spinal artery? What does it supply?

A

The anterior median fissure to supply the anterior aspect of the spinal cord.

167
Q

From which vessel does the anterior spinal artery arise from?

A

Vertebral artery

168
Q

Where do the two posterior spinal arteries arise from?

A

The vertebral or posterior inferior cerebellar arteries.

169
Q

The spinal blood is supplemented by multiple radicular arteries, what are these branches of?

A

The ascending cervical, deep cervical, vertebral, posterior intercostal and lumbar arteries.

170
Q

Through which structure do the radicular vessels enter the vertebral canal?

A

Intervertebral foramen

171
Q

What supplies the blood to the vertebrae?

A

Nutrient and equatorial branches of the vertebral, ascending cervical, posterior intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar and lateral and medial sacral arteries

172
Q

Where does venous blood from the vertebrae drain?

A

Internal venous plexus

173
Q

Where does venous blood from the spinal cord drain to?

A

Internal vertebral plexus

174
Q

Describe the venous blood flow from the internal venous plexus

A

Internal venous plexus
external venous plexus
Regional vessels (vertebral, posterior intercostals, lumbar and lateral sacral veins)
Brachiocephalic veins
Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava or internal iliac veins

175
Q

Where is the internal venous plexus located?

A

{?!}
{internet says ocated beneath the bony elements of the vertebral foramina (laminae, spinous processes, pedicles, and vertebral body)}

176
Q

What nerve roots make up the sacral plexus?

A

L4-S4

177
Q

What nerve roots make up the cervical plexus?

A

C1-C5

178
Q

What nerve roots make up the brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1

179
Q

What nerve roots make up the lumbar plexus?

A

L1-L4

180
Q

What does the sciatic nerve bifurcate into?

A

Tibial and common peroneal

181
Q

Describe the passage of the sciatic nerve

A 
Greater sciatic foramen
Enters buttock under piriformis
Lies deep to glut. max.
Crosses ischial tuberosity
Descends on obturator internus, gemelli and quad. femoris
Lies deep to hamstings
Crossed by long head of biceps
Bifurcates
182
Q

What nerve roots form the sciatic nerve?

A

Ventral rami of L4-S3

183
Q

What supporting cell types can be found in the CNS?

A

Oligodendrocyte
Microglia
Ependymal
Astrocytes

184
Q

What supporting cell types can be found in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

Satellite cells

185
Q

What is the role of oligodendrocytes?

A

Produce the myelin sheath for neurons in the CNS

186
Q

What is the role of astrocytes?

A

Provide support to the neurons of the CNS, remove excess neurotransmitter and contribute to the blood brain barrier

187
Q

What is the role of microglia?

A

Involved in the immune defence of the CNS.

188
Q

What is the role of ependymal cells?

A

Line the ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord.

189
Q

What is the role of satellite cells?

A

Supportive cells found in the ganglia of the PNS

190
Q

What is the role of schwann cells?

A

Produce the myelin sheath for neurons in the PNS.

191
Q

What size are nerve cell bodies?

A

4-150µm

192
Q

What type of neurons are found at the olfactory mucosa?

A

Bipolar

193
Q

What does the dorsal root ganglia contain?

A

Nerve cell bodies of unipolar neurons

194
Q

What are located close to nerve cell bodies?

A

Dendrites

195
Q

What is the axon hillock?

A

The region where the plasma membrane generates nerve impulses

196
Q

What are nissl bodies?

A

A large granular body found in neurons. These granules are of rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free ribosomes, and are the site of protein synthesis

197
Q

How are proteins synthesised in the nerve cell body transported to the axon terminal?

A

Anterograde transport

198
Q

What type of neuron are motor neurons?

A

Multipolar

199
Q

What 7 bones contribute to the orbit?

A 
Frontal
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Maxilla
Lacrimal
Zygomatic
Palatine
200
Q

What two bones contribute to the superior wall (roof) of the orbit?

A

Frontal

Sphenoid

201
Q

What four bones contribute to the medial wall of the orbit?

A

Ethmoid
Lacrimal
Maxilla
Sphenoid

202
Q

What three bones contribute to the inferior wall (floor) of the orbit?

A

Maxilla
Palatine
Zygomatic

203
Q

What two bones contribute to the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

Sphenoid

Zygomatic

204
Q

The superior wall of the orbit separates the orbital cavity from which cranial fossa?

A

Anterior

205
Q

The inferior wall of the orbit separates the orbital cavity from which paranasal sinus?

A

Maxillary

206
Q

The lateral wall of the orbit separates the orbital cavity from the middle cranial fossa and which other fossa?

A

Anterior

207
Q

What is the inferior orbital fissure?

