Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

(1) MS: Orthopedic and Rheumatic Conditions 🩺 > S3_L1: Introduction to Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis > Flashcards

S3_L1: Introduction to Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Synovial joints are the most common type of joint found in the human body. Only synovial (true) joints will have an arthritis.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Synovial joints are characterized by the presence of a fluid-filled (1)_______ contained within a (2)_______

A
  1. joint cavity
  2. fibrous capsule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Synovial joints are covered by a thin layer of ________

A

hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The following statements are true about the Articular Capsule, EXCEPT:

A. connective tissue surrounds the bone
B. connects one bone to another
C. continuous with the periosteum of articulating bones
D. consist of the fibrous and synovial layer
E. None of the above

A

A. connective tissue surrounds the bone

NOTE: It surrounds the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Match the following layers of the articular capsule to its corresponding description.

  1. highly vascularized
  2. holds together the articulating bones
  3. absorbs and secretes synovial fluid
  4. blends with ligaments
  5. AKA as the synovium

A. Fibrous layer
B. Synovial layer

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. B
  4. A
  5. B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What do you call the white fibrous tissue that makes up the fibrous layer of the articular capsule?

A

capsular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enumerate the three main features of a synovial joint.

A
  1. articular capsule
  2. articular cartilage
  3. synovial fluid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main function of the fibrous layer?

A

Support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Match the following cell types found in the synovial layer.

  1. produce synovial fluid
  2. unknown function and origin
  3. located in superficial layer
  4. derived from macrophages
  5. intermediate cell type

A. type A cells
B. type B cells
C. type C cells

A
  1. B
  2. C
  3. A
  4. A
  5. C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Match the following cell types found in the synovial layer.

  1. has a phagocytic function
  2. non-fixed cells with antigen presenting ability
  3. fibroblast like cells
  4. serve as multipotent precursor
  5. produce hyaluronic acid, fibronectin, collagen

A. type A cells
B. type B cells
C. type C cells

A
  1. A
  2. A
  3. B
  4. C
  5. B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The main function of the synovial layer is to mediate nutrient exchange between blood and joint fluid

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The synovial fluid (1)_____ the articular cartilage and provides (2)______ through (3)_____

A
  1. lubricates
  2. nourishment
  3. diffusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Synovial fluid is made from an ultrafiltrate of ____

A

blood plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Synovial fluid consists the following, EXCEPT:

A. hyaluronic acid
B. prostaglandins
C. leukotrienes
D. collagenases
E. None

A

C. leukotrienes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Determine which content of the synovial fluid is being described.

Reduces friction between opposing surfaces of cartilage

A. hyaluronic acid
B. prostaglandins
C. lubricin
D. collagenases
E. proteinase

A

C. lubricin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Determine which content of the synovial fluid is being described.

Lubricate the surface between synovium and cartilage

A. hyaluronic acid
B. prostaglandins
C. lubricin
D. collagenases
E. proteinase

A

A. hyaluronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Determine which content of the synovial fluid is being described.

Increase the viscosity and elasticity of articular cartilage

A. hyaluronic acid
B. prostaglandins
C. lubricin
D. collagenases
E. proteinase

A

A. hyaluronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Determine which content of the synovial fluid is being described.

Responsible for the boundary layer lubrication

A. hyaluronic acid
B. prostaglandins
C. lubricin
D. collagenases
E. proteinase

A

C. lubricin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The articular cartilage (Hyaline) has two main roles:

  1. minimizes ______ upon joint movement
  2. absorbs _______
A
  1. friction
  2. shock/load
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The following are functions of the synovial fluid, EXCEPT:

A. Lubrication
B. Friction Minimization
C. Shock absorption
D. Nutrient distribution
E. None

A

B. Friction Minimization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Articular cartilage is relatively (1)_____, and is reliant upon the passive (2)_____ of nutrients from the synovial fluid.

A
  1. avascular
  2. diffusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Accessory Ligaments consist of bundles of thin irregular connective tissue. It highly adapted for resisting shock.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

B. Both statements are false

NOTE: These are dense regular connective tissue, highly adapted for resisting strain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

This is a a small sac lined by synovial membrane, and filled with synovial fluid.

