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Fall > RT 411 Final > Flashcards

RT 411 Final Flashcards

1
Q

Over the past 50 years, the incidence of lung cancer in women has:

A

Increased

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2
Q

What is the estimated number of lung cancer cases diagnosed each year?

A

224,000

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3
Q

Aside from smoking, what are risk factors associated with lung cancer?

A

Chemical exposure (Radon), work environment, secondary smoke exposure

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4
Q

What is the histology of lung cancer linked to smoking?

A

Squamous Cell

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5
Q

List 4 tests that would beneficial for lung cancer staging

A

Chest x Ray, brain MRI, pleural tap, core biopsy

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6
Q

what are common signs and symptoms of lung cancer?

A

Dyspnea, hemoptysis, chest pain

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7
Q

Why might lung cancer cause hoarseness?

A

Tumor pressing on the left recurrent laryngeal nerve

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8
Q

what are the subtypes of NSCLC

A

Squamous cell, adenocarcinoma, and large cell

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9
Q

What are rumors located in the apex of the lung called?

A

Pancoast tumor or a superior sulcus

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10
Q

What is true about small cell lung cancer?

A

Likely to spread to the brain and commonly found in the central lung region

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11
Q

Common sites for lung Mets

A

Brain, adrenal and liver

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12
Q

When local extension occurs, lung cancer tumors can be seen in:

A

Parts of the lungs and ribs

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13
Q

Surgical resection is likely to be the treatment of choice for which operable lung tumor?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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14
Q

Why is it important to evaluate the dvh for lung cancer?

A

Help minimize normal tissue complications, see the percentage of dose the volume of OAR receives, the data can suggest when to spare normal tissue so it doesn’t exceed dose limit and will allow the doctor to predict the endpoint to surrounding organs

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15
Q

What tumor marker is used to aid in the diagnosis of testicular cancer?

A

AFP

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16
Q

For carcinomas if the bladder, how is the initial tissue diagnosis made made

A

Cystoscopy

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17
Q

Most common histology for testicular cancer

A

Germ cell

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18
Q

Most common histology of bladder cancer

A

Transitional cell

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19
Q

Bladder cancer spread via direct extension into the

A

Bladder wall

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20
Q

What lymph nodes are most likely to be treated for testicular cancer?

A

Para aortic

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21
Q

What are the common sites for spread of bladder cancer?

A

Lung and bone

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22
Q

Which lymph node chains are most common for drainage of bladder cancer?

A

External and internal iliac, pre sacral

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23
Q

What is the primary treatment modality for bladder cancer?

A

Surgery

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24
Q

Standard of care for for the first line of treatment for testicular cancer is

A

Orchiectomy

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25
Q

The loader is boosted to what dose in a curative setting?

A

65 Gy

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26
Q

A stage 1 seminoma has a 5 yr survival of

A

97%

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27
Q

What is a common acute toxicity for RT for seminoma?

A

Kidney failure

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28
Q

What disease is renal cancer associated with?

A

Von hipple-Lindau disease

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29
Q

What are the risk factors for breast cancer?

A

Early menarche, nulliparous, previous radiation to the chest

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30
Q

What is the difference between in situ and invasive breast cance?

A

In situ has not broken through the basement membrane

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31
Q

What is the most common breast cancer histology?

A

Infiltrating ductals carcinoma

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32
Q

A mass located in the lower inner quadrant of the breast drains to which lymph nodes?

A

Internal mammary lymph nodes

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33
Q

Describe the location of the level 1-3 axillary lymph nodes

A

I-III move from the axillary top toward the clavicle with I being in/around the axilla, just inferior to the pectoralis muscle and level III being most superior and on the pectoralis muscle

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34
Q

what are the most common metastatic sites for breast cancer?

A

Bone, lung, brain

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35
Q

What is used if Her2Neu is amplified

A

Herceptin

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36
Q

What is the primary treatment for breast cancer?

A

Mastectomy or lumpectomy+RT

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37
Q

What treatment modalities are used for the management of breast cancer?

A

Hormonal treatment, chemo, surgery

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38
Q

What treatment modalities are used for the management of breast cancer?

A

Hormonal treatment, chemo, surgery

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39
Q

At what approx. dose would an electron boost be prescribed for?

A

10-15 Gy

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40
Q

What are the borders for a breast tangent field?

A

2 cm sup and inf of breast tissue, medially to the sternum and laterally to the axilla line or 2cm past breast tissue

41
Q

What is the total dose delivered to a whole breast without a boost?

A

45-50 Gy

42
Q

What field is used to increase the dose to the level III axillary nodes?

A

PAB, posterior axillary boost

43
Q

What is the benefit of using a wedge when treating tangential breast?

