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MD1 > S2A > Flashcards

S2A Flashcards

1
Q

Number of spinal nerve pairs

A

31

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2
Q

Autonomic Nervous System regulates:

A

involuntary functions involving viscera and/or homeostasis

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3
Q

Type of CNS matter neuron cell bodies are found in:

A

Grey matter; Retinas

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4
Q

PNS location of neuron cell bodies:

A

Autonomic ganglia Enteric nervous system

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5
Q

White matter (centrally) and nerves (peripherally) are formed by:

A

Axons

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6
Q

Axons in white matter and nerves form:

A

Tracts

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7
Q

Location of caudal tip of spinal cord:

A

Opposite L1-2

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8
Q

Location of spinal cord enlargements:

A

Cervical (C5-T1) Lumbosacral (L1-S2)

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9
Q

Dorsal and ventral nerve roots unite where:

A

at each intervertebral foramen

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10
Q

Lumbar and sacral roots extend inferiorly forming what structure?

A

Cauda Equina

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11
Q

Cutaneous territory served by one dorsal root is called:

A

Dermatome

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12
Q

Block of muscles controlled through one root is called:

A

Myotome

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13
Q

Segmental organisation of spinal cord is defined by what?

A

The nerve root pairs

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14
Q

Name fossae of cranium

A

Anterior Fossa

Middle Fossa

Posterior Fossa

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15
Q

Three layers of meninges

A

Dura

Arachnoid

Pia

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16
Q

Two ‘reflextions’ of dura that stabilise brain by occupying deep fissues:

A

Falx and Tentorium

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17
Q

Falx and Tentorium

A

Reflections of Dura that stabilise the brain by occupying deep fissues. Falx stabilises the longitudinal fissue; Tentorium stabilises the transverse fissure.

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18
Q

Location of CSF within meninges

A

Subarachnoid space

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19
Q

Is there CSF within the subdural and extradural spaces?

A

No - they are normally only potential spaces

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20
Q

Two layers of dura:

A

Periosteal and meningeal

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21
Q

When do the periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura separate and why?

A

At certaint locations they separate to enclose the dural venous sinuses that drain blood from many cerebral veins.

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22
Q

Role of dural venous sinuses:

A

To drain blood from many cerebral veins and reabsorb CSF

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23
Q

Largest dural venous sinus

A

Superior sagittal sinus within the falx

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24
Q

Label:

A

Clockwise:

Dorsal root

Ventral root

Intervertebral disc: Annulus Fibrosus and Nucelus Pulposus

Foramen transversarium/Transverse foramen

Spinal nerve in perineurium

DRG

Dura

Fat in epidural space

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25
Q

Label:

A
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26
Q

Label:

A
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27
Q

Label

A
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28
Q

Rostral

A

Towards “beak” or “nose”; towards the tip of the frontal lobe

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29
Q

Caudal

A

Towards the feet/tail

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30
Q

Ventral

A

Below the brain; anterior to spinal cord

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31
Q

Dorsal

A

Above the brain; posterior to the spinal cord

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32
Q

Name of fissure formed by the two sides of the forebrain (prosencephalon)

A

Longitudinal fissure

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33
Q

What structure is located deep to the longitudinal fissue, below the falx and formed by axons passing from one side of cortex to the other

A

Corpus callosum

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34
Q

What structure is lined by the tentorium and divides the cerebrum and cerebellum?

A

Transverse fissure

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35
Q

Sulci; sulcus

A

Valleys (of cortex)

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36
Q

Gyri, gyrus

A

ridges (of cortex)

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37
Q

Border between frontal lobe and parietal lobe

A

Central sulcus

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38
Q

Structurally - post-central gyrus

Functionally-

A

Primary somatosensory cortex

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39
Q

Structurally - pre-central gyrus

Functionally-

A

Primary motor cortex

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40
Q

Structure separating temporal lobe from lobes dorsal/superior to it.

A

Lateral fissure

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41
Q

Insula

A

Portion of cerebral cortext located in the medial wall of the laterl fissure that is not part of the four lobes.

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42
Q

Which structures occupy the posterior cranial fossa?