A

Bursae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Bursae afford joints greater freedom of movement, whilst protecting the articular surfaces from friction induced degeneration

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A bursa can become inflamed following (1)_____ or (2)_____ of the joint

A
  1. infection
  2. irritation by overuse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This law states that the nerves supplying a joint also supply the muscles moving the joint and the skin covering their distal attachments

A

Hilton’s Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

This is a joint disorder featuring inflammation is frequently accompanied by pain.

A

Arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Joint pain is referred to as _______

A

arthralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Arthritis leads to the following impairments, EXCEPT:

A. Chronic pain
B. Loss of function
C. Deformities
D. Decrease in overall QOL
E. None

A

E. None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Arthritis is the most common cause of disability

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The following characterizes an articular arthritis, EXCEPT:

A. “locking”
B. crepitation
C. instability
D. hypermobility
E. None

A

D. hypermobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What kind of pain characterizes an articular arthritis?

A

deep or diffuse pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The following characterizes a NON-articular arthritis, EXCEPT:

A. pain on active ROM
B. pain on passive ROM
C. focal tenderness adjacent to articular structures
D. crepitus
E. None

A

B. pain on passive ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Enumerate the four cardinal signs of inflammation

A

Erythema (rubor)
Warmth (calor)
Pain (dolor)
Swelling (tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the 5th cardinal sign of inflammation?

A

loss of function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The following are signs and symptoms of inflammatory disorders, EXCEPT:

A. Endocrinopathy
B. Cardiac failure
C. Depression
D. Anemia
E. None

A

E. None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The following are signs and symptoms of inflammatory disorders, EXCEPT:

A. Evening stiffness
B. Fever
C. Rash
D. Weight loss
E. None

A

A. Evening stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The following are signs and symptoms of inflammatory disorders, EXCEPT:

A. hyperalbuminemia
B. thrombocytosis
C. fatigue
D. poor nutrition
E. None

A

A. hyperalbuminemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Determine if the following is an inflammatory disorder or not.

  1. Neoplasm
  2. Pseudogout
  3. Fibromyalgia
  4. Reiter’s syndrome
  5. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A. Inflammatory disorders
B. Non-inflammatory disorders

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. B
  4. A
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The following is true about the s/sx of non-inflammatory disorders, EXCEPT:

A. intermittent stiffness
B. gel phenomena
C. morning stiffness
D. pain without synovial swelling or warmth
E. None

A

C. morning stiffness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Non-inflammatory disorders have intermittent stiffness that is is precipitated by brief periods of rest, usually lasts <60 min, and is exacerbated by activity

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Determine in which category is a disease frequently occurs more.

  1. RA
  2. SLE
  3. Fibromyalgia
  4. Gout
  5. Spondyloarthropathies

A. Male
B. Female

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. B
  4. A
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Determine in which category is a disease frequently occurs more.

  1. Sarcoidosis
  2. Polymyalgia rheumatica
  3. SLE
  4. Giant cell arteritis
  5. Wegener’s granulomatosis

A. Whites
B. Black

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. B
  4. A
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Determine in which category is a disease frequently occurs more.

  1. OA
  2. RA
  3. Psoriatic arthritis
  4. Fibromyalgia
  5. SLE

A. Children
B. Young adults
C. Middle Age
D. Elderly

A
  1. D
  2. C
  3. A
  4. C
  5. B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Determine the onset of the following diseases.

  1. OA
  2. RA
  3. septic
  4. fibromyalgia
  5. gout

A. Abrupt
B. Insidious

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. A
  4. B
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Determine the evolution of the following diseases.

  1. OA
  2. Lyme arthritis
  3. Viral arthritis

A. Chronic
B. Intermittent
C. Migratory
D. Additive

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Determine the evolution of the following diseases.

  1. RA
  2. Rheumatic fever
  3. Psoriatic arthritis

A. Chronic
B. Intermittent
C. Migratory
D. Additive

A
  1. D
  2. C
  3. D
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Determine the duration of the following diseases.

  1. infectious
  2. RA
  3. reactive
  4. fibromyalgia
  5. crystal induced

A. Acute
B. Chronic

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
  4. B
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

An acute duration for arthritis is _____ weeks

A

less than 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Articular disorders are classified based on the number of _____ involved

A

joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How many joints are involved when the term oligoarticular or pauciarticular is used?