A

avoid hot spots

44
Q

When are electrons used for breast treatments?

A

Scar boost, IMC fields

45
Q

At what dose is dry desquamation most likely to occur?

A

30-40 Gy

46
Q

In which ethnicity is there a high prevalence of nasopharyngeal cancer?

A

Chinese

47
Q

In which ethnicity is there a high prevalence of nasopharyngeal cancer?

A

Chinese

48
Q

What virus is associated with nasopharynx cancer?

A

EBV

49
Q

What is used for the detection/diagnosis of H and N cancer?

A

Laryngoscopy, H&P, swallow study

50
Q

Level I lymphatic chain

A

Sub mental

51
Q

Level II lymphatic chain

A

Sub mandibular

52
Q

Level III lymphatic chain

A

Mid cervical

53
Q

Level V lymphatic chain

A

Posterior cervical

54
Q

Level VII lymphatic chain

A

Lymphatic around the SSN

55
Q

Level VII lymphatic chain

A

Lymphatic around the SSN

56
Q

What is the primary tumor location that would drain to the jugulodigastric node?

A

Most common lymph node in head and neck cancer

57
Q

What is the primary tumor location that would drain to the retropharyngeal node?

A

nasopharyngeal

58
Q

What is the primary tumor location that would drain to the submental node?

A

tip of tongue

59
Q

What is the primary tumor location that would drain to the submental node?

A

tip of tongue

60
Q

What structures are removed in a radical neck dissection

A

Salivary glands, lymph nodes, sternocleidomastoid muscle

61
Q

What is a treatment option for advanced head and neck tumors?

A

Treated with surgery followed by concurrent chemoradiation

62
Q

What is a treatment option for early head and neck tumors?

A

surgery or radiation alone

63
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor in had and neck cancers?

A

involvement of nodes

64
Q

Osteoradionecrosis

A

Treating through the mandible and weakening it so it is more likely to break

65
Q

What dose erythema occur?

A

20-30 Gy

66
Q

what dose does skin necrosis start?

A

> 60 Gy

67
Q

what dose does temporary alopecia start?

A

20 Gy

68
Q

what dose does permanent alopecia start?

A

43 Gy

69
Q

what dose do most mouth changes occur and which one is different

A

20- 30 Gy except laryngitis which starts at 40 Gy

70
Q

what dose does nausea and vomiting start?

A

10-20 Gy

71
Q

what dose does diarrhea start?

A

20-50 Gy

72
Q

what dose does cystitis start?

A

30-40 Gy

73
Q

Normal WBC

A

5,000 - 10,000

74
Q

Platelets

A

200,000 - 500,000

75
Q

Hemoglobin

A

12-16

76
Q

Hematocrit

A

36-54%

77
Q

About how many new cases of primary CNS are diagnosed each year?

A

23,000

78
Q

Most adult brain tumors are located in the

A

cerebrum

79
Q

Risk factors for brain tumor

A

p53 mutation, chemical exposure

80
Q

Intracranial pressure (ICP) symptoms of CNS tumors

A

Headaches, visual changes, nausea

81
Q

Focal symptoms of CNS tumors

A

Seizures, imbalance, weakness, speech problems

82
Q

What modality is best for brain and spinal tissue?

A

MRI

83
Q

What is another name for GBM?

A

High grade astrocytoma

84
Q

Histology for brain tumors

A

GBM, medulloblastoma, meningioma

85
Q

What are the lymphatics of the brain?

A

none

86
Q

How do brain tumors typical spread?

A

Local invasion, CSF

87
Q

Craniospinal fields must include

A

all tissue bathed in CSF

88
Q

If you need to treat the spine with 2 fields it is preferred to match at or below what vertebral body?

A

L2

89
Q

Prognostic factors for primary brain tumors

A

Age and KPS

90
Q

Order GYN malignancies in order from most common to least common

A

Endometrial, ovarian, cervical, vaginal

91
Q

colposcopy

A

procedure to closely examine the cervix, vagina and vulva for signs of disease

92
Q

CA 125 is a tumor marker for

A

Ovarian and endometrial/uterine

93
Q

what is D&C

A

Dilation and curettage - remove tissue from inside of the uterus for diagnostic purposes

94
Q

what staging is used for GYN cancers?

A

FIGO

95
Q

Most epithelial cells are of what cell origin?

A

Epithelial

96
Q

ovarian cancer seeds in the ___ cavity

A

peritoneal

97
Q

What chemotherapy is used concurrently with cervical cancer treatment?

A

Platinum based chemo

98
Q

What type of brachytherapy applicator is used for treatment of vaginal cancer?

A

cylinder

Fall (6 decks)

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