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3rd Year_Step 2 Rapid Review > S2 RR_1 > Flashcards

S2 RR_1 Flashcards

1
Q

Classic ECG finding in atrial flutter

A

Sawtooth P waves

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2
Q

Definition of unstable angina

A

Angina is new worsening or occurs at rest

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3
Q

Antihypertensive for a diabetic patient with proteinuria.

A

ACEI

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4
Q

Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade.

A

Hypotension distant heart sounds and JVD

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5
Q

Drugs that slow AV node transmission.

A

beta-blockers digoxin calcium channel blockers

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6
Q

Hypercholesterolemia treatment that causes flushing and pruritus.

A

Niacin

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7
Q

Treatment for atrial fibrillation.

A

Anticoagulation rate control cardioversion

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8
Q

Treatment for ventricular fibrillation.

A

Immediate cardioversion

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9
Q

Autoimmune complication occurring 2-4 weeks post-MI.

A

Dressler’s syndrome: fever pericarditis inc’d ESR

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10
Q

IV drug use with JVD and holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border. Treatment?

A

Treat existing heart failure and replace the tricuspid valve

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11
Q

Diagnostic test for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

A

Echocardiogram (showing thickened left ventricular wall and outflow obstruction)

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12
Q

A fall in systolic BP of > 10 mmHg with inspiration.

A

Pulsus paradoxus (seen in cardiac tamponade)

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13
Q

Classic ECG findings in pericarditis.

A

Low-voltage diffuse ST-segment elevation

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14
Q

Definition of hypertension.

A

BP > 140/90 on three separate occasions two weeks apart

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15
Q

Eight surgically correctable causes of hypertension.

A

Renal artery stenosis coarctation of the aorta pheochromocytoma Conn’s syndrome Cushing’s syndrome unilateral renal parenchymal disease hyperthyroidism hyperparathyroidism

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16
Q

Evaluation of a pulsatile abdominal mass and bruit.

A

Abdominal ultrasound and CT

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17
Q

Indications for surgical repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm.

A

> 5.5 cm rapidly enlarging symptomatic or ruptured

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18
Q

Treatment for acute coronary syndrome.

A

Morphine O2 sublingual nitroglycerin ASA IV beta-blockers heparin

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19
Q

What is the metabolic syndrome?

A

Abdominal obesity high triglycerides low HDL hypertension insulin resistance prothrombotic or proinflammatory states

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20
Q

Appropriate diagnostic test? A 50-year-old male with angina can exercise to 85% of maximum predicted heart rate.

A

Exercise stress treadmill with ECG

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21
Q

Appropriate diagnostic test? A 65-year-old woman with left bundle branch block and severe osteoarthritis has unstable angina.

A

Pharmacologic stress test (e.g. dobutamine echo)

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22
Q

Signs of active ischemia during stress testing.

A

Angina ST-segment changes on ECG or dec’d BP

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23
Q

ECG findings suggesting MI.

A

ST-segment elevation (depression means ischemia) flattened T waves and Q waves

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24
Q

A young patient has angina at rest with ST-segment elevation. Cardiac enzymes are normal.

A

Prinzmetal’s angina

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25
Q

Common symptoms associated with silent MIs.

A

CHF shock and altered mental status

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26
Q

The diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism.

A

V/Q scan

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27
Q

An agent that reverses the effects of heparin.

A

Protamine

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28
Q

The coagulation parameter affected by warfarin.

A

PT

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29
Q

A young patient with a family history of sudden death collapses and dies while exercising.

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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30
Q

Endocarditis prophylaxis regimens.

A

Oral surgerym amoxicillin; GI or GU proceduresampicillin and gentamicin before and amoxicillin after

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31
Q

The 6 P’s of ischemia due to peripheral vascular disease.

A

Pain pallor pulselessness paralysis paresthesia poikilothermia

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32
Q

Virchow’s triad.

A

Stasis hypercoagulability endothelial damage

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33
Q

The most common cause of hypertension in young women.

A

OCPs

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34
Q

The most common cause of hypertension in young men.

A

Excessive EtOH

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35
Q

Stuck-on appearance.

A

Seborrheic keratosis

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36
Q

Red plaques with silvery-white scales and sharp margins.

A

Psoriasis

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37
Q

The most common type of skin cancer; the lesion is a pearly-colored papule with a translucent surface and telangiectasias.

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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38
Q

Honey-crusted lesions.

A

Impetigo

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39
Q

A febrile patient with a history of diabetes presents with a red swollen painful lower extremity.

A

Cellulitis

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40
Q

+ Nikolsky’s sign.

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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41
Q
  • Nikolsky’s sign.
A

Bullous pemphigoid

42
Q

A 55-year-old obese patient presents with dirty velvety patches on the back of the neck.

A

Acanthosis nigricans. Check fasting blood sugar to rule out diabetes

43
Q

Dermatomal distribution.

A

Varicella zoster

44
Q

Flat-topped papules.

A

Lichen planus

45
Q

Iris-like target lesions.

A

Erythema multiforme

46
Q

A lesion characteristically occurring in a linear pattern in areas where skin comes into contact with clothing or jewelry.

A

Contact dermatitis

47
Q

Presents with a herald patch Christmas-tree pattern.

A

Pityriasis rosea

48
Q

A 16-year-old presents with an annular patch of alopecia with broken-off stubby hairs.

A

Alopecia areata (autoimmune process)

49
Q

Pinkish scaling flat lesions on the chest and back. KOH prep has a spaghetti-and-meatballs appearance.

A

Pityriasis versicolor

50
Q

Four characteristics of a nevus suggestive of melanoma.