A

Brainstem and cerebellum

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43
Q

Most cranial nerves originate from which structure of the brain?

A

Brainstem

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44
Q

Brainstem attaches to which major CNS structures

A

forebrain, spinal cord, cranial nerves and cerebellum

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45
Q

What structures occupy the anterior cranial fossa?

A

Ventral side of frontal lobe

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46
Q

Which structures occupy the middle cranial fossa?

A

Temporal lobes

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47
Q

Decussation of CN2 occurs at which midline ventral landmark?

A

Optic chiasm

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48
Q

Pituitary stalk and mammillary bodies are parts of what diencephalon structure?

A

Hypothalamus

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49
Q

Calcarine sulcus/fissure

A

The calcarine fissure (or calcarine sulcus) is an anatomical landmark located at the caudal end of the medial surface of the brain.

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50
Q

Parietal-occipital sulcus

A

Sulcus separating the parietal and occipital lobes

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51
Q

Cingulate sulcus

A

A long curving sulcus that extends forwards from occipital lobe into frontal lobe.

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52
Q

The “limbic system’ is formed by what structures?

A

The cingulate gyrus and medial temporal cortex

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53
Q

Label

A
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54
Q

Within the medial temporal lobe ( which is part of limbic system, there is a specialised area of the telencephalon known as:

A

Hippocampus

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55
Q

What structure of the brain is found anterior to the hippocampus formed by a small cluster of grey matter in each hemisphere

A

Amygdala

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56
Q

Major components of diencephalon:

A

Thalamus and hypothalamus

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57
Q

Structure in brain connected ventrally to hypothalamus

A

Pituitary gland via the infundibulum/infundibular stalk/pituitary stalk (synonyms)

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58
Q

The lumen of the neural tube forms:

A

The ventricular system

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59
Q

Which ventricles are found within the telencephalon?

A

Lateral ventricles

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60
Q

Which ventricles are found within the diencephalon?

A

Third ventricle

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61
Q

Which part of the ventricular system is found within the midbrain?

A

Cerebral aquaduct

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62
Q

Which ventricles are found within the hindbrain?

A

Fourth ventricle

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63
Q

Where does CSF exit the ventricular system and what does it enter and through what is it reabsorbed?

A

Several exist aperatures allow the CSF to enter the subarachnoid space and be reabsorbed into the dural venous sinuses

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64
Q

Which cord segments make up the cervical enlargement?

A

C5-T1

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65
Q

Which cord segments make up the lumbrosacral enlargement?

A

L1-S2

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66
Q

Sympathetic output for the entire body is provides by which cord segments?

A

T1-L1

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67
Q

The adult spinal cord is what proportion of the total vertebral canal?

A

2/3 the length

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68
Q

Which section of the spinal cord have long intradural segments?

A

Lumbosacral region

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69
Q

Conus medullaris

A

The tapered end of the spinal cord

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70
Q

The long tubular sac of dura extends from brain to:

A

Sacrum

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71
Q

The lumbo-sacral nerve roots that have long intradural segments are collectively known as:

A

Cauda equina

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72
Q

Dorsal and ventral nerve roots join together at what foramen and distal to what CNS structure?

A

Intervertebral foramen; DRG

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73
Q

The central-peripheral border of the nervous system is located where?

A

When the dorsal and ventral nerve roots join together to form the spinal nerves

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74
Q

When the dorsal and ventral roots join to form the spinal nerve, the nerve has left the spinal cord and is part of the peripheral nervous system.

What happens to the dura as each nerve exists the CNS?

A

The dura merges with the perineurium of the nerve

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75
Q

Which nerves emerge from above their respective vertebra and which emerge from below?

A

Spinal nerves C1-7 emerge from above vertebrae C1-7.

Spinal nerve C8 emerges between C7 and T1.

The 12 thoracic and 5 lumbar spinal nerves emerge below their corresponding vertebra.

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76
Q

At what location is the nerve root most constrained?

A

When it passes through the intervebral foramen.

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77
Q

How can a disc herniation impact on nearby nerve roots?

A

Compression of nerve roots

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78
Q

From where can a sample of CSF be safely collected?

