Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

(1) MS: Orthopedic and Rheumatic Conditions 🩺 > S2_L3: Ankle and Foot Conditions > Flashcards

S2_L3: Ankle and Foot Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The ankle and foot complex has 3 sesamoid bones. It has 28 bones in total.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

D. Only the 2nd statement is true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Subtalar joint is a (1)_______ joint which allows movements of (2)_______ and (3)_____

A
  1. plane
  2. inversion
  3. eversion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. The ankle joint sustains the greatest load per surface area of any joint of the body
B. IP joints of the foot are hinge joints
C. The foot act as a lever in raising and propelling the body forward in walking and running
D. The shafts of metatarsal serve as fulcrum on which weight is lifted
E. None of the above

A

D. The shafts of metatarsal serve as fulcrum on which weight is lifted

NOTE: It is the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Match the following subdivision of the foot to its proper descriptions.

  1. Adjust to uneven surfaces
  2. Convert the torque of the lower limb
  3. Consists of the 14 bones of the toes
  4. Consists of the 5 metatarsals
  5. The first part of foot that touches the floor

A. Hindfoot / Rearfoot
B. Midfoot
C. Forefoot

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. C
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Match the following subdivision of the foot to its proper descriptions.

  1. Transmits motion from the rearfoot to the forefoot
  2. Promotes stability while the forefoot adapts to the terrain
  3. Navicular, cuboid, 3 cuneiform
  4. Talus and calcaneus
  5. Convert the transverse rotations of the lower extremity into sagittal, transverse and frontal plane movements

A. Hindfoot / Rearfoot
B. Midfoot
C. Forefoot

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. B
  4. A
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Lisfranc’s joint divides the hind and midfoot.

A

False.

This is the Surgeon’s joint/Chopart’s joint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the keystone of the medial arch?

A

Navicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the keystone of the lateral arch?

A

Cuboid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which structures comprises the medial arch?

A

Calcaneus, talus, navicular (keystone), three cuneiform, and 1st 3 metatarsal bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which structures comprises the lateral arch?

A

Calcaneus, cuboid (keystone), 4th and 5th metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal longitudinal arch develops by?

A

3-5 years old (when the child starts walking)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Pes Planus is present in nearly all infants. It does not cause any disability.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hypermobile flatfoot is associated with a contracted _____.

A

Achilles tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common cause of an acquired flatfoot in adults?

A

Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clawing of the toes is characterized by (1)______ of the MTP joints and (2)______ of the IP

A
  1. dorsiflexion
  2. plantar flexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Determine which disease is being described.

  1. Osteonecrosis of the calcaneal apophysis
  2. Common cause of heel pain in children
  3. Avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head
  4. Frequently seen just before or during peak growth
  5. Tenderness and thickening over navicular bone

A. Kohler disease
B. Freiberg disease
C. Sever’s disease

A
  1. C
  2. C
  3. B
  4. C
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Determine which disease is being described.

  1. More common in adults
  2. Begins about the 4th-5th year
  3. Unilateral pain worse with activity
  4. Achilles tendon can be removed/avulsed
  5. Due to traction apophysitis and repetitive microtrauma experienced during gait

A. Kohler disease
B. Freiberg disease
C. Sever’s disease

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. B
  4. C
  5. C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Syndesmosis ankle sprain is most commonly associated with ______ injuries

A

external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A distal tibiofibular syndesmosis includes which ligaments?

A

anterior-inferior tibiofibular ligaments (AITFL) and posterior-inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which ligament is the strongest component of syndesmosis?

A. anterior-inferior tibiofibular ligaments (AITFL)
B. posterior-inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)

A

B. posterior-inferior tibiofibular ligament (PITFL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The syndesmosis widens approximately _____mm during normal gait

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Lateral ankle sprains are often able to bear weight

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An examiner grasps the patient’s leg midway up the calf and perform a compress and release motion.

What test is being done?

A

Squeeze test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: A (-) syndesmosis tenderness is the single best predictor for return to play

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What ligament is most commonly involved ligament in low ankle sprains?

A

anterior talofibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What ligament is the 2nd most common ligament injury in lateral ankle sprains?