A

Asymmetry border irregularity color variation large diameter

51
Q

Premalignant lesion from sun exposure that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma.

A

Actinic keratosis

52
Q

Dewdrop on a rose petal.

A

Lesions of 1Á varicella

53
Q

Cradle cap.

A

Seborrheic dermatitis. Treat with antifungals

54
Q

Associated with Propionibacterium acnes and changes in androgen levels.

A

Acne vulgaris

55
Q

A painful recurrent vesicular eruption of mucocutaneous surfaces.

A

Herpes simplex

56
Q

Inflammation and epithelial thinning of the anogenital area predominantly in postmenopausal women.

A

Lichen sclerosus

57
Q

Exophytic nodules on the skin with varying degrees of scaling or ulceration; the second most common type of skin cancer.

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

58
Q

The most common cause of hypothyroidism.

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

59
Q

Lab findings in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

A

High TSH low T4 antimicrosomal antibodies

60
Q

Exophthalmos pretibial myxedema and dec’d TSH.

A

Graves’ disease

61
Q

The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome.

A

Iatrogenic steroid administration. The second most common cause is Cushing’s disease

62
Q

A patient presents with signs of hypocalcemia high phosphorus and low PTH.

A

Hypoparathyroidism

63
Q

Stones bones groans psychiatric overtones.

A

Signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia

64
Q

A patient complains of headache weakness and polyuria; exam reveals hypertension and tetany. Labs reveals hypernatremia hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

A

1Á hyperaldosteronism (due to Conn’s syndrome or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia)

65
Q

A patient presents with tachycardia wild swings in BP headache diaphoresis altered mental status and a sense of panic.

A

Pheochromocytoma

66
Q

Should alpha- or beta-antagonists be used first in treating pheochromocytoma?

A

alpha-antagonists (phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine)

67
Q

A patient with a history of lithium use presents with copious amounts of dilute urine.

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)

68
Q

Treatment of central DI.

A

Administration of DDAVP decreases serum osmolality and free water restriction

69
Q

A postoperative patient with significant pain presents with hyponatremia and normal volume status.

A

SIADH due to stress

70
Q

An antidiabetic agent associated with lactic acidosis.

A

Metformin

71
Q

A patient presents with weakness nausea vomiting weight loss and new skin pigmentation. Labs show hyponatremia and hyperkalemia. Treatment?

A

1Á adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease). Treat with replacement glucocorticoids mineralocorticoids and IV fluids

72
Q

Goal hemoglobin A1c for a patient with DM.

A

< 7.0

73
Q

Treatment of DKA.

A

Fluids insulin and aggressive replacement of electrolytes (e.g. K+)

74
Q

Why are beta-blockers contraindicated in diabetics?

A

They can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia

75
Q

Bias introduced into a study when a clinician is aware of the patient’s treatment type.

A

Observational bias

76
Q

Bias introduced when screening detects a disease earlier and thus lengthens the time from diagnosis to death.

A

Lead-time bias

77
Q

If you want to know if race affects infant mortality rate but most of the variation in infant mortality is predicted by socioeconomic status then socioeconomic status is a what?

A

Confounding variable

78
Q

The number of true positives divided by the number of patients with the disease is what?

A

Sensitivity

79
Q

Sensitive tests have few false negatives and are used to rule (in or out?) a disease.

A

Out

80
Q

PPD reactivity is used as a screening test because most people with TB (except those who are anergic) will have a +PPD. Highly sensitive or specific?

A

Highly sensitive for TB

81
Q

Chronic diseases such as SLEhigher prevalence or incidence?

A

Higher prevalence

82
Q

Epidemics such as influenzahigher prevalence or incidence?

A

Higher incidence

83
Q

Cross-sectional surveyincidence or prevalence?

A

Prevalence

84
Q

Cohort studyincidence or prevalence?

A

Incidence and prevalence

85
Q

Case-control studyincidence or prevalence?

A

Neither

86
Q

Describe a test that consistently gives identical results but the results are wrong.

A

High reliability low validity

87
Q

Difference between a cohort and a case-control study.

A

Cohort studies can be used to calculate relative risk (RR) incidence and/or odds ratio (OR). Case-control studies can be used to calculate an OR

88
Q

Attributable risk?

A

The incidence rate (IR) of a disease in exposed - the IR of a disease in unexposed

89
Q

Relative risk?

A

The IR of a disease in a population exposed to a particular factor … the IR of those not exposed

90
Q

Odds ratio?

A

The likelihood of a disease among individuals exposed to a risk factor compared to those who have not been exposed

91
Q

Number needed to treat?

A

1 / (rate in untreated group - rate in treated group)

92
Q

In which patients do you initiate colorectal cancer screening early?

A

Patients with IBD; those with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)/hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC); and those who have first-degree relatives with adenomatous polyps (< 60 years of age) or colorectal cancer

93
Q

The most common cancer in men and the most common cause of death from cancer in men.

A

Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men but lung cancer causes more deaths

94
Q

The percentage of cases within one SD of the mean? Two SDs? Three SDs?

A

68% 95.5% 99.7%

95
Q

Birth rate?

A

Number of live births per 1000 population

96
Q

Fertility rate?

A

Number of live births per 1000 women 15-44 years of age

97
Q

Mortality rate?

A

Number of deaths per 1000 population

98
Q

Neonatal mortality?

A

Number of deaths from birth to 28 days per 1000 live births

99
Q

Postnatal mortality?

A

Number of deaths from 28 days to one year per 1000 live births

100
Q

Infant mortality?

A

Number of deaths from birth to one year of age per 1000 live births (neonatal + postnatal mortality)

3rd Year_Step 2 Rapid Review (5 decks)

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