A

CSF can be collected for diagnostic assay, typically by inserting a long needle into the subarachnoid space around the cauda equina. This procedure is a lumbar puncture.

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79
Q

A chain of what runs adjacent to the vertebral column on either side?

A

Sympathetic ganglia

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80
Q

Sympathetic ganglia are found adjacent to which vertebrae and which nerves supply them??

A

3 cervical ganglia, T1 - L1/L2, 4 lumbar and 4 sacral ganglia

SUPPLIED by T1-L1/L2

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81
Q

Preganglionic efferent axons and post-ganglionic axons of the sympathetic nervous system synapse where?

A

Within the sympathetic trunk

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82
Q

Why is sympathetic motor innervation to the head supplied by T1 via cervical ganglia?

A

Cranial nerves do not contain sympathetic axons

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83
Q

Where are the parasympathetic ganglia located?

A

In or near the end-organs

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84
Q

Where are the parasympathetic ganglia of the cervical, lumbar and thoracic spinal nerves?

A

There are no parasympathetic outputs from cervical, lumbar and thoracic cord levels.

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85
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of viscera is via which group of nerves ?

A

Cranial nerves (particularly the vagus nerve) and Sacral nerves S2,3 and 4.

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86
Q

What neurotransmitters are released via sympathetic efferents?

A

Pre-ganglionic: Acetylcholine

Post-ganglionic: Noradrenaline

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87
Q

What neurotransmitters are released via parasympathetic efferents?

A

Both pre- and post-ganglionic parasympathetic efferents release Acetylcholine

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88
Q
A
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89
Q

Dermatome

A

The region of skin that receives sensory innervation from one spinal cord segment.

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90
Q

Myotome

A

The musculature that has motor innervation from one spinal cord segment.

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91
Q

What composes a sensori-motor unit

A

Grouped together, a dermatome, a myotome, the spinal nerve and one side of the corresponding spinal cord segment form a single sensori-motor unit.

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92
Q

Which spinal nerve usually has no dermatome?

A

C1

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93
Q

Distal nerves innervate individual muscles. How does this differ from myotomes?

A

Limb myotomes control movements which means that they cover groups of muscles.

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94
Q

Three tendon jerk reflexes of the upper limb are:

A

Biceps jerk - elbow flexion

brachioradialis jerk - supination

tricepts jerk - elbow extension

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95
Q

What is the main myotome for the biceps jerk?

A

C5

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96
Q

What is the main myotome for the brachioradialis jerk?

A

C6

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97
Q

What is the main myotome for the triceps jerk?

A

C7

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98
Q

Two tendon jerk reflexes of the lower limb:

A

Knee jerk - knee extension

Ankle jerk - plantarflexion

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99
Q

What is the main myotome for the knee jerk?

A

L3

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100
Q

What is the main myotome for the ankle jerk?

A

S1

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101
Q

True or false:

While there may be a key myotome for a particular movement, movements at larger joints typically involve two or three consecutive myotomes.

A

True

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102
Q

What is the central canal of the CNS?

A

A narrow cylindrical cavity which is the ventricualr component of the spinal cord.

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103
Q

Label

A
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104
Q

Why are the neurons of the dorsal root ganglion atypical?

A
  • No dendrites
  • two axons: one primary afferent in the peripheral nerve and one central axon ascending the spinal cord.
105
Q

The ventral horn of a cord segment and ventral root axons together control what?

A

One myotome.

106
Q

The dorsal horn of a cord segment and dorsal root axons together control what?

A

One dermatome.

107
Q

Peripheral sensory neurons have their cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglia.

Where are the motor neuron cell bodies located?

A

In the ventral horn.

108
Q

Synonyms for anterior horn cells?

A

Alpha-motor neurons
Lower motor neurons

109
Q

Why are lower motor neurons called the final common pathway?

A

LMNs are the only neurons which have peripheral axons to directly activate muscles. The CNS can only influence action via LMN.

110
Q

Motor tone:

A

The degree of contraction in a muscle whien it is not being deliberately used; the degree of baseline contraction due to ongoing low rate of signals in LMN axons.