A

calcaneofibular (CFL) ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Determine which injury is being described.

  1. difficult to differentiate from posterior ankle instability
  2. laxity in dorsiflexion
  3. (+) drawer’s test
  4. mechanism is dorsiflexion and inversion
  5. mechanism is plantarflexion and inversion

A. ATFL injury
B. CFL injury
C. Both
D. Neither

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. A
  4. B
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In Drawer’s test, the examiner places the patient’s foot into (1)_____degrees of (2)_____ and translates the rear foot (3)_____

A
  1. 10-15
  2. plantar flexion
  3. anteriorly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

With the ankle in neutral, gentle inversion force is applied to the affected ankle and is compared to the opposite ankle. A + test indicates injury to ATFL and CFL.

Which test is being described?

A

Talar tilt test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The ATFL best tested in (1)____, while the CFL in (2)_____

A
  1. plantarflexion
  2. dorsiflexion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The following is true about Achilles Tendon Rupture, EXCEPT:

A. Due to degeneration and repeated microtrauma
B. Due to a forceful pull of gastrocnemius
C. Risk factor: Use of steroids
D. Risk factor: Active Lifestyle
E. None

A

D. Risk factor: Active Lifestyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The following is true about Achilles Tendon Rupture, EXCEPT:

A. + Simon’s sign
B. + Thomson’s test/
C. + Calf squeeze test
D. + Kleiger’s Test
E. None

A

D. + Kleiger’s Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What arch is depressed or collapsed in Pes Planus?

A

Medial arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Determine which condition is being described.

  1. TX: Stretch of heel cord
  2. Forefoot abducted and dorsiflex and is not flexible
  3. Most common non neuromuscular cause of pathologic pes planus
  4. Sole has rocker bottom appearance
  5. During adolescence, coalition starts to ossify and restricts subtalar motion

A. Hypermobile flatfoot with contracted tendo-Achilles
B. Vertical talus
C. Tarsal coalition

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. B
  5. C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Determine which condition is being described.

  1. Union of 2 or more tarsal bones
  2. Flatfoot when WB and corrected when patient is on tiptoe
  3. seen in arthrogryposis
  4. Foot is smaller, not developed and ipsilateral calf circumference is smaller
  5. Calcaneus in equinus and valgus, Achilles is tight

A. Hypermobile flatfoot with contracted tendo-Achilles
B. Vertical talus
C. Tarsal coalition

36
Q

Determine which condition is being described.

  1. Gastrocnemius contracture
  2. Contracture of peroneal muscle
  3. Antalgic gait
  4. Calcaneus is in equinus while talus is plantarflexed when child stand
  5. Rigid flatfoot c convex
    plantar aspect

A. Hypermobile flatfoot with contracted tendo-Achilles
B. Vertical talus
C. Tarsal coalition

37
Q

This is the progressive loss of the longitudinal arch of the foot resulting in a symptomatic foot

A

Adult acquired flatfoot

38
Q

A pt, dx with pes planus, comes in with a chief complain of lateral ankle pain. Upon observation, a fixed valgus is seen.

Based on Johnson’s classification, in which stage of classification is this included in?

39
Q

A pt, dx with pes planus, comes in with a chief complain of medial ankle pain. Upon observation, swelling is also palpated

Based on Johnson’s classification, in which stage of classification is this included in?

40
Q

A pt, dx with pes planus, comes in with a chief complain of medial and lateral ankle pain. Pt reports of inability to do single heel rise.

Based on Johnson’s classification, in which stage of classification is this included in?

41
Q

TRUE OR FALS: The plantar fascia is not contracted in claw foot.

42
Q

In Pes Cavus, is the Achilles tendon shortened?

A

It may or may not be shortened

43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Pes Cavus is d/t the imbalance of motor power involving the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the foot. Its symptoms are fatigue and calluses.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

44
Q

This is a disease of the epiphysis that starts with necrosis and fragmentation followed by repair and regeneration.

A

Osteochondritis

45
Q

Why is walking or limping painful in pt’s with Kohler’s disease?

A

d/t blood supply being diminished

46
Q

What is the involved structure in Kohler Disease?

