RTC 1//Quiz 1 Flashcards
Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:
When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
A double briefing does not have to contain the following:
The autobrake setting to use
A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?
F/O, first flight or crew change only
A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:
Circle to land approaches
Which of the following is true regarding when a new loadsheet is required for an LMC (Load Instruction Document not available);
LMC exceeds 500kg
A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:
1000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC
A runway with more than 25% of its surface area within the required length and width being used, covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a
‘Contaminated Runway’
According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?
If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.
After de-icing with a Type IV fluid, if the Holdover Time expires, what should one do?
Carry out a pre-takeoff contamination check.
After the DAR-01 form has been completed it should:
Be clipped on the Captains control column to serve as a reminder to check that holdover time is still valid prior to departure (Pre-Takeoff Check).
Airfield classifications in Ryanair are as follows:
Category C is the most restrictive category, requiring additional considerations to Category B.
In automatic flight, all MCP ALT changes following an ATC instruction shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.
The PF resets the MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with the MCP selector and calls ‘SET’ while PM verifies the correct MCP altitude is displayed on the PFD and calls ‘XXX CHECKED’.
Appropriate Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections shall be made to any published instrument approach procedure altitudes when these are at or below the corrected MSA whenever;
The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.
An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing;
The Landing gate
Under which of the following conditions should both the CPT and FO file an ASR?
A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL.
In which of the following condition is the usage of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust prohibited?
With a crosswind component exceeding 10 knots
An ‘Emergency Turn’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown:
At V2 (magenta bug) and 15° bank. The turn does not need to be completed before level acceleration unless specified in the ETP. Once above V2+15, bank angle must be increased to 25 degrees.
As a tail strike prevention policy, when crosswind component exceeds 10 knots for takeoff:
No assume temperature thrust reduction is allowed.
As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:
Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.
As part of the Route Check, the PF will:
Call ‘Checked’ and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.
Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:
Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.
A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.
For which of the following approaches are Continuous Descent Approaches (2 operating engines) applicable?
All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s
Under which conditions may crews plan to fly high speed below FL100?
Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC.
Cruise altitude speed must be:
At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV
Which is the correct roll mode at 400ft during a GA (providing routing is available)?
LNAV
Which of the following statements is true regarding a Rejected T/O?
The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO.
During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:
The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach
During crosswind takeoffs:
The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level.
During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?
YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater
During low visibility operations, the crew should:
Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off
Which statement is true regarding visual approaches conducted during night time?
Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure.
During Taxi in and Taxi out…
Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.
During taxi in and taxi out…
The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.
During the climb above FL100 and after the ‘Altimeters’ call, the PF will call for the ‘10 checks’ which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:
Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall
During the climb, how are the ‘Ten Checks’ performed by the PM?
Performed aloud ‘Fuel, Lights, APU, Pressurisation & Air Con, Seatbelts, Recall’
During the Descent and Approach preparation, who is responsible for setting the Vref and the Autobrake setting?
The PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM.
During the descent, the ‘10 checks’ are performed aloud by the PM as follows:
Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA ‘10 minutes to landing’
During the exterior inspection the PM will:
Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection.
During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:
Just prior to closing the L1 door
During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate?
For a CAT I approach, use Non-precision RVR / Visibility and ceiling minima
During the takeoff roll, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks the engine instruments on the upper DU and any pop-ups on the lower DU. What will be the appropriate callout?
‘Takeoff thrust set, indications normal’
During your walk around you see a missing security seal. Which of the following statements is true?
The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.
May the Electric Hydraulic pumps be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?
Yes
Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’…
after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’
When are the Start Levers moved to the idle detent during the engine start procedure?
When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25% (or max motoring)
Flight crews, during a climb out, will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:
At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits
The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:
RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS
Which of the following statements is true regarding the Holdover Time?
Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog
Which of the following statements is true regarding holding in icing conditions?
Is not permitted with flaps extended.
How can you improve the Captains visual ‘cut-off angle’ during low visibility approaches?
Vertical adjusting pilots seat height up, using flap 40, ensuring crosswind from the right if possible
For how long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed air source?
1 min
How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?
The crewmember who first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and inform the flight crew.
How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?
He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase ‘No 1 to the flight deck’, over the PA.
If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?
TCAS
If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned,
it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief.
If an Autoland proceeds normally after 50 ft, what is the F/O (RHS) callout?
Nothing until the speed brake deploys
If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and…
calls ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.
If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then:
An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON
If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when it is acceptable to accelerate?
at ‘ALT ACQ’
If exterior de-icing is required, which of the following crew actions are mandatory?
Flaps UP, thrust levers Idle, Trim the airplane to the calculated takeoff setting, APU and engine BLEED air switches OFF, APU as required
If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during the walk around, by which means should it be removed?
By using hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft Engineer only for latter)
Which of the following statements is true regarding published Emergency Turn Procedure?
It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.
In case of an APU fire, which of the following statements is true?
The PF calls for the memory items.
In relation to the centre tank fuel pumps, the Captain may elect to leave the centre pump switches off for T/O until passing FL 100.
Yes, if he deems that the amount of fuel in the centre tanks is insufficient (453kgs) to keep the fuel low-pressure lights out during T/O.
In the cruise, if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band, how should you immediately increase the speed?
By reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend
What should one do in the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off?
Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches?
Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA
What is the maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway?
5 knots
Which of the following statements is true regarding night time circle to land manoeuvres?
Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway.
On the ground, prior to switching on the hydraulic pumps, which of the following should be considered?
Personnel are clear of the tow bar or the bypass pin has been installed
Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate at?
Final Approach Waypoint
During the pre-flight procedure, prior to first flight, who checks the Ships Library?
The PF
How is the instrument crosscheck performed during the pre-flight procedure?
The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently
Who is responsible for mentioning what the crew will reject the takeoff for during the initial emergency briefing?
The CPT
Prior to crossing or entering a runway, either active or not active, crews must make a ‘Two Phase Call’ (inter cockpit). This ‘Two Phase Call’ requires the Captain to establish with the RHS pilot that:
The runway may be entered or crossed & the approach is checked clear both directions (as much as it is possible)
What should the F/O call, prior to taxi?
‘Clear right’
Regarding re-fuelling supervisor duties, which of the following is true when in Spain and Italy?
First establish contact with the flight deck on aircraft intercom system. You must then remain on the intercom system for the duration of the refuelling and disembarkation/boarding process.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the IRS alignment?
A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period.
Runway conditions permitting, which is the normal autobrake setting to be used for landing?
The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PI section) or using the OPT.
What cool down period do Ryanair and CFM recommend for the engine hot section thermo-stabilisation?
Three minutes
Self-manoeuvring at night below the MSA is
Prohibited
Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?
Yes
The 500 ft call on an ILS approach is:
“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)
The After T/O checks are:
Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response
The Approach Aids scan flow (FRISC) check is?
Frequencies, Rings, Idents, SBY’s instruments and Courses
The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required:
After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand.
The Autobrake performance is designed to:
To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected deceleration rate
The Boeing OPT is:
Is the default performance calculation application
The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?
Embarking, disembarking or on board
The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is
Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF
The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:
The P-18 Panel
The company approved minimum RVR for a CAT I approach is?
550/125/75