111
Q

LMNs are primarily response for: (3)

A
  • muscle tone
  • voluntary muscle contraction
  • reflex responses
112
Q

Tract:

A

Bundle of axons in CNS white matter with a defined functional role; provides one synaptic connection between two populations of neurons. ie. a particular parthway with several neurons communicating will be contain multple tracts.

113
Q

What three pathways are particularly important in the spinal cord and tested for in limb function.

A

Touch pathway (DCML pathway)

Pain pathway (STT pathway)

Motor pathway (voluntary movement) (CST pathway)

Note: “You need to know each of these pathways in sufficient detail to understand the effects of focal lesions at various levels in the nervous system. Therefore it is important to learn the locations and functions of the relevant spinal cord tracts. Use this learning to explain or predict the clinical effects of focal lesions of differing sizes in various locations at various levels.”

114
Q

Name the five distinct modalities of somatosensory information tested for in a neurological examination (these inputs are organised within the ascending tracts):

A

Tough

Pain

Vibration

Proprioception

Temperature

115
Q

Three alternative destinations incoming axons in a dorsal root travel to:

A
  • enter the ipsilateral dorsal colum of white matter and ascend to the medulla
  • enter the grey matter and synapse in a dorsal horn (also ipsilateral)
  • synapse in a different grey matter e.g. the ventral horn
116
Q

Which somatosensory modalities give input to the dorsal column white matter?

A

light touch, proprioception and vibration

117
Q

Where is the first synapse for neurons in the dorsal column?

A

Brainstem nucelus (above the spinal cord):

In the gracile and cuneate nuclei of the medulla oblongata afterwhich they decussate and enter the medial lemniscus

118
Q

Input from light touch, vibration and proprioception travel to the brainstem nucleus via the dorsal column tracrt. What is the next tract in their pathway?

A

Medial lemniscus tract

119
Q

The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway carries information about what somatosensory modalities?

A

Light touch, proprioception and vibrations

120
Q

Which somatosensory modalities give input to the dorsal horn?

A

Pain and temperature

121
Q

Pain and temperature inputs to the CNS terminate by synapsing where?

A

In the dorsal horn

122
Q

Dorsal horn second-order neurons that relay pain/temperature information to the brain form what tract?

A

The spinothalamic tract (STT).

123
Q

The spinothalamic tract is the major part of what pathway?

A

Anterolateral system

124
Q

From which spinal cord segments do the pelvic organs get their parasympaathetic innervation?

A

S2,3 and 4

125
Q

Which cranial nerves have parasympathetic functions?

A

Vagus

Glossopharengeal

Facial

Oculomotor

126
Q

The upper limb dermatomes are the same as the nerve roots of the brachial plexus.

These are:

A

C4-T1/2

127
Q

The lower limb dermatomes (excluding buttocks) are the nerve roots of the femoral and sciatic nerves. These are:

A

L2 to S2

128
Q

Which nerve root supplys the middle fingers?

A

C7

129
Q

Which nerve root supplies the umbilicus?

A

T10

130
Q

Which nerve root supplies the big toe?

A

L5

131
Q

Which spinal segment has no dermatome?

A

C1

132
Q

Movements are larger joints typically involve how many myotomes?

A

Two or three consecutive myotomes

133
Q

The anterolateral system in the spinal cord carries afferent or efferent signals?

A

Afferent

134
Q

The anterolateral system is ascending or descending?

A

ascending

135
Q

The anterolateral system carries which sensory modality?

A

pain and temperature

136
Q

The spinothalamic tract is part of which system/pathway?

A

Anterolateral system

137
Q

The lateral corticospinal tract is ascending or descending and is responsible for control of what?

A

motor control

descending

138
Q

Cuneate fasiculus is where relative to gracile fasciculus?

A

lateral

139
Q

Gracile fasiculus is where relative to cuneate fasciculus?

A

medial

140
Q

The narrow band of white matter that sensory axons pass through on entering the spinal cord is called what?

A

Dorsal root entry zone

141
Q

Synaptic input to spinal motor neurons occurs where?

A

within the ventral horn

142
Q

At which parts of a lower motor neuron can lesions occur?

A

ventral horn

Ventral root

peripheral nerve

neuromuscular synapse

143
Q

What is muscle tone?

A

The degree of contraction in a muscle when it is not being deliberately used

144
Q

What is “tonic activity of LMNs”?

A

The background baseline activity of LMNs. It results in low-level contraction due to the ongoing low rate of signals in LMN axons.

145
Q

When LMN tonic output is reduced, muscles lose tone and posture will often be impaired. When the muscles become floopy as a result, the neurological terms to describe this are:

A

Flaccid

hypotonic

146
Q

Where does the DCML pathway decussate?

A

In the brainstem at the caudal medulla.

147
Q

The DCML pathway decussates at the caudal medulla. What is the next tract in this pathway?

A

Medial lemniscus

148
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

In the spinal cord at about the same level as the cell bodies of the STT axons.

149
Q

Light touch, proprioception and vibration information ascend in the spinal cord at what side of the cord relative to their dermatome?

A

The dorsal column tract ascends ipsilateral- on the same side as its dermatome

150
Q

Pain and temperature information ascend in the spinal cord at what side of the cord relative to their dermatome?

A

Contralaterally; They ascend on the side opposite their dermatome.

151
Q

What are the three tracts found in the anterolateral system?

and which is the most important?

A

Spinothalammic tract < most important
spinoreticular tract

spinomesencephalic tract

152
Q

There are two spinocerebellar tracts that take up signals for unconscious proprioception.

How do these tracts differ from the dorsal columns and STT?

A

The two spinocerebellar tracts do not decussate.

That is, the right cerebellar hemisphere receives proprioceptive information from the right limbs.

153
Q

The corticospinal tract provides a direct linkage from where to where?

A

Cerebral cortex to spinal cord ventral horns

154
Q

The majority of corticospinal axons decussate where and form what tract?

A

The majority (80-90%) of corticospinal axons decussate and form the lateral corticospinal tract in spinal cord white matter at the spino-medullary junction.

155
Q

the lateral corticospinal tract is crucial for what?

A

controlling voluntary movements in the limbs, especially more distal actions such as using your hands.

156
Q

The decussation of the DCML pathway is more or less at the same level to but dorsal to the main decussation of what tract?

A

The corticospinal tract which then forms the lateral corticospinal tract with the crossed fibers and the non corssed fibers (10-20%) form the anterior corticospinal tract

157
Q

What part of the cortex is the main site of origin for corticospinal neurons?

A

The primary motor cortex

158
Q

What would be the main symptom if the corticospinal tract is impaired?

A

The primary clinical deficit is weakness in the myotomes that lose UMN inputs.

159
Q

What is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

Has one synapse; the afferent input connects directly to the efferent neuron

160
Q

How does a polysynaptic reflex differ from a monosynaptic reflex?

A

polysynaptic reflexes have one or more interneurons used to link input to output

161
Q

What are muscle spindles?

A

The sensory receptors embedded within most muscles

162
Q

Do receptors in tendons provide input to deep tendon reflexes?

A

no; muscle spindles (receptors in muscles) are activated by targeting the tendon

163
Q

Monosynaptic reflexes are also called what

A

stretch reflex

164
Q

What are spindle afferents?

A

The axons going to the spinal cord in the dorsal root from muscle spindles (sensory receptors) in muscle

165
Q

Where do spindle afferents in monosynaptic reflexes synapse and what do they synapse with?

A

in the ventral horn directly to lower motor neurons for the same muscle in the same spinal cord segment

166
Q

The presence of a stretch reflex indicates what?

A

That a substantial number of LMNs are intact.

Note:

The reflex circuit is not damamged bya UMN but the sensitivity iis altered by UMN control (inhibition)

167
Q

Abnormally brisk tendon jerks (stretch reflexes) are a sign of what?

A

Abnormal UMN function - UMNs should inhibit tendon jerks to a certain degree. Damage inthe corticospinal tract would result in disinhibition of the tendon jerk.

168
Q

What will occur upon stimulation of the sole of the foot if a Babinski sign is not elicited?

A

involuntary plantarflexion of the big toe

169
Q

What is a babinski sign?

A

involuntary dorsiflexion of the big toe

“an upgoing plantar”

170
Q

The babinski sign relies on circuitry from which levels of the spinal cord?

A

L5 and S1

Note:

It is a polysynaptic reflex with circuitry in L5 and S1 levels of the spinal cord. Otherwise the physiology of the plantar reflex is poorly understood, except that it has been shown empirically that the normal response is dependent on normal corticospinal inputs to those levels. The abnormal response is a more primitive spinal level reaction that is “uncovered” if there is a UMN lesion.

Although the circuitry is not well understood, the plantar reflex is a reliable and important neurological sign that is routinely tested in physical examination.

171
Q

Name two fontanelles formed by the coronal sutures

A

Anterior and posterior fontanelles

172
Q

The spinomedullary junction occurs at the level of what cranial foramen?

A

Foramen magnum

173
Q

The foramen magnum is at the level of what brainstem landmark?

A

Spinomedullary junction

174
Q

The sellic turcica is also known as what fossa?

A

Hypophysial fossa

175
Q

The tentorium forms the roof of what?

A

The posterior cranial fossa

176
Q

Label:

A
177
Q

Two layers of the dura mater

A

Periosteal and meningeal layer

178
Q

Name of internal cranial periosteum

A

periosteal later of dura mater

179
Q

Subarachnoid space contains what?

A

filled with CSF

contains nerve roots and blood vessels

180
Q

Which of the three meninges follow the contours of the sulci?

A

Pia mater

181
Q

Dura mater and arachnoid are supplied by which arteries; derived from which artery?

A

Meingeal arteries derived from the external carotid artery

182
Q

Of the three meningeal arteries, which supplies the most area?

A

Of anterior, middle and posterior meningeal arteries, the middle meningeal artery covers much more area.

183
Q

What is the meningeal layer of dura that occupies the longitudinal fissure?

A

Falx cerebri

184
Q

What are arachnoid granulations?

A

Numerous small protrusions of arachnoid into the larger dural sinuses

185
Q

What is the purpose of arachnoid granulations?

A

To export CSF from the subarachnoid space - removal of CSF to balance its ongoing production

186
Q

The tentorium cerebelli occupies which cortical fissure?

A

Transverse fissure

187
Q

What is the role of the falx and tentorium?

A

To help stabilise the brain during rapid or violent head movements

188
Q

What is an extradural haematoma and what blood vessels cause them?

A

Extradural haematoms is a space-occupying lesion in the potential extradural space.

Skull fractures or other head injuries that cause bleeding from a meningeal artery into the extradural space cause these types of haematomas.

189
Q

What is a subdural haemorrhage and what vessels cause it?

A

A subdural haemorrhage is bleeding into the potential space between dura and arachnoid.

This is more often due to the tearing of a vein, internal to the dura.

190
Q

What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage and what can cause it?

A

Rupture of an aneurysm or penetrating trauma can cause a subarachnoid haemorrage in which blood spreads around the subarachnoid space.

191
Q

What is the term used to describe bleeding within the brain, deep to the pia?

A

Intracerebral haemorrhage

aka

intraparenchymal haemorrhage

192
Q

Which nerves originate from the brainstem?

A

Cranial nerves 3-12

193
Q

Label:

A
194
Q

Of the paranasal sinuses, which is the largest?

A

Paranasal sinuses - 4 paired air filled spaces (maxillary, frontal, sphenoidal, and ethmoidal)

The largest are the maxillary sinuses

195
Q

What separates the oral cavity from the nasal cavity?

A

The hard and soft palate

196
Q

The nasal and oral cavities lead back to what structures?

A

Pharynx.

Anterior to the pharynx and oesophagus is the larynx which is inferior to the epiglottis.

197
Q

Where are the components of the ear housed?

A

the petrous part of the temporal bone

198
Q

How is the tympanic cavity anteriorly connected to the nasopharynx?

A

Via the auditory tube.

199
Q

The middle ear is also called the ?

A

Tympanic cavity

200
Q

To what is the tympanic cavity connected posteriorly?

A

Mastoid air cells

201
Q

What does the hindbrain develop into?

A

lower brainstem and cerebellum

202
Q

Where is the midbrain located?

A

The midbrain is the most rostral portion of the brainstem

203
Q

What are the two components of the forebrain?

A

Diencephalon and telencephalon.

204
Q

What is the telencephalon?

A

The cerebrum

205
Q

What is a commissure?

A

Used to describe neural connections - it means a more horixontal left-right connection between two regions that are at the same rostro-caudal level.

206
Q

Key landmark forming border between frontal and parietal lobes

A

Central sulcus

207
Q

two functional names of cortex separated by central sulcus

A

precentral gyrus is the motor cortex

postcentral gyrus is the somatosensory cortex

208
Q

What separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

Lateral sulcus

aka Sylvian fissure

aka lateral fissure

aka transverse fissure

209
Q

What forms the medial wall of the lateral fissure?

A

The insula cortex

210
Q

The hypothalamus forms the ventral diencephalon. What forms the landmark of this structure?

A

The Mammillary bodies

211
Q

What marks the anterior limit of the hypothalamus?

A

The optic chiasm

212
Q

Label:

A
213
Q

On which sides is the diencephalon NOT surrounded by telencephalon?

A

Ventral side

214
Q

Diencephalon starts where and ends where?

It includes what two major regions?
Are these regions largely grey or white matter?

A

The diencephalon spans from the optic chiasm to and including the pineal gland. The two major regions are the thalamus and hypothalamus.

These regions are largely grey matter.

215
Q

What is the overall role of the thalamus?

A

To organise ascending inputs to go to the appropriate area of cerebral cortex

216
Q

What structure is directly above the midbrain?

A

The thalamus?

217
Q

What diencephalic structure is ventral and rostral to the midbrain?

A

Hypothalamus

218
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

It is the command centre for the autonomic nervous system and also has important interactions with memory and emotional processing.

219
Q

What serves as a distinct border between the parietal and occiptial lobes on their medial aspect?

A

Parieto-occipital sulcus

220
Q

What is a landmark for the primary visual cortex that is located in the medial cerebral cortex posterior to the parieto-occipital sulcus?

A

Calcarine sulcus

221
Q

Where is the cingulate sulcus?

A

The cingulate sulcus is long and curvs inferiorly to the frontal lobe and is the superior border of the cingulate gyrus.

222
Q

Where is the cingulate gyrus located?

A

Between the cingulate sulcus and corpus callosum

223
Q

What lines the four ventricles and what type type of cell are they?

A

All ventricles are lined by ependymal cells which are a type of glia

224
Q

The three horns of the lateral ventricle extend into which cerebral lobes?

A

anterior/frontal horn into frontal lobe

posterior/occipital horn into occipital lobe

inferior/temporal horn into temporal lobe

225
Q

Label:

A
226
Q

The third ventricle is framed by what structures?

A

Left and right thalamus

227
Q

How do the lateral ventricles connect to the third ventricle?

A

Via the interventricular foramen

228
Q

Where is the interventricular foramen located?

A

Anterior end of thalamus.

229
Q

Where and what is the septum pellucidum

A

The septum pellucidum is a thin curtain of tissue that separates the two lateral ventricles when they are adjacent to the midline and superior to the thalamus

230
Q

Match each brain division with the portion of ventricular system located within it:

telencephalon, diecephalon, midbrain, hindbrain

with

cerebral aquaduct, lateral ventricles, third ventricles, fourth ventricle

A

The telencephalon has the lateral ventricles, with a horn in each lobe (or the body of the ventricle in the parietal lobe). The diencephalon encloses the third ventricle; the midbrain has the cerebral aqueduct; and the hindbrain contains the fourth ventricle.

231
Q

How much CSF is produced each 24 hours

A

150mL per day

232
Q

What structure is dedicated to filtering plasma in order to produce CSF?

A

choroid plexus

233
Q

Is CSF produced in spurts irregularly or slowly and continuously

A

CSF is produced slowly and continuously

234
Q

Where is the ventricular system is the chroid plexus found?

A

Each of the four ventricles contain some choroid pluxes

235
Q

How many exit aperatures are there in the ventricular system, where are they located and what do they do?

A

The three exit aperatures are located in the fourth ventricle beneath the cerebellum. CSF passes from inside the brain out to fill the subarachnoid space around the CNS via these aperatures.

there are two lateral and 1 medial exit aperatures.

236
Q

Where are the arachnoid granulations found?

A

On the dorsal aspect of the brain projecting into the dural venous sinuses - mainly the superior sagital sinus.

237
Q

What structures within the arachnoid granulations transfer the CSF into the venous blood?

A

arachnoid villi

238
Q

If arachnoid granulations become blocked for some days, what will occur?

A

CSF accumulates within the ventricles resulting in hydrocephalus

239
Q

What is the basal ganglia?

A

A group of interconnected sub-cortical nucel, arranged around the thalamus.

The larger of these are tenecephalic - being the corpus striatum and the globus pallidus.

Note - the striatum has two parts; caudate and putamen.

Two smaller basal ganglia are situated between midbrain and hypothalamus.

240
Q

The caudate part of the corpus striatum has a tail that follows the lateral ventricle and curves into which lobe?

A

Temporal lobe

241
Q

What is the hippocampus?

A

An atypical portion of cerebral cortex located deep to the other temporal cortex.

242
Q

What structure is anterior to the hippocampus and caudate tail?

A

Amygdala (or amygdaloid complex)

243
Q

What s the amygdala?

A

A cluster of sub-cortical nuclei that are important for emotiona reactions and form part of the limbic system

244
Q

Where is the first synapse of the dorsal column - medial lemnisucs pathway?

A

In the dorsal column nucleus of the medulla.

245
Q

Where does the DCML pathway decussate?

A

In the caudal medulla via internal arcuate fibres

246
Q

Where is the first synapse of the pain/temperature pathway?

A

Dorsal horn in the spinal cord at the level of the primary afferent

247
Q

Where is ‘crude touch’ information carried in the spinal cord?

A

In the anterolateral system

248
Q

The spinothalamic tract can be separated into lateral and ventral for different sensory modalities. What is carried in these different regions?

A

Ventral - crude touch

lateral - pain and temperature

249
Q

Where does the trigeminal nerve sensory fibres enter the brainstem?

A

At the pons, laterally- but travel the trigeminal sensory nucleaus extends up and down the brainstem

250
Q

As well as the skin and eye, the trigeminal nerve also recieves sensory input for what other regions in the head?

A

nearly all the meninges

paranasal sinuses

nasal cavity

oral cavity (including teeth and anterior tongue)

251
Q

Do intracranial blood vessels have pain receptors?

A

yes

252
Q

Where is the principal (or chief) sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve?

A

The part of the sensory uncleus that is within the pons. The rest of the sensory nucleus extends down into the medulla (known as the spinal trigeminal nucleus) and up into the brainstem.

253
Q

In which part of the trigeminal sensory nucleus do light touch afferents synapse?

A

Within the principle nucleus (in the pons)

254
Q

In which part of the trigeminal sensory nucleus do pain/temperature afferents synapse?

A

They descend to synapse in the ipsilateral spinal trigeminal nucleus where they decussate in the medulla and then ascend to travel with the light touch siganls in the trigemino-thalamic tract,

255
Q

For both limbs and face, the first synapse in the pain pathway is WHAT relative to that of the light touch pathway synapse location?

A

The first synapse for both limb and face pain pathway is caudal to that of the light touch pathway

256
Q

Where might a lesion be that causes a selective pain/temperature deficit in the face but not a deficit in light touch?

A

A lesion in the medulla can cause a selective pain/temperature deficit in the face.

257
Q

Where do most of the trigemino-thalamic axons terminate?

A

In the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus, alongside the other somatosensory tracts.

258
Q

In the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus, the somatosensory pathway for the head is located where relative to that of the trunk and limbs?

A

The somatosensory pathway for the head is medial to that of the trunk and limbs in the ventral posterior nucleus of the thalamus. This is reveresed via the thalamocortical projection into the primary somatosensory cortex (head is lateral)

259
Q

Week 20, somatosensory pathwyas page 3

A

MD1 (4 decks)

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