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3rd Year_Step 2 Rapid Review > S2 RR_4 > Flashcards

S2 RR_4 Flashcards

1
Q

Contraceptive methods that protect against PID.

A

OCP and barrier contraception

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2
Q

Unopposed estrogen is contraindicated in which cancers?

A

Endometrial or estrogen receptor- breast cancer

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3
Q

A patient presents with recent PID with RUQ pain.

A

Consider Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

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4
Q

Breast malignancy presenting as itching burning and erosion of the nipple.

A

Paget’s disease

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5
Q

Annual screening for women with a strong family history of ovarian cancer.

A

CA-125 and transvaginal ultrasound

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6
Q

A 50-year-old woman leaks urine when laughing or coughing. Nonsurgical options?

A

Kegel exercises estrogen pessaries for stress incontinence

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7
Q

A 30-year-old woman has unpredictable urine loss. Examination is normal. Medical options?

A

Anticholinergics (oxybutynin) or beta-adrenergics (metaproterenol) for urge incontinence.

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8
Q

Lab values suggestive of menopause.

A

inc’d serum FSH

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9
Q

The most common cause of female infertility.

A

Endometriosis

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10
Q

Two consecutive findings of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS) on Pap smear. Follow-up evaluation?

A

Colposcopy and endocervical curettage

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11
Q

Breast cancer type that inc’s the future risk of invasive carcinoma in both breasts.

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

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12
Q

Nontender abdominal mass associated with elevated VMA and HVA.

A

Neuroblastoma

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13
Q

The most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Diagnosis?

A

Esophageal atresia with distal TEF (85%). Unable to pass NG tube

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14
Q

Not contraindications to vaccination.

A

Mild illness and/or low-grade fever current antibiotic therapy and prematurity

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15
Q

Tests to rule out shaken baby syndrome.

A

Ophthalmologic exam CT and MRI

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16
Q

A neonate has meconium ileus.

A

CF or Hirschsprung’s disease

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17
Q

Bilious emesis within hours after the first feeding.

A

Duodenal atresia

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18
Q

A two-month-old presents with nonbilious projectile emesis. What are the appropriate steps in management?

A

Correct metabolic abnormalities. Then correct pyloric stenosis with pyloromyotomy

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19
Q

The most common 1Á immunodeficiency.

A

Selective IgA deficiency

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20
Q

An infant has a high fever and onset of rash as fever breaks. What is he at risk for?

A

Febrile seizures (roseola infantum)

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21
Q

Acute-phase treatment for Kawasaki disease.

A

High-dose aspirin for inflammation and fever; IVIG to prevent coronary artery aneurysms

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22
Q

Treatment for mild and severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.

A

Phototherapy (mild) or exchange transfusion (severe)

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23
Q

Sudden onset of mental status changes emesis and liver dysfunction after taking aspirin.

A

Reye’s syndrome

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24
Q

A child has loss of red light reflex. Diagnosis?

A

Suspect retinoblastoma

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25
Q

Vaccinations at a six-month well-child visit.

A

HBV DTaP Hib IPV PCV

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26
Q

Tanner stage 3 in a six-year-old female.

A

Precocious puberty

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27
Q

Infection of small airways with epidemics in winter and spring.

A

RSV bronchiolitis

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28
Q

Cause of neonatal RDS.

A

Surfactant deficiency

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29
Q

What is the immunodeficiency? A boy has chronic respiratory infections. Nitroblue tetrazolium test is +.

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

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30
Q

What is the immunodeficiency? A child has eczema thrombocytopenia and high levels of IgA.

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

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31
Q

What is the immunodeficiency? A four-month-old boy has life-threatening Pseudomonas infection.

A

Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobulinemia

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32
Q

A condition associated with red currant-jelly stools.

A

Intussusception

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33
Q

A congenital heart disease that cause 2Á hypertension.

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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34
Q

First-line treatment for otitis media.

A

Amoxicillin x 10 days

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35
Q

The most common pathogen causing croup.

A

Parainfluenza virus type 1

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36
Q

A homeless child is small for his age and has peeling skin and a swollen belly.

A

Kwashiorkor (protein malnutrition)

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37
Q

Defect in an X-linked syndrome with mental retardation

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (purine salvage problem with

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38
Q

gout self-mutilation and choreoathetosis.

A

HGPRTase deficiency)

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39
Q

A newborn female has continuous machinery murmur.

A

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

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40
Q

First-line pharmacotherapy for depression.

A

SSRIs

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41
Q

Antidepressants associated with hypertensive crisis.

A

MAOIs

42
Q

Galactorrhea impotence menstrual dysfunction and dec’d libido.

A

Patient on dopamine antagonist

43
Q

A 17-year-old female has left arm paralysis after her boyfriend dies in a car crash. No medical cause is found.

A

Conversion disorder

44
Q

Name the defense mechanism: A mother who is angry at her husband yells at her child.

A

Displacement

45
Q

Name the defense mechanism: A pedophile enters a monastery.

A

Reaction formation

46
Q

Name the defense mechanism: A woman calmly describes a grisly murder.

A

Isolation

47
Q

Name the defense mechanism: A hospitalized 10-year-old begins to wet his bed.

A

Regression

48
Q

Life-threatening muscle rigidity fever and rhabdomyolysis.

A

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

49
Q

Amenorrhea bradycardia and abnormal body image in a young female.

A

Anorexia

50
Q

A 35-year-old male has recurrent episodes of palpitations diaphoresis and fear of going crazy.

A

Panic disorder

51
Q

The most serious side effect of clozapine.

A

Agranulocytosis

52
Q

A 21-year-old male has three months of social withdrawal worsening grades flattened affect and concrete thinking.

A

Schizophreniform disorder (diagnosis of schizophrenia requires _ 6 months of symptoms)

53
Q

Key side effects of atypical antipsychotics.

A

Weight gain type 2 DM QT prolongation

54
Q

A young weight lifter receives IV haloperidol and complains that his eyes are deviated sideways. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Acute dystonia (oculogyric crisis). Treat with benztropine or diphenhydramine

55
Q

Medication to avoid in patients with a history of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

A

Neuroleptics

56
Q

A 13-year-old male has a history of theft vandalism and violence toward family pets.

A

Conduct disorder

57
Q

A five-month-old girl has dec’d head growth truncal dyscoordination and dec’d social interaction.

A

Rett’s disorder

58
Q

A patient hasn’t slept for days lost $20000 gambling is agitated and has pressured speech. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Acute mania. Start a mood stabilizer (e.g. lithium)

59
Q

After a minor fender bender a man wears a neck brace and requests permanent disability.

A

Malingering

60
Q

A nurse presents with severe hypoglycemia; blood analysis reveals no elevation in C peptide.

A

Factitious disorder (Munchausen syndrome)

61
Q

A patient continues to use cocaine after being in jail losing his job and not paying child support.

A

Substance abuse

62
Q

A violent patient has vertical and horizontal nystagmus.

A

Phencyclidine hydrochloride (PCP) intoxication

63
Q

A woman who was abused as a child frequently feels outside of or detached from her body.

A

Depersonalization disorder

64
Q

A man has repeated intense urges to rub his body against unsuspecting passengers on a bus.

A

Frotteurism (a paraphilia)

65
Q

A schizophrenic patient takes haloperidol for one year and develops uncontrollable tongue movements. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Tardive dyskinesia. Decrease or discontinue haloperidol and consider another antipsychotic (e.g. risperidone clozapine)

66
Q

A man unexpectedly flies across the country takes a new name and has no memory of his prior life.

A

Dissociative fugue

67
Q

Risk factors for DVT.

A

Stasis endothelial injury and hypercoagulability (Virchow’s triad)

68
Q

Criteria for exudative effusion.

A

Pleural/serum protein > 0.5; pleural/serum LDH > 0.6

69
Q

Causes of exudative effusion.

A

Think of leaky capillaries. Malignancy TB bacterial or viral infection pulmonary embolism with infarct and pancreatitis

70
Q

Causes of transudative effusion.

A

Think of intact capillaries. CHF liver or kidney disease and protein-losing enteropathy

71
Q

Normalizing PCO2 in a patient having an asthma exacerbation may indicate?

A

Fatigue and impending respiratory failure

72
Q

Dyspnea lateral hilar lymphodenopathy on CXR noncaseating granulomas increased ACE and hypercalcemia.

A

Sarcoidosis

73
Q

PFT showing dec’d FEV1/FVC.

A

Obstructive pulmonary disease (e.g. asthma)

74
Q

PFT showing inc’d FEV1/FVC.

A

Restrictive pulmonary disease

75
Q

Honeycomb pattern on CXR. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Diffuse interstitial pulmonary fibrosis. Supportive care. Steroids may help

76
Q

Treatment for SVC syndrome.

A

Radiation

77
Q

Treatment for mild persistent asthma.

A

Inhaled beta-agonists and inhaled corticosteroids

78
Q

Acid-base disorder in pulmonary embolism.

A

Hypoxia and hypocarbia

79
Q

Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) associated with hypercalcemia.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

80
Q

Lung cancer associated with SIADH.

A

Small cell lung cancer (SCLC)

81
Q

Lung cancer highly related to cigarette exposure.

A

SCLC

82
Q

A tall white male presents with acute shortness of breath. Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Spontaneous pneumothorax. Spontaneous regression. Supplemental O2 may be helpful

83
Q

Treatment of tension pneumothorax.

A

Immediate needle thoracostomy

84
Q

Characteristics favoring carcinoma in an isolated pulmonary nodule.

A

Age > 45-50 years; lesions new or larger in comparison to old films; absence of calcification or irregular calcification; size > 2 cm; irregular margins

85
Q

Hypoxemia and pulmonary edema with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure.

A

ARDS

86
Q

inc’d risk of what infection with silicosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

87
Q

Causes of hypoxemia.

A

Right-to-left shunt hypoventilation low inspired O2 tension diffusion defect V/Q mismatch

88
Q

Classic CXR findings for pulmonary edema.

A

Cardiomegaly prominent pulmonary vessels Kerley B lines bat’s-wing appearance of hilar shadows and perivascular and peribronchial cuffing

89
Q

Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) associated with abnormal H+ secretion and nephrolithiasis.

A

Type I (distal) RTA

90
Q

RTA associated with abnormal HCO3 & rickets.

A

Type II (proximal) RTA

91
Q

RTA associated with aldosterone defect.

A

Type IV (distal) RTA

92
Q

Doughy skin.

A

Hypernatremia

93
Q

Differential of hypervolemic hyponatremia.

A

Cirrhosis CHF nephritic syndrome

94
Q

Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs.

A

Hypocalcemia

95
Q

The most common causes of hypercalcemia.

A

Malignancy and hyperparathyroidism

96
Q

T-wave flattening and U waves.

A

Hypokalemia

97
Q

Peaked T waves and widened QRS.

A

Hyperkalemia

98
Q

First-line treatment for moderate hypercalcemia.

A

IV hydration and loop diuretics (furosemide)

99
Q

Type of ARF in a patient with FeNa < 1%.

A

Prerenal

100
Q

A 49-year-old male presents with acute-onset flank pain and hematuria.

A

Nephrolithiasis

3rd Year_Step 2 Rapid Review (5 decks)

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