A

2 or 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Nonarticular disorders may be classified as either (1)______ or (2)______

A
  1. focal
  2. widespread
53
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Diuretics can cause gout

54
Q

Determine which radiographic test is being described.

  1. provides detailed visualization of the axial skeleton
  2. provides images with fine anatomic detail and contrast resolution to visualize bone marrow and soft tissue periarticular structures
  3. preferred technique when evaluating complex musculoskeletal disorders

A. Plain X-ray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound

55
Q

Determine which radiographic test is being described.

  1. Used for the diagnosis of synovial cysts
  2. Useful when there is a history of trauma
  3. Use to find calcification and joint space narrowing

A. Plain X-ray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound

56
Q

Determine which radiographic test is being described.

  1. can image vessels, nerve, muscle, pannus, and bone marrow
  2. useful in the diagnosis of low back pain syndromes, sacroiliitis, osteoid osteoma, and stress fractures
  3. good for checking soft tissues

A. Plain X-ray
B. CT scan
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound

57
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A CT scan is used when there is a history of monarticular involvement.
An X-ray is used when there is a history of a chronic infection.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

D. Only the 2nd statement is true

58
Q

This radiographic tool is good for detailed joint viewing or conditions like metastatic lesions or infection and their area

A

Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT or single photon emission CT (SPECT/CT)

59
Q

Normal volume of synovial fluid is about ______ ml

60
Q

Synovial fluid reaches up to Can reach up to ______ml if inflamed

61
Q

Determine the color analysis of the synovial fluid.

  1. noninflammatory
  2. inflammatory
  3. inflammatory effusions

A. Red/Brown/Xanthochromic
B. Deeper yellow
C. Yellow-clear
D. Yellow-cloudy
E. White/Cloudy/Milky

62
Q

Determine the color analysis of the synovial fluid.

  1. hemorrhagic
  2. crystals
  3. septic

A. Red/Brown/Xanthochromic
B. Deeper yellow
C. Yellow-clear
D. Yellow-cloudy
E. White/Cloudy/Milky

63
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the viscosity of a non-inflammatory group 1?

A. Low
B. Variable
C. High

64
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the viscosity of a hemorrhagic group 4?

A. Low
B. Variable
C. High

A

B. Variable

65
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the viscosity of a normal fluid analysis?

A. Low
B. Variable
C. High

66
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the viscosity of septic group 3?

A. Low
B. Variable
C. High

A

B. Variable

67
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the viscosity of inflammatory group 2?

A. Low
B. Variable
C. High

68
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the color of inflammatory group 2?

A. Clear
B. Yellow
C. Dirty Yellow
D. Red

69
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the color of non-inflammatory group 1?

A. Clear
B. Yellow
C. Dirty Yellow
D. Red

70
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the clarity of non-inflammatory group 1?

A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Bloody

A

A. Transparent

71
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the clarity of septic group 3?

A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Bloody

72
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the clarity of a normla synovial fluid?

A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Bloody

A

A. Transparent

72
Q

In a synovial fluid analysis, what is the clarity of a normla synovial fluid?

A. Transparent
B. Translucent
C. Opaque
D. Bloody

A

A. Transparent

73
Q

Depending on the clinical scenario, synovial fluid is analyzed for: (1-4)

A
  1. Cell count
  2. Crystals
  3. Culture and sensitivity
  4. Cytology
74
Q

Determine the condition part of each synovial fluid analysis group.

  1. Trauma
  2. Gonococcal arthritis
  3. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A. Group 1 - Non-inflammatory
B. Group 2 - Inflammatory
C. Group 3 - Septic
D. Group 4 - Hemorrhagic

75
Q

Determine the condition part of each synovial fluid analysis group.

  1. Tumors
  2. Hemophilia
  3. Osteoarthritis

A. Group 1 - Non-inflammatory
B. Group 2 - Inflammatory
C. Group 3 - Septic
D. Group 4 - Hemorrhagic

76
Q

Determine the condition part of each synovial fluid analysis group.