47
Q

In Freiberg’s infraction, which metatarsal is commonly affected?

48
Q

In Sever’s disease, what is expected to be seen or observed during physical examination?

A
  1. tight Achilles tendon
    • squeeze test
49
Q

The following is true about gout, EXCEPT:

A. usually involves the 1st MTP or great toe
B. deposition of lactic acid crystal (hypouricemia) in the joint
C. Males > Females
D. Hereditary
E. None

A

B. deposition of uric acid crystal (hypouricemia) in the joint

NOTE: It is uric acid and hyperuricemia.

50
Q

This is the most painful and common type of arthritis

51
Q

What is the term for gout affecting the 1st MTP joint alone?

52
Q

These are large, visible bumps made of urate crystals seen in the last stage of gouty arthritis.

A

Tophi of gout

53
Q

Morton’s toe is also known as?

A

Interdigital Neuroma

54
Q

The following is true about Interdigital Neuroma, EXCEPT:

A. affecting the web space between 2nd and 3rd followed by 3rd and 4th.
B. Characterized by sudden attacks of sharp pain
C. Also known as interdigital nerve compression syndrome
D. Tx: Metatarsal arch support/pads
E. None

A

A. affecting the web space between 2nd and 3rd followed by 3rd and 4th.

NOTE: It usually affects the web space between 3rd and 4th first.

55
Q

Morton’s neuroma is caused by the thickening of the _______ at its bifurcation in the web space

A

common digital nerve

56
Q

The following is true about Stress Fracture, EXCEPT:

A. AKA March Fracture
B. Fracture of metatarsal shaft due to repeated stress from unaccustomed amount of walk
C. Can also involved other bones as calcaneus, femur, tibial or fibula
D. Pain on the area increasing in a week or more as callus forms
E. None

57
Q

Which metatarsal does Stress Fracture usually affect?

A

2nd or 3rd metatarsal

58
Q

Determine which foot deformity is being described.

  1. Medial angulation the great toe at the MTP
  2. Associated with enlargement of the medial side of the head of the first metatarsal
  3. Cause: paralysis of adductor hallucis
  4. Cause: contracture of the flexor and extensor hallucis longus
  5. Medial deviation of the first metatarsal bone and lateral deviation of the great toe

A. Hallux valgus
B. Hallux varus

59
Q

Determine which foot deformity is being described.

  1. Close shoes are better worn for this condition
  2. Tx: Keller or Schanz Operation
  3. Tx: Silver operation
  4. Hereditary
  5. Tx: osteotomy of metatarsal head and use of the 2nd extensor hallucis brevis in the presence correct alignment

A. Hallux valgus
B. Hallux varus

60
Q

Determine the toe conditions.

  1. flexion contracture of the DIP
  2. involves all toes
  3. dorsiflexion of the MTP and plantar flexion contracture of the IP
  4. due to use of a narrow shoe at the end of the second toe
  5. hyperextension of the MTP joint and flexion contracture of both the IP joints

A. Hammer toe
B. Claw toe
C. Mallet toe

61
Q

The following is true about Turf toe, EXCEPT:

A. Sprain on the 2nd metatarsophalangeal joint
B. Secondary to forceful dorsiflexion or sometimes forceful plantarflexion
C. Pain is worse with movement of joint
D. TX: Use stiff soled shoes to control plantarflexion
E. None

A

A. Sprain on the 2nd metatarsophalangeal joint

NOTE: It involves the 1st MTP

62
Q

This condition is a fracture of the diaphysis of the shaft of 5th metatarsal bone due to an inversion – plantarflexion injury or due to stress fracture of the area.

A

Jone’s fracture

63
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Jone’s fracture is common in sprinters and jumpers.

64
Q

In Jone’s fracture, where is pain and tenderness expected to be palpated and reported?

A

Pain - lateral aspect of the forefoot
Tenderness - proximal 5th metatarsal bone (lateral)

65
Q

Determine which condition affecting the ankle joint is being described.

