RPS MOCK 2024 Flashcards

1
Q

Dose of frequency in H.pylori

A

BD

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2
Q

Which is more effective at preventing pregnancy CU-IUD or ulipristal?

A

CU-IUD

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3
Q

If pt has regular periods of 29 days and is on day 21 and had unprotected sex the day before is she at risk of pregnancy?

A

Yes, she is at post-ovulation stage

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4
Q

order of constipation pregnancy tx

A

1) lifestyle advice
2) isphaghula husk (bulk-forming)
3) lactulose (osmotic)
4) senna (stimulant)

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5
Q

paracetamol overdosing tx?

A

acetylcysteine

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6
Q

aspirin overdosing tx?

A

activated charcoal

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7
Q

CO poisoing tx?

A

high flow oxygen

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8
Q

CD overdosing tx?

A

naloxone

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9
Q

malignant hyperthermia tx?

A

dantrolene sodium

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10
Q

what is the revalidation framework for pharmacists

A

4 CPD entries (at least 2 planned), 1 peer review and 1 reflective account

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11
Q

if pt has 5.7 k+ and BP = 135/85 is on
- lisinopril 20mg OD
- furosemide 40mg BD
- spironolactone 50mg OD
WHAT DO YOU DO?

A

REDUCE sprionolactone to 25mg OD and recheck K+ + BP in ONE week
- BP level is good so no need to reduce ACEI

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12
Q

antidiabetic CI in hernia

A

acarbose

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13
Q

Which one of the following is most likely to require a doxorubicin dose reduction?

  • alopecia
  • constipation
  • elevated bilirubin
  • pt = IV tracrolimus
  • respiratory depression
A

elevated bilirubin

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14
Q

which laxative does mesalazine interact with

A

lactulose

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15
Q

A 54-year-old man visits his GP with acute back pain. He has a family history of cardiovascular disease, has a BMI of 30 kg/m2, and smokes 20 cigarettes per day. His GP would like to prescribe a medicine to manage his pain and asks for your advice.

Which one of the following medicines would be most appropriate for this patient?

  • celecoxib
  • diclofenac
  • etoricoxib
  • naproxen
A

Naproxen (1 g daily) is associated with a lower thrombotic risk, and low doses of ibuprofen (1.2 g daily or less) have not been associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. COX-2 inhibitors, diclofenac and high dose ibuprofen are associated with increased CVD risk.

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16
Q

which drugs causes neutropenia and should be avoided in acute pancreatitis

A

carbimazole

17
Q

which drug used to tx overactive bladder requires A 62-year-old man informs you he has been prescribed a new medicine for his overactive bladder that requires close blood pressure monitoring.

Which of the following medicines has most likely been prescribed for the patient?

finasteride
mirabegron
oxybutynin
propiverine
solifenacin

A

mirabegron

18
Q

HbA1c, fasting plasma glucose level and random plasma glucose level for type 2 diabetes diagnoses in adults

A
  • HbA1c of 48+ mmol/mol (6.5%)
  • fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0+ mmol/L
  • random plasma glucose of 11.1+ mmol/L
19
Q

when is metformin is only effective?

A

in the presence of insulin

20
Q

00 out of 1.00
Flag question
A 62-year-old woman was admitted to your cardiac ward one day ago with a potential chest infection and irregular heartbeat.

She is on the following medication at home:

  • Trimethoprim 50 mg once daily at night
  • Amlodipine 5 mg once daily
  • Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
  • Paracetamol 1 gram four times daily
  • Ibuprofen gel 5% used when required.

Her Potassium is 5.5 (3.6 - 5.2 mmol/L)
WHICH DRUG CAUSED IT?
- amlodipine
- ibuprofen gel
- paracetamol
- simvastatin
- trimethoprim

A

Trimethoprim is the most likely medication that may have caused this

21
Q

Which antibiotics is CI in G6PD deficiency anaemia

A

nitrofurantonin

22
Q

how long is GTN patch applied for

A

The GTN patch remains on the skin for only 12-14 hours and then removed. It is not replaced every 12-14 hours. The patient needs a nitrate free period to prevent tolerance occurring.

The correct answer is: apply the patch to the side of the chest for 12-14 hours and then remove. The patch may also be applied to the upper arm, abdomen, or shoulder.

23
Q

how long does it take for ear infections to resolve on its own

A

72 hours

24
Q
A
25
Q

is QVAR and CLENIL bioequivalent

A

no

26
Q

Which anti-infective is most likely to reduce the efficacy of desogestrel contraception?

  • aciclovir
  • amoxicillin
  • ciprofloxacin
  • clarithromycin
  • ethambutol
  • miconazole
  • rifampicin
  • terbinafine
A

rifampicin

27
Q

which anti-infective interacts with simvastatin 20mg
aciclovir
- amoxicillin
- ciprofloxacin
- clarithromycin
- ethambutol
- miconazole
- rifampicin
- terbinafine

A

clarithyromycin

28
Q

daily supplement dose of vitamin D for breastfed babies

A

Babies from birth to 1 year of age who are being breastfed should be given a daily supplement of 8.5-10 mcg of vitamin D.

29
Q

common s.e of finasteride

A

sexual dysfunction

30
Q

common s.e of tamusolin

A

sexual dysfunction

31
Q

nephrotoxic drugs?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • ACEi
  • ARB
  • diuretic
32
Q

difference between lyme disease and ringworm

A
  • lyme = caused by tick has bull eye centre
  • ringworm = spread via infected person/animal or object
33
Q

tx of chest infection antibiotics

A
  • amox
  • doxy (AVOID in children give azithroymcin if PA)
  • clarithy (avoid if simvastatin)
34
Q

which drugs do you PAUSE during sick days

A
  • ACEi + ARBs
  • spironoloctone/elpernone
  • diuretics
  • SGLT2i - glifozibs
  • sacubitril/valsartan