  1. Spondyloarthropathies
  2. Pseudogout
  3. Lyme’s disease

A. Group 1 - Non-inflammatory
B. Group 2 - Inflammatory
C. Group 3 - Septic
D. Group 4 - Hemorrhagic

77
Q

In chronic inflammation the number of red blood cells usually is ________

78
Q

This counts measure the number and quality of red blood cells.

A

Hematocrit (HCT) and hemoglobin (Hgb)

79
Q

Infection may ______ WBC

80
Q

Platelet count measures the number of (1)_____ that help the blood to (2)______.

A
  1. “sticky” cells
  2. clot
81
Q

Low platelet can cause ______

82
Q

This is a laboratory work-up that measures the amount of inflammation present

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

83
Q

This is a laboratory work-up that measures how fast red blood cells cling together, fall, and settle toward the bottom of a glass tube in an hour’s time, like sediment.

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

84
Q

This is a laboratory work-up that measure the amount of muscle damage

A

Muscle enzyme tests: CPK

85
Q

This is a laboratory work-up that measures kidney function

A

creatinine test

86
Q

This is a laboratory work-up that measures the amount of uric acid in the blood

A

uric acid test

87
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Medications used in the treatment of arthritis can damage the liver

88
Q

Creatinine is a normal waste product of the _______.

89
Q

The NV for females in a uric acid test is (1)_____, while males should have (2)_____

A
  1. less than 6
  2. less than 7
90
Q

This measures whether a certain amount of abnormal antibody called rheumatoid factor is in the blood.

A

Rheumatoid factor (RF)

91
Q

This is known as the removal of a small piece of tissue, to be examined under a microscope

92
Q

This is a kind of biopsy usually are done to aid the diagnosis of lupus, vasculitis, psoriatic arthritis or other forms of arthritis that involve the skin.

A

Skin biopsies

93
Q

This is a kind of biopsy used to look for signs of damage to the muscle fibers. This information can help confirm the diagnosis of polymyositis or vasculitis.

A

Muscle biopsies

94
Q

This is a kind of biopsy are done to check for signs of damage from a disease such as lupus.

A

Kidney biopsies

95
Q

This test detects the presence of certain “genetic markers” or traits in the blood that is always present in a certain condition.

A

Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) tissue typing tests

96
Q

The following is true about Osteoarthritis, EXCEPT:

A. Known as degenerative joint disease
B. Most commonly affected joints are the hips, knees, DIP, thoracic spine
C. Caused by previous affectation to joint like sepsis, trauma, inflammatory conditions
D. Caused by combination of repetitive mechanical stress and genetic predisposition
E. None

A

B. Most commonly affected joints are the hips, knees, DIP, thoracic spine

NOTE: It is the PIP and cervical or lumbar spine

97
Q

The following is true about Osteoarthritis, EXCEPT:

A. Most common cause of pain
B. Most disabling musculoskeletal disorder
C. Most common of the rheumatic disease
D. Most common inflammatory arthritis
E. None

A

D. Most common inflammatory arthritis

98
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Osteoarthritis is Greater in men than women in patients > 45 years old. When <45 y/o, it is greater in women.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

B. Both statements are false

99
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Women experience more serious and disabling symptoms and report more problems with morning stiffness, joint swelling and night pain

100
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: African-Americans have greater rates and severity of knee arthritis than white while OA of hip is higher in European whites than African Americans

101
Q

Osteoarthritis has 2 distinct pathologic features:

  1. Progressive destruction of _______
  2. Formation of _____ at the margin of the joint
A
  1. articular cartilage
  2. bone
102
Q

Cartilage has (1)_____ and (2)______ properties

A
  1. viscoelastic
  2. compressive
103
Q

Primary osteoarthritis is caused by __________that cause failure of an otherwise normal joint

A

excessive loads

104
Q

In a normal cartilage, there is a balance between (1)_____ and (2)______ activity

A
  1. catabolic (breakdown)
  2. anabolic (production)
105
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Osteoarthritic joint has the ability to replicate and produce new chondrocytes but they produce collagen, proteoglycan and hyaluronan that do not aggregate well and are not adequately stabilized in extracellular matrix

106
Q

What do you call osteophytes that develop around periphery of joints?

A

marginal osteophytes

107
Q

What do you call osteophytes that develop from degenerating joint surface?