  1. s/sx: skin irritation like skin erythema and focal swelling
  2. failure of the lateral tubercle of the posterior process to unite with the body of the talus during ossification
  3. chronic inflammation of the adventitious superficial pretendinous Achilles bursa
  4. developmental and aggravated by gout
  5. produces impingement between tibia and talus with extreme plantar flexion

A. Haglund deformity
B. Os Trigonum

66
Q

Determine which condition affecting the ankle joint is being described.

  1. Excessive prominence of the posterosuperior aspect of the calcaneus
  2. Coexists with retrocalcaneal bursitis
  3. Developmental and aggravated by shoe wear
  4. Pain on the posterolateral of the ankle
  5. Common in young athletes who actively plantar flexes the foot such as gymnasts, ice skaters, ballet dancers, soccer players

A. Haglund deformity
B. Os Trigonum

67
Q

The following is true about Plantar Fascitis, EXCEPT:

A. women > men
B. overuse leads to microtears in the origin of the plantar fascia
C. first line therapy: modalities
D. second line of treatment
shock wave therapy
E. None

A

A. women > men

NOTE: It affects men and women equally

68
Q

The following is true about Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome, EXCEPT:

A. compressive neuropathy caused by compression of the sural nerve
B. intermittent paresthesias and numbness in the plantar foot
C. may present as part of the “heel pain triad”
D. due to loss of static and dynamic stabilizers of the medial arch and subsequent traction neuropathy
E. None

A

A. compressive neuropathy caused by compression of the sural nerve

NOTE: The tibial nerve is compressed

69
Q

Enumerate the “heel pain triad”.

A
  1. posterior tibial tendon deficiency
  2. plantar fascitis
  3. tarsal tunnel syndrome
70
Q

The following are contents of the tarsal tunnel, EXCEPT:

A. flexor retinaculum
B. calcaneus
C. talus
D. adductor hallucis
E. abductor hallucis

A

D. adductor hallucis

71
Q

The following structures form the posterior tarsal tunnel, EXCEPT:

A. tibialis posterior tendon
B. posterior tibial artery and vein
C. FDL tendon
D. tibial nerve
E. AHL tendon

A

E. AHL tendon

72
Q

(1)____ and (2)_____ of the ankle and foot act as stabilizers and adapt during weight bearing activities

A
  1. joints
  2. ligaments
73
Q

How many arches does the foot have?

74
Q

Enumerate the arches of the foot.

A
  1. Medial arch
  2. Lateral arch
  3. Transverse or metatarsal arch
75
Q

Which arch is formed by the 5 metatarsal bones and most prominent at their bases?

A. Medial arch
B. Lateral arch
C. Transverse arch

A

C. Transverse arch

76
Q

Which arch rests on the first metatarsal and calcaneus

A. Medial arch
B. Lateral arch
C. Transverse arch

A

A. Medial arch

77
Q

In this condition, the stretch of the triceps surae exacerbates heel pain.

Which condition is this?

A. Sever’s disease
B. Freiberg disease
C. Kohler disease

A

A. Sever’s disease

78
Q

Which toes is most commonly affected in hammer toe?

79
Q

Enumerate the four plantar foot muscles that originate from the volar calcaneus.

A
  1. Abductor hallucis
  2. Quadratus plantae
  3. Flexor digitorum brevis
  4. Abductor digiti minimi
80
Q

An Achilles Tendon Rupture is classifies as acute if the tendon is?

A

partially torn

81
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: In Achilles Tendon Rupture, a painful pop on the distal aspect of the heel cord is felt. Other observable s/sx is a weak ankle plantarflexion.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

82
Q

Determine if the ligaments are found medially or laterally.

  1. posterior talofibular ligament
  2. calcaneofibular ligament
  3. deltoid ligament

A. Lateral
B. Medial

83
Q

Positive test in results of a Drawer’s test are often graded on a ________.

A

0 to 3 scale

84
Q

A.D. was dx with GrII low ankle sprain. As a physical therapist, what is the expected grading of pain during weight bearing?

85
Q

A.D. was dx with GrIII low ankle sprain. As a physical therapist, what is the expected classification of ecchymosis and swelling?

86
Q

A.D. was dx with GrI low ankle sprain. As a physical therapist, will there be a ligament disruption? If so, describe the severity.

(1) MS: Orthopedic and Rheumatic Conditions 🩺 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions