RTC 1//Quiz 1 Flashcards
1
Q
Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:
A
When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
2
Q
A double briefing does not have to contain the following:
A
The autobrake setting to use
3
Q
A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?
A
F/O, first flight or crew change only
4
Q
A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:
A
Circle to land approaches
5
Q
Which of the following is true regarding when a new loadsheet is required for an LMC (Load Instruction Document not available);
A
LMC exceeds 500kg
6
Q
A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:
A
1000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC
7
Q
A runway with more than 25% of its surface area within the required length and width being used, covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a
A
‘Contaminated Runway’
8
Q
According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?
A
If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.
9
Q
After de-icing with a Type IV fluid, if the Holdover Time expires, what should one do?
A
Carry out a pre-takeoff contamination check.
10
Q
After the DAR-01 form has been completed it should:
A
Be clipped on the Captains control column to serve as a reminder to check that holdover time is still valid prior to departure (Pre-Takeoff Check).
11
Q
Airfield classifications in Ryanair are as follows:
A
Category C is the most restrictive category, requiring additional considerations to Category B.
12
Q
In automatic flight, all MCP ALT changes following an ATC instruction shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.
A
The PF resets the MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with the MCP selector and calls ‘SET’ while PM verifies the correct MCP altitude is displayed on the PFD and calls ‘XXX CHECKED’.
13
Q
Appropriate Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections shall be made to any published instrument approach procedure altitudes when these are at or below the corrected MSA whenever;
A
The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.
14
Q
An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing;
A
The Landing gate
15
Q
Under which of the following conditions should both the CPT and FO file an ASR?
A
A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL.
16
Q
In which of the following condition is the usage of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust prohibited?
A
With a crosswind component exceeding 10 knots
17
Q
An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown:
A
At V2 (magenta bug) and 15° bank. The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP. Once above V2+15, bank angle must be increased to 25 degrees.
18
Q
As a tail strike prevention policy, when crosswind component exceeds 10 knots for takeoff:
A
No assume temperature thrust reduction is allowed.
19
Q
As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:
A
Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.
20
Q
As part of the Route Check, the PF will:
A
Call ‘Checked’ and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.
21
Q
Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:
A
Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
22
Q
Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
A
A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.
23
Q
For which of the following approaches are Continuous Descent Approaches (2 operating engines) applicable?
A
All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s
24
Q
Under which conditions may crews plan to fly high speed below FL100?
A
Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC.
25
Cruise altitude speed must be:
At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV
26
Which is the correct roll mode at 400ft during a GA (providing routing is available)?
LNAV
27
Which of the following statements is true regarding a Rejected T/O?
The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO.
28
During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:
The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach
29
During crosswind takeoffs:
The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level.
30
During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?
YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater
31
During low visibility operations, the crew should:
Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off
32
Which statement is true regarding visual approaches conducted during night time?
Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure.
33
During Taxi in and Taxi out...
Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.
34
During taxi in and taxi out...
The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.
35
During the climb above FL100 and after the 'Altimeters' call, the PF will call for the '10 checks' which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:
Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall
36
During the climb, how are the ‘Ten Checks’ performed by the PM?
Performed aloud ‘Fuel, Lights, APU, Pressurisation & Air Con, Seatbelts, Recall'
37
During the Descent and Approach preparation, who is responsible for setting the Vref and the Autobrake setting?
The PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM.
38
During the descent, the '10 checks' are performed aloud by the PM as follows:
Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA ‘10 minutes to landing’
39
During the exterior inspection the PM will:
Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection.
40
During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:
Just prior to closing the L1 door
41
During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate?
For a CAT I approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima
42
During the takeoff roll, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks the engine instruments on the upper DU and any pop-ups on the lower DU. What will be the appropriate callout?
'Takeoff thrust set, indications normal'
43
During your walk around you see a missing security seal. Which of the following statements is true?
The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.
44
May the Electric Hydraulic pumps be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?
Yes
45
Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’...
after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’
46
When are the Start Levers moved to the idle detent during the engine start procedure?
When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25% (or max motoring)
47
Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:
At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits
48
The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:
RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS
49
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Holdover Time?
Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog
50
Which of the following statements is true regarding holding in icing conditions?
Is not permitted with flaps extended.
51
How can you improve the Captains visual ‘cut-off angle’ during low visibility approaches?
Vertical adjusting pilots seat height up, using flap 40, ensuring crosswind from the right if possible
52
For how long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed air source?
1 min
53
How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?
The crewmember who first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and inform the flight crew.
54
How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?
He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase 'No 1 to the flight deck', over the PA.
55
If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?
TCAS
56
If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned,
it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief.
57
If an Autoland proceeds normally after 50 ft, what is the F/O (RHS) callout?
Nothing until the speed brake deploys
58
If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and...
calls ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.
59
If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then:
An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON
60
If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when it is acceptable to accelerate?
at ‘ALT ACQ’
61
If exterior de-icing is required, which of the following crew actions are mandatory?
Flaps UP, thrust levers Idle, Trim the airplane to the calculated takeoff setting, APU and engine BLEED air switches OFF, APU as required
62
If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during the walk around, by which means should it be removed?
By using hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft Engineer only for latter)
63
Which of the following statements is true regarding published Emergency Turn Procedure?
It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.
64
In case of an APU fire, which of the following statements is true?
The PF calls for the memory items.
65
In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100.
Yes, if he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O.
66
In the cruise, if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band, how should you immediately increase the speed?
By reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend
67
What should one do in the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off?
Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC.
68
Which of the following statements is true regarding Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches?
Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA
69
What is the maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway?
5 knots
70
Which of the following statements is true regarding night time circle to land manoeuvres?
Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway.
71
On the ground, prior to switching on the hydraulic pumps, which of the following should be considered?
Personnel are clear of the tow bar or the bypass pin has been installed
72
Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate at?
Final Approach Waypoint
73
During the pre-flight procedure, prior to first flight, who checks the Ships Library?
The PF
74
How is the instrument crosscheck performed during the pre-flight procedure?
The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently
75
Who is responsible for mentioning what the crew will reject the takeoff for during the initial emergency briefing?
The CPT
76
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:
The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as it is possible)
77
What should the F/O call, prior to taxi?
‘Clear right’
78
Regarding re-fuelling supervisor duties, which of the following is true when in Spain and Italy?
First establish contact with the flight deck on aircraft intercom system. You must then remain on the intercom system for the duration of the refuelling and disembarkation/boarding process.
79
Which of the following statements is true regarding the IRS alignment?
A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period.
80
Runway conditions permitting, which is the normal autobrake setting to be used for landing?
The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PI section) or using the OPT.
81
What cool down period do Ryanair and CFM recommend for the engine hot section thermo-stabilisation?
Three minutes
82
Self-manoeuvring at night below the MSA is
Prohibited
83
Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?
Yes
84
The 500 ft call on an ILS approach is:
“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)
85
The After T/O checks are:
Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response
86
The Approach Aids scan flow (FRISC) check is?
Frequencies, Rings, Idents, SBY’s instruments and Courses
87
The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required:
After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.
88
The Autobrake performance is designed to:
To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected deceleration rate
89
The Boeing OPT is:
Is the default performance calculation application
90
The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?
Embarking, disembarking or on board
91
The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is
Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF
92
The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:
The P-18 Panel
93
The company approved minimum RVR for a CAT I approach is?
550/125/75
94
The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?
5nm prior to RWxx
95
The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is?
400ft
96
The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at
500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO Glideslope
97
The First Officer will commence the “Before Takeoff” checks when:
The CPT asks for the “Before Takeoff checklist”
98
The Flight Crew shall give the following to the CSS (Cabin Services Supervisor) prior to departure
One copy of the SEP manual plus the CCI’s (Cabin Crew Instructions)
99
The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:
Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL
100
The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory)
If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD
101
The formula that may be used to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors is:
2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours.
102
The frequency 121.50 MHz must be monitored
On VHF 2 when cleared to cruise level
103
The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left
ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure
104
The initial welcoming PA to passengers:
Should be done by the Captain prior to pushback
105
The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?
Landing configuration only
106
The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:
15 knots
107
The maximum approach speed additive is:
Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts
108
The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA Approach is?
20kts
109
The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:
33 knots
110
The maximum tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?
10 kts
111
The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:
15 kts
112
The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is:
Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data
113
The minimum OIL QTY for dispatch is?
12 LITRES
114
The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:
Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars
115
The NAV lights should be ON:
Whenever AC power is connected to the airplane busses
116
The PF completes the ‘Before Taxi’ scan flow and BLANKS the lower display completely by pushing the MFD
This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure
117
The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which of the following?
Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD’s & SBY instruments
118
The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:
The PM
119
The rudder trim function is checked during?
On all through flights
120
The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust?
Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP’s
121
The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is
“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits’’. This call is to be repeated once
122
The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?
‘V1’
123
The standard FMC fuel cost index is?
As per flight plan
124
The taxi briefing on departure must always include:
A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure
125
The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the Preflight, Instrument Cross Check?
No. It is normally indicating at this point
126
The V1 aural call on take-off must
Be complete by V1
127
The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:
Pilot Monitoring for the next sector
128
The ‘FLT ALT’ Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to?
