RTC 1/2/3 Flashcards
Ryanair and CFM recommend a cool down period for the engine hot section thermo-stabilisation of?
3 minutes
If a SID requires a 3000ft QNH level off it is acceptable to ‘Bug Up’ when?
ALT ACQ
Correct maneuver for a TCAS RA
If maneuvering is required disengage autopilot and Autothrottle and follow the correct maneuver as depicted on the PFD
The CB controlling the ‘Take off Configuration Warning’ is located where?
Behind the FO’s seat, next to fire extinguisher
The minimum oil quantity for dispatch is?
12 quarts
What items will captain review as part of the before takeoff checklist under ‘takeoff briefing’
Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID initial turn, STOP altitude, PRNAV departure.
The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VNAV NPA is?
VMC: 4nm
How long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed source?
1 minute
The start lever should be moved to the start detent when?
N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25%
The correct FMC sequence when briefing SID is?
INIT/REF - confirm transition altitude
RTE Page 1 - confirm selected runway
RTE Page 2 - confirm SID then brief from legs page
Max taxi speed on the Apron is?
15 Knots
What do we monitor on takeoff roll when set take off thrust is called?
N1 against Target Value
EGT’s for exceedance
And calls, ‘takeoff thrust set indications normal’
The enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500 aural call when?
500 feet radio altitude on an approach with no glideslope
Night time circle to land approaches are permitted when?
A visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway
It is policy to fly a low drag approach when?
Visibility > 5000m
Cloud base > 1000 feet
Subject to ATC
