S1_L1: Generalities of Bones Flashcards

1
Q

The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. Strength of bone is related directly to its density
B. It is a highly vascular form of connective tissue
C. It is the most rigid connective tissue
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A bone is a dynamic tissue that undergoes constant (1)_____ and (2)_______

A
  1. metabolism
  2. remodeling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: Bones enhance leverage for attachment of muscles. It also stores minerals like phosphate.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Match the following bone shape to its corresponding description.

  1. Consists of inner and outer plate of compact bone
  2. Divided into the diaphysis and epiphysis
  3. work together to protect the internal organs
  4. Has a cancellous (spongy) bone layer known as diploe in between
  5. Examples of these are the metacarpals and phalanges

A. Flat and cuboidal bone
B. Long bone

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
  4. A
  5. B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Bone are used as (1)_______ during (2)_______ phase of examination in the objective assessment.

A
  1. landmarks
  2. palpation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Match the following osteogenic processes to its corresponding description.

  1. directly converts the mesenchymal tissue to bone
  2. also known as endochondral type
  3. gradual replacement of primitive connective tissue by osteoid matrix
  4. calcifies promptly to become bone
  5. common in cranial vault and face

A. Membranous
B. Cartilaginous

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
  4. A
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The scapula is flat in shape, while the vertebra is cuboidal in shape.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. Osteogenesis is the process of bone formation from osteoblast
B. Osteogenesis is also called bone ossification
C. Osteogenesis starts at 4 weeks after fertilization
D. Osteogenesis ends at 25 years
E. None of the above

A

C. Osteogenesis starts at 4 weeks after fertilization

NOTE: It start after 6wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Match the following to its description.

  1. Tubular shaft between proximal and distal ends of bone
  2. Formed by spongy bone with red marrow fills the spaces in the spongy bone
  3. Contains epiphyseal plate (growth plate), a layer of hyaline (transparent) cartilage in a growing bone
  4. Usually for muscle origin
  5. Walls of diaphysis are made of compact bone

A. Diaphysis
B. Epiphysis

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. B
  4. A
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The epiphysis contains more spongy than cortical bone

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the diaphysis, the (1)_______ is a - fine layer of connective tissue inner lining of medullary cavity, while the
(2)_______ is the outer fibrous covering of the bone

A
  1. Endosteum
  2. Periosteum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The differences between compact and spongy bones are through their histology. Distribution and concentration in each bone vary depending on the bone’s overall function.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. Only the 1st statement is true
D. Only the 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the region where epiphysis meets diaphysis?

A

Metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The cortical bone constitutes how many percent of the skeleton?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Match the following kinds of bone to its description.

  1. Dense and can withstand compressive force
  2. Less dense (more space) and can withstand shift in weight
  3. Consists of tightly packed osteons or haversian systems compactly arranged among each other
  4. Mostly found in the metaphyseal and epiphyseal areas
  5. Has osteocytes housed in lacunae but found in a lattice like network called trabeculae

A. Cortical (compact) bone
B. Cancellous (spongy or trabecular) bone

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. A
  4. B
  5. B
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The haversian system of (1)______ are long patent columns irregularly (2)_____ to the long axis of the shaft of bone

A
  1. Osteon/s
  2. parallel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This refers to the tiny irregular channels that connect lacunae to one another.

A. Lacunae
B. Canaliculi
C. Central canal
D. Volkmann’s canal
E. Lamellae

A

B. Canaliculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This refers to concentric layers of calcified intracellular substance

A. Lacunae
B. Canaliculi
C. Central canal
D. Volkmann’s canal
E. Lamellae

A

E. Lamellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This refers to a transverse or oblique channels that connect Haversian canal and transmit part of the vascular supply to osteon.

A. Lacunae
B. Canaliculi
C. Central canal
D. Volkmann’s canal
E. Lamellae

A

D. Volkmann’s canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Enumerate the 2 possible arrangement of collagen inside a bone.

A

Lamellar and Woven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of a lamellar microscopic appearance?

A

Cortical and Cancellous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 2 subtypes of a woven microscopic appearance?

A

Immature and Pathologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Determine whether the following description is immature, pathological, cortical, or cancellous.

  1. Increased turnover
  2. Not stress-oriented
  3. More elastic lamellar subtype
  4. Weak and flexible
  5. Example of bone subtype is the femoral shaft

A. Cortical
B. Cancellous
C. Immature
D. Pathologic

A
  1. D
  2. C
  3. B
  4. D
  5. A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Determine whether the following description is immature, pathological, cortical, or cancellous.

  1. Random organization
  2. Strong lamellar subtype
  3. Example of bone subtype is the distal femoral metaphysis
  4. Example of bone subtype is fibrous dysplasia
  5. Example of bone subtype is a fracture callus

A. Cortical
B. Cancellous
C. Immature
D. Pathologic

A
  1. D
  2. A
  3. B
  4. D
  5. C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

TRUE OR FALSE: The lamellar microscopic appearance is found in embryonic skeleton.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Determine which cell is being described.

  1. Living element of bone tissue
  2. Multinucleated, irregular giant cells
  3. Less active in matrix production

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoprogenitor cells
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteoclasts

A
  1. C
  2. D
  3. C
27
Q

Determine which cell is being described.

  1. Associated with formation of new bone tissue
  2. Found in surface of actively growing bone
  3. Become fibrous tissue under conditions of high strain

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoprogenitor cells
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteoclasts

A
  1. A
  2. A
  3. B
28
Q

Determine which cell is being described.

  1. Derived from undifferentiated mesenchymal stem cells
  2. Constitute 90% of the cells in the mature skeleton
  3. Resorb bone

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoprogenitor cells
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteoclasts

A
  1. A
  2. C
  3. D
29
Q

Determine which cell is being described.

  1. Derived from hematopoietic cells in macrophage lineage
  2. Important for control of flow of extracellular minerals in and out of the bone
  3. Functions in manufacturing organic bone matrix and plays a role in mineralization

A. Osteoblasts
B. Osteoprogenitor cells
C. Osteocytes
D. Osteoclasts

A
  1. D
  2. C
  3. A
30
Q

The following are bone receptors for osteoblasts, EXCEPT:

A. Parathyroid Hormone
B. Prostaglandins
C. Calcitonin
D. Estrogen
E. Glucocorticoids

A

C. Calcitonin

31
Q

What is the function of Glucocorticoids

A. Stimulates matrix and alkaline phosphatase synthesis and production of bone specific proteins
B. Releases a secondary messenger to stimulate osteoclastic activity
C. Activates adenylyl cyclase and stimulates bone resorption
D. Inhibits osteoclast function
E. Inhibits DNA synthesis, collagen production, and osteoblast protein synthesis

A

E. Inhibits DNA synthesis, collagen production, and osteoblast protein synthesis

32
Q

What is the function of Prostaglandins

A. Stimulates matrix and alkaline phosphatase synthesis and production of bone specific proteins
B. Releases a secondary messenger to stimulate osteoclastic activity
C. Activates adenylyl cyclase and stimulates bone resorption
D. Inhibits osteoclast function
E. Inhibits DNA synthesis, collagen production, and osteoblast protein synthesis

A

C. Activates adenylyl cyclase and stimulates bone resorption

33
Q

What is the function of Calcitonin

A. Stimulates matrix and alkaline phosphatase synthesis and production of bone specific proteins
B. Releases a secondary messenger to stimulate osteoclastic activity
C. Activates adenylyl cyclase and stimulates bone resorption
D. Inhibits osteoclast function
E. Inhibits DNA synthesis, collagen production, and osteoblast protein synthesis

A

D. Inhibits osteoclast function

34
Q

What is the function of prostaglandins

A. Stimulates matrix and alkaline phosphatase synthesis and production of bone specific proteins
B. Releases a secondary messenger to stimulate osteoclastic activity
C. Activates adenylyl cyclase and stimulates bone resorption
D. Inhibits osteoclast function
E. Inhibits DNA synthesis, collagen production, and osteoblast protein synthesis

A

C. Activates adenylyl cyclase and stimulates bone resorption

35
Q

This is the main calcium component of the bone

A

Calcium Hydroxyapatite

36
Q

How many percent do organic components make up the dry weight of the bone?

A

40%

37
Q

Cortical and cancellous bone are continuously remodeled throughout life by (1)_____ and (2)______ activity

A
  1. osteoblastic
  2. osteoclastic
38
Q

This law states that remodeling occurs in response to mechanical stress

A

Wolff’s law

39
Q

This law states that compressive forces inhibits growth, while tension stimulates it

A

Hueter-Volkmann Law

40
Q

Stress (weight) is directly proportional with bone strength. However, this is not in the case of 1st week fracture.

This statement is in accordance to what law?

A. Wolff’s law
B. Hueter-Volkmann Law

A

A. Wolff’s law

41
Q

If one side of the bone has more load than the other (imbalanced), scoliosis can occur as the person grows

This statement is in accordance to what law?

A. Wolff’s law
B. Hueter-Volkmann Law

A

B. Hueter-Volkmann Law

42
Q

What are the 4 phases of bone remodeling?

A
  1. Activation
  2. Reversal
  3. Formation
  4. Resting
43
Q

Which bone remodeling phase calls on the osteoblasts?