To the filed level or lower if performance limited or ATC level capped
129
The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?
‘ALT HOLD’, reset MCP altitude, engage ‘LVL CHG’
130
The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?
1000ft
131
The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised
With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC)
132
The ‘Outer Marker’ call on approach is
“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PF challenge) : Altitude Checks, No Flags” (PM response)
133
The “Post Treatment Check” (step 3), as a part of the de -icing/ anti-icing procedure (Ops Manual Part A):
Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check
134
There is a small amount (1.5mm) of CSFF (Cold Soaked Fuel Frost) on top of the wing behind the engine mount. The CSFF is not completely contained within the black painted lines. Which statement is correct?
This is not acceptable for takeoff, remove before departure
135
To achieve the target touchdown speed of Vref:
The PM will call “speed” whenever the speed is more than Vapp +10kts or less than Vref
136
To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?
15 knots
137
To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:
Use the tower reported wind
138
Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?
The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight
139
Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?
400 ft AAL
140
Visual Approaches are
Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1) also applies.
141
What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?
Expected SID plus 100ft
142
What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available?
The met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima
143
What documentation should be retained in the flight envelope at end of duty?
Loadsheets, Operational Flight Plans, Notice to crew for dangerous goods (if any), Company NOTAMS containing Crew alerts and Crew Bulletins, OPT solutions if sent from operations, de-icing documents, SAFA inspection forms
144
What does two-step de-icing mean?
The aeroplane is first de-iced using heated water only or a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the de-icing operation a layer of a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of de-icing/anti-icing fluid only, is to be sprayed over the aeroplane surfaces
145
What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?
No effect
146
What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?
Runway HDG
147
What is meant by 'fail passive' automatic landing system?
In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude
148
What is normal during pushback and engine-start?
The CPT handles ground communications and the PF starts the engines all the time
149
What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?
Reversers Normal
150
What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?
TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up
151
What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?
When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL
152
What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?
1,000 ft AAL
153
What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?
At 158ft or E/D
154
What is the latest point to select flap one (1) on all approach?
10 nm from RW xx point
155
What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?
30 & 40
156
What is the planning minima for destination alternates and enroute alternates?
For NPA (Non Precision Approaches) – NPA minima PLUS 1000m/200ft is required
157
What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after an emergency descent?
“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button
158
What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operations?
‘After Takeoff checklist’
159
What is true after performing a high speed RTO (>80 kts)?
Do not take off again until released by Maintrol
160
What minimum level of fire-fighting equipment do we normally require for the B737 800 series aircraft?
Level 7
161
What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?
Pressurisation is normal
162
What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?
The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW
163
When a crew notices Non Environmental Icing (NEI) on the upper wing surface, which of the following is true?
It might be possible to take off provided you observe and comply with CSFF dispatch relief procedure, otherwise you must deice.
164
When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:
396 nm (427!)
165
When an airplane is anti-iced and a longer holdover time is needed, the crew should consider:
Using a less diluted Type II or Type IV fluid
166
When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?
PF ‘Set STD, passing XXX, climbing XXX’
167
When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?
SET QNH ___, passing XXXX descending XXXX, (No) Flags, Standby Altimeter Set
168
When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to Std. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?
When climbing through MSA
169
When completing the tech log fuel section, what is the standard fuel density used according to RYR procedures?
0.79
170
When conducting a CATIIIA (CAT3a) approach in daytime with a RVR of 400 m, if the TWR reports the TDZ lights have failed. The best course of action is to:
Go around and check the effect on landing minima.
171
When do the pilots need to do a Takeoff Emergency brief?
Each pilot on their first flight of the day as PF
172
When do we have to adjust all published altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections chart on the Winter Ops checklist?
Below corrected MSA when the surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.
173
When does a Ryanair flight declare a fuel “Mayday”?
When the calculated fuel on the arrival will be less than final reserve
174
When flying in severe turbulence:
Do not use ALT HLD, use CWS
175
When hearing the EGPWS ‘minimums’ call on a NPA using V/S with no visual contact having been confirmed:
The PF will push TO/GA and call "Go-around, flap 15" etc.
176
When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low visibility approach?
When Pilot incapacitation is suspected
177
When operating in freezing conditions and taxiing for takeoff on surfaces covered with slush and/or standing water:
Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position
178
When operating the Speedbrake in flight, which pilot selects the Speedbrake?
The PF. He / She also stows it
179
When performing a cross bleed start, when do you disconnect the ground power:
As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4
180
When performing a cross bleed start, where is the information to complete this procedure:
Supplementary procedures SP 7.5
181
When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”
2nm before the nominated descent point
182
When selecting a Takeoff alternate which criteria must be fulfilled?
The T/O alternate must be within 396nm in still air (427!)
183
When should PF “Bug Up” on a normal NADP2 departure?
1,000ft AAL
184
When should the EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS be armed?
As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PF
185
When should the LOGO lights be ON?
At night below FL100
186
When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?
Never, unless following a QRH procedure
187
When starting the engines during cold weather operations, which of the following is not true?
There are no restrictions for cold weather operations
188
When starting the engines, the first step is:
Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption
189
When tankering fuel?
The Lido flight planning system is designed to optimise the use of tanker and will advise the crew of any tanker requirements
190
When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place. Normal procedure requires the flight crew:
To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed
191
Which of the following is true when setting the FMC for a visual approach if no existing procedure exists?
A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold and make this a hard altitude.
192
When will the 'MINIMUMS' aural call not sound?
When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)
193
When will the First Officer commence the after landing items/flow?
When clear of the active runway & taxi instructions have been received, acknowledged, written in FMC scratchpad and understood by both pilots
194
Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight Patterns and Manoeuvres?
Manoeuvres Section in the QRH
195
Where does the Captain record the stab trim setting once calculated?
Loadsheet and FMC scratchpad
196
Where would you find a table to establish the effects on ‘Landing Minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?
Operations Manual Part A, Chapter 8
197
Where would you find the brake-cooling schedule?
QRH Performance Inflight Section (Advisory Information)
198
Which is correct regarding the ICAO approach ban?
An aircraft shall not descent beyond the Outer Marker (OM), or if no OM shall not descend below 1000ft if the RVR/visibility is below limiting value
199
Which is incorrect when you are planning to travel on the jumpseat?
You should board the aircraft first and take any seat
200
Which is our mandatory climb mode after all MCP Altitude / Flight Level changes?
VNAV
201
Which items will the Captain review as part of the Before Takeoff checklist under ‘Takeoff Briefing’?
Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude, ET if required and adverse weather
202
Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland?
F/O: ‘Passing ___radio, flare armed’
203
Which of the following is correct regarding the Emergency Turn (ET) procedure?
Once MFRA has been achieved, the PF calls ‘Bug Up’ and accelerates through flap retraction, then selects level change and MCT unless otherwise stated in the ETP.
204
Which of the following is true regarding Continuous Descent Approaches?
Allowed on a VNAV NPA
205
Which of the following is true regarding the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’?
The ‘Emergency Escape Ropes’ (both) are attached to the flight deck
206
Which of the following statements is not true with regard to takeoff with CSFF on the upper wing surface?
There are no restrictions as long as the CSFF is within the required markings
207
Which pilot calls the OM (challenge) check first?
PF
208
Which position should the ISOLATION valve be in for engine start?
OPEN
209
Which statement is correct if you get a “SINK RATE” GPWS aural CAUTION on approach?
Promptly correct the flight path and continue
210
Which statement is correct with regard to tail-strikes
Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted
211
Which statement is most correct? The runway is wet for departure.
Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable
212
Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches?
The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm
213
Which statement is true regarding Monitored NPA?
At EGPWS call “minimums” with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory
214
Which statement is true regarding operation above the optimum cruise altitude in LNAV?
The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration
215
Which statement is true regarding takeoff flap settings?
A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain
216
Which statement is true regarding the Flight Director:
Flight director cannot be used for guidance during rotation
217
Which statement is true regarding the Loadsheet?
The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited) weight
218
Which statement is true regarding weather related missed approaches?
Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather
219
Which Take Off speeds should be used?
The RTOW/OPT speeds if the FMC speed differs by more than 1 knot
220
Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for engine start?
Position right for operating through a manned maintenance base
221
Whilst flying in RVSM airspace if you have a difference between the Captain’s and F/O’s altimeters of 180ft
You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane’s flight path
222
Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?
PF, during Flight Deck Preparation
223
Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?
The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation
224
Who checks the “Takeoff CONFIG” warning and when?
The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure
225
Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?
PF
226
Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the Final CDU Preflight?
The First Officer
227
Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?
The PF
228
Who gives the ‘Cabin Crew seats for landing’ call?
PM, normally around 6nm from touchdown
229
Wing anti-ice shall be used:
Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid
230
With a two-step de-ice/anti-icing procedure the holdover time begins with the commencement of?
The second (anti-icing) step
231
You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?
5 nm
232
You are operating an aircraft with halogen bulbs fitted. Entering the runway, the Fixed Landing lights are placed ON. When are the Retractable lights turned ON?
Also when entering the runway
233
You are taking off on runway 18. It is reported as “Slippery when wet” with BA 0.40 0.35 0.38. The wind is 140/20G30.
Take-off is allowed and no take-off alternate is needed