A

Slit-like opening located posteriorly between the maxilla and the greater wing of sphenoid,
Communicates with the pterygopalatine fossa

208
Q

What are the anterior and posterior ethmoidal foramina?

A

Small formaina located on the medial wall of the orbit within the ethmoid bone, communicates with the lateral wall of the nasal cavity

209
Q

What is the optic canal?

A

Round opening located at the apex of the orbit, within the lesser wing of sphenoid

210
Q

What is the lacrimal groove?

A

A groove located anteriorly on the medial orbital wall

211
Q

What is the nasolacrimal canal?

A

The canal leading downwards from the lacrimal groove, through the maxilla and opens into the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity

212
Q

What is the superior orbital fissure?

A

A slit like opening located posteriorly between the greater and lesser wing of the sphenoid

213
Q

What is the supraorbital notch (or foramen)?

A

A notch (or foramen) located in the superior aspect of the orbital margin

214
Q

What is the infreorbital groove, canal and foramen?

A

A groove located in the in the floor of the orbit which extends forwards from the inferior orbital fissure. It becomes covered anteriorly (canal) and passes under the orbital margin to open onto the frontal process of the maxilla (foramen)

215
Q

What nerve passes through the optic canal?

A

Optic nerve

216
Q

What nerve passes through the inferior orbital fissure?

A

Infraorbital nerve

217
Q

What nerve passes through the supraorbital notch?

A

Supraorbital nerve

218
Q

What is the periorbita?

A

The periosteum lining the orbit

219
Q

What is the periorbita continuous with?

A

The periosteal layer of the dura mater at the superior orbital fissure and optic canal and with the extracranial periosteum at the orbital margin

220
Q

What does the fascial sheath of the eye facilitate?

A

Movement

221
Q

Where does the fascial sheath of the eye extend?

A

It extends from the optic nerve to the corneoscleral junction. It separates the eyeball from the surrounding periorbital fat.

222
Q

The medial check ligament is attached to the lacrimal bone. What movement does it limit?

A

Abduction

223
Q

The lateral check ligament is attached to the zygomatic bone. What movement does it limit?

A

Adduction

224
Q

What are the medial and lateral check ligaments?

A

triangular expansions of the sheaths of the medial and lateral rectus muscles

225
Q

What forms the suspensory ligament of the eye?

A

check ligaments blend with the fascia of the inferior oblique and inferior rectus muscles forming a sling to suspend the eyeball

226
Q

What does the inferior check ligament do to the inferior eyelid when the gaze is directed downwards?

A

Retracts the eyelid

227
Q

Where does the inferior check ligament arise from?

A

The inferior rectus muscle.

228
Q

What prevents the eyeball being pulled backwards by the recti muscles?

A

The check ligaments work with the oblique muscles and the retrobulbar fat to prevent the eyeball being pulled backwards

229
Q

During disease, dehydration and starvation the eyeballs may be retracted into the orbit. What is the term for this sign?

A

Enophthalmos

230
Q

The external surface of the eyelid is covered by thin skin. What is the internal surface covered with?

A

Palpebral conjunctiva

231
Q

What is the name for the bands of connective tissue that strengthen the upper and lower eyelids?

A

Tarsus

232
Q

What type of secretion is produced by the tarsal glands to prevent the eyelids from sticking together when closed?

A

Lipid

233
Q

Which ligament connects the tarsi to the medial aspect of the orbit and provides muscle attachment for the orbicularis oculi muscle?

A

Medial palpebral ligament

234
Q

Which nerve innervates levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Oculomotor

235
Q

Which nerve innervates levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Oculomotor

236
Q

What is the name given to the smooth muscle fibres which are located within the levator palpebrae superioris?

A

Superior tarsal

237
Q

Which part of the nervous system innervates the superior tarsal?

A

Sympathetic

238
Q

What does the superior tarsal do?

A

Assist in widening the palpebral fissure, particularly during the fight or flight response

239
Q

Which part of the fibrous layer provides attachment for the extraocular muscles?

A

Sclera

240
Q

What is the function of the cornea?

A

{refraction?}

241
Q

The cornea is avascular; which fluid provides its external surface with nutrients and oxygen?

A

Aqueous body

242
Q

Which part of the vascular coat is pigmented and supplies the retina with oxygen and nutrients?

A

{Choroid}

243
Q

Which component of the vascular coat contains smooth muscle and controls the thickness and focus of the lens?

A

Ciliary body

244
Q

The ciliary processes are folds on the internal surface of the ciliary body, what do they secrete?

A

Aqueous humor

245
Q

Which part of the retina is the site where the optic nerve enters the eyeball and is insensitive to light?

A

Optic disc

246
Q

Which area of the retina is the site of most acute vision?

A

Fovea

Years 1+2 (21 decks)

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