A. Activation
B. Reversal
C. Formation
D. Resting

A

B. Reversal

44
Q

Which bone remodeling phase has resorption happening?

A. Activation
B. Reversal
C. Formation
D. Resting

A

A. Activation

45
Q

Bone receives how many percent of the cardiac output?

A

5-10%

46
Q

Long bones receive blood from what 3 systems?

A
  1. Nutrient artery system
  2. Metaphyseal-epiphyseal system
  3. Periosteal system
47
Q

Determine which system is being described.

  1. Blood pressure is high
  2. Supplies ⅔ of the mature bone
  3. Consists mostly of capillaries that supply the outer third of the mature diaphyseal cortex
  4. Supplies outer ⅓ of the bone
  5. Arises from the periarticular vascular plexus

A. Nutrient artery system
B. Metaphyseal-epiphyseal system
C. Periosteal system

A
  1. A
  2. A
  3. C
  4. C
  5. B
48
Q

Centrifugal means?

A

direction of blood flow is inside to outside

49
Q

Which blood vessel has a centripetal direction?

A

Veins

50
Q

In fractures and in immature, developing bone, blood flow is ________

A

centripetal

NOTE: This is because the nutrient artery system is disrupted

51
Q

This is known to be the source of progenitor cells

A

Bone Marrow

52
Q

This is a connective tissue membrane, highly developed in children, which covers the bone

A

Periosteum

53
Q

What is the inner periosteum called as?

A

Cambium layer

54
Q

Determine what type of bone marrow is being described.

  1. Hematopoietic
  2. Slowly changes to the other color with age
  3. Inactive
  4. 40% water, 40% fat, 20% protein
  5. 15% water, 80% fat, 5% protein

A. Red marrow
B. Yellow marrow

A
  1. A
  2. A
  3. B
  4. A
  5. B
55
Q

Enumerate the 3 types of ossification.

A
  1. Endochondral (longitudinal growth)
  2. Intramembranous
  3. Appositional (width)
56
Q

Determine which type of ossification is being described.

  1. Osteoblasts lay down new bone in existing bone
  2. Bone replaces a cartilage model
  3. Embryonic flat bone formation
  4. Periosteal bone enlargement
  5. Embryonic long bone formation

A. Appositional
B. Endochondral
C. Intramembranous

A
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. A
  5. B
57
Q

Determine which type of ossification is being described.

  1. When abnormal, Achondroplasia may occur
  2. When abnormal, Paget’s disease may occur
  3. When abnormal, Cleidocranial dysostosis may occur
  4. Bone formation phase of bone remodeling
  5. Aggregates of undifferentiated mesenchymal cells differentiate into osteoblasts which form bone

A. Appositional
B. Endochondral
C. Intramembranous

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. C
  4. A
  5. C
58
Q

Enumerate the 3 Physeal cartilage zones

A
  1. Reserve zone
  2. Proliferative zone
  3. Hypertrophic zone
59
Q

The hypertrophic zones is subdivided into 3 zones. What are they?

A
  1. Maturation zone
  2. Degenerative zone
  3. Zone of provisional calcification
60
Q

Determine which physeal cartilage zone is being described.

  1. Calcification of matrix
  2. Cellular proliferation
  3. Storage

A. Reserve zone
B. Proliferative zone
C. Degenerative zone
D. Maturation zone
E. Zone of provisional calcification

A
  1. E
  2. B
  3. A
61
Q

Determine which physeal cartilage zone is being described.

  1. Stacking of chondrocytes
  2. Nearest the epiphysis
  3. Growth hormone exerts its effect in this zone
  4. Produce cartilaginous matrix used for eventual ossification into bone
  5. Normal matrix mineralization

A. Reserve zone
B. Proliferative zone
C. Hypertrophic Zone

A
  1. B
  2. A
  3. B
  4. A
  5. C
62
Q

Determine which physeal cartilage zone is being described.

  1. Have the poorest blood supply
  2. Osteoblasts migrate from sinusoidal vessels and use cartilage as a scaffolding for bone formation
  3. Cells store lipids, glycogen and proteoglycans
  4. Low oxygen tension and decreased proteoglycan aggregates
  5. Too much increased oxygen tension and increased proteoglycans inhibit calcification

A. Reserve zone
B. Proliferative zone
C. Hypertrophic Zone

A
  1. A
  2. C
  3. A
  4. C
  5. B
63
Q

Among the 9 possible etiologies of musculoskeletal disorders, enumerate atleast 5.

A
  1. Congenital anomalies
  2. Trauma
  3. Infection
  4. Metabolic disorders
  5. Endocrine disorders
  6. Tumors
  7. Circulatory disorders
  8. Neurologic disorders
  9. Psychological disorders