A

central osteophytes

108
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: OA is essentially a clinical diagnosis. Plain radiographs in the initial workup to help confirm the diagnosis in moderate to advanced OA, but they are not sensitive in detecting early disease.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

109
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: MRI is more sensitive than plain x -ray in detecting OA changes

110
Q

What does a radiographic grade III mean for OA?

A. No features of OA
B. Minute osteophyte; doubtful significance
C. Definite osteophyte; normal joint space
D. Moderate joint space reduction
E. Joint space greatly reduced, subchondral sclerosis

A

D. Moderate joint space reduction

111
Q

What does a radiographic grade 0 mean for OA?

A. No features of OA
B. Minute osteophyte; doubtful significance
C. Definite osteophyte; normal joint space
D. Moderate joint space reduction
E. Joint space greatly reduced, subchondral sclerosis

A

A. No features of OA

112
Q

What does a radiographic grade IV mean for OA?

A. No features of OA
B. Minute osteophyte; doubtful significance
C. Definite osteophyte; normal joint space
D. Moderate joint space reduction
E. Joint space greatly reduced, subchondral sclerosis

A

E. Joint space greatly reduced, subchondral sclerosis

113
Q

What does a radiographic grade I mean for OA?

A. No features of OA
B. Minute osteophyte; doubtful significance
C. Definite osteophyte; normal joint space
D. Moderate joint space reduction
E. Joint space greatly reduced, subchondral sclerosis

A

B. Minute osteophyte; doubtful significance

114
Q

What does a radiographic grade II mean for OA?

A. No features of OA
B. Minute osteophyte; doubtful significance
C. Definite osteophyte; normal joint space
D. Moderate joint space reduction
E. Joint space greatly reduced, subchondral sclerosis

A

C. Definite osteophyte; normal joint space

115
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Inflammatory markers (CRP, ESR) can be used to rule out inflammatory arthritis, such as rheumatoid arthritis.

116
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Inflammatory markers are usually normal in osteoarthritis.

117
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In osteoarthritis, pain is the earliest symptom. It is often relieved by activity and worsened by prolonged rest.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is tr

A

C. Only the 1st statement is true

118
Q

These are osteoarthritic nodules of the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs).

A

Heberden’s nodes

119
Q

These are osteoarthritic nodules at proximal interphalangeal joints (PIPs).

A

Bouchard’s nodes

120
Q

_______ is associated with increase of knee OA at the patellofemoral compartment and tibiofemoral compartment

121
Q

During walking and stair climbing hip and knee load is ____ the body weight

122
Q

Obesity may be associated with fatigue of ______ cause decreased shock absorption and increase load of knee

A

quadriceps

123
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Weight loss can be an effective form of preventing onset or progression of osteoarthritis

124
Q

Determine which type of exercise is being described.

  1. initial approach for strengthening in patients who cannot tolerate repetitive joint motion
  2. increase shear forces at joints, which may exacerbate osteoarthritis.
  3. closely mimic the many synergistic movements and firing patterns required for everyday functional tasks

A. closed kinetic chain
B. open kinetic chain
C. Isometric exercises
D. Isotonic exercises
E. Isokinetic exercises

125
Q

Determine which type of exercise is being described.

  1. involve constant speed of motion throughout the joint range during muscle contraction, whereas the amount of resistance may vary throughout the range
  2. refers to joint movement through its ROM, against a constant weight or resistance
  3. allow the patient to strengthen more specifically just one movement at one joint

A. closed kinetic chain
B. open kinetic chain
C. Isometric exercises
D. Isotonic exercises
E. Isokinetic exercises

126
Q

Determine which type of exercise is being described.

  1. are infrequently used because of equipment requirements and uncertain correlation to functional activities
  2. involve contraction of muscles while they are at a fixed length
  3. consists of concentric and eccentric contractions

A. closed kinetic chain
B. open kinetic chain
C. Isometric exercises
D. Isotonic exercises
E. Isokinetic exercises

127
Q

(1)______ contraction is more stressful than (2)______ but also results in greater strength gains.

A
  1. Eccentric
  2. concentric
128
Q

Which 2 kinds of exercises are the most beneficial exercises in patients with osteoarthritis?

A

isotonic and closed-chain

(1) MS: Orthopedic and Rheumatic Conditions 🩺 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions