RPS MOCK 2024

Question 1

Dose of frequency in H.pylori

Answer 1

BD

Question 2

Which is more effective at preventing pregnancy CU-IUD or ulipristal?

Answer 2

CU-IUD

Question 3

If pt has regular periods of 29 days and is on day 21 and had unprotected sex the day before is she at risk of pregnancy?

Answer 3

Yes, she is at post-ovulation stage

Question 4

order of constipation pregnancy tx

Answer 4

1) lifestyle advice
2) isphaghula husk (bulk-forming)
3) lactulose (osmotic)
4) senna (stimulant)

Question 5

paracetamol overdosing tx?

Answer 5

acetylcysteine

Question 6

aspirin overdosing tx?

Answer 6

activated charcoal

Question 7

CO poisoing tx?

Answer 7

high flow oxygen

Question 8

CD overdosing tx?

Answer 8

naloxone

Question 9

malignant hyperthermia tx?

Answer 9

dantrolene sodium

Question 10

what is the revalidation framework for pharmacists

Answer 10

4 CPD entries (at least 2 planned), 1 peer review and 1 reflective account

Question 11

if pt has 5.7 k+ and BP = 135/85 is on
- lisinopril 20mg OD
- furosemide 40mg BD
- spironolactone 50mg OD
WHAT DO YOU DO?

Answer 11

REDUCE sprionolactone to 25mg OD and recheck K+ + BP in ONE week
- BP level is good so no need to reduce ACEI

Question 12

antidiabetic CI in hernia

Answer 12

acarbose

Question 13

Which one of the following is most likely to require a doxorubicin dose reduction?

• alopecia
• constipation
• elevated bilirubin
• pt = IV tracrolimus
• respiratory depression

Answer 13

elevated bilirubin

Question 14

which laxative does mesalazine interact with

Answer 14

lactulose

Question 15

A 54-year-old man visits his GP with acute back pain. He has a family history of cardiovascular disease, has a BMI of 30 kg/m2, and smokes 20 cigarettes per day. His GP would like to prescribe a medicine to manage his pain and asks for your advice.

Which one of the following medicines would be most appropriate for this patient?

• celecoxib
• diclofenac
• etoricoxib
• naproxen

Answer 15

Naproxen (1 g daily) is associated with a lower thrombotic risk, and low doses of ibuprofen (1.2 g daily or less) have not been associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. COX-2 inhibitors, diclofenac and high dose ibuprofen are associated with increased CVD risk.

Question 16

which drugs causes neutropenia and should be avoided in acute pancreatitis

Answer 16

carbimazole

Question 17

which drug used to tx overactive bladder requires A 62-year-old man informs you he has been prescribed a new medicine for his overactive bladder that requires close blood pressure monitoring.

Which of the following medicines has most likely been prescribed for the patient?

finasteride
mirabegron
oxybutynin
propiverine
solifenacin

Answer 17

mirabegron

Question 18

HbA1c, fasting plasma glucose level and random plasma glucose level for type 2 diabetes diagnoses in adults

Answer 18

• HbA1c of 48+ mmol/mol (6.5%)
• fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0+ mmol/L
• random plasma glucose of 11.1+ mmol/L

Question 19

when is metformin is only effective?

Answer 19

in the presence of insulin

Question 20

00 out of 1.00
Flag question
A 62-year-old woman was admitted to your cardiac ward one day ago with a potential chest infection and irregular heartbeat.

She is on the following medication at home:

• Trimethoprim 50 mg once daily at night
• Amlodipine 5 mg once daily
• Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
• Paracetamol 1 gram four times daily
• Ibuprofen gel 5% used when required.

Her Potassium is 5.5 (3.6 - 5.2 mmol/L)
WHICH DRUG CAUSED IT?
- amlodipine
- ibuprofen gel
- paracetamol
- simvastatin
- trimethoprim

Answer 20

Trimethoprim is the most likely medication that may have caused this

Question 21

Which antibiotics is CI in G6PD deficiency anaemia

Answer 21

nitrofurantonin

Question 22

how long is GTN patch applied for

Answer 22

The GTN patch remains on the skin for only 12-14 hours and then removed. It is not replaced every 12-14 hours. The patient needs a nitrate free period to prevent tolerance occurring.

The correct answer is: apply the patch to the side of the chest for 12-14 hours and then remove. The patch may also be applied to the upper arm, abdomen, or shoulder.

Question 23

how long does it take for ear infections to resolve on its own

Answer 23

72 hours

Question 25

is QVAR and CLENIL bioequivalent

Answer 25

no

Question 26

Which anti-infective is most likely to reduce the efficacy of desogestrel contraception?

• aciclovir
• amoxicillin
• ciprofloxacin
• clarithromycin
• ethambutol
• miconazole
• rifampicin
• terbinafine

Answer 26

rifampicin

Question 27

which anti-infective interacts with simvastatin 20mg
aciclovir
- amoxicillin
- ciprofloxacin
- clarithromycin
- ethambutol
- miconazole
- rifampicin
- terbinafine

Answer 27

clarithyromycin

Question 28

daily supplement dose of vitamin D for breastfed babies

Answer 28

Babies from birth to 1 year of age who are being breastfed should be given a daily supplement of 8.5-10 mcg of vitamin D.

Question 29

common s.e of finasteride

Answer 29

sexual dysfunction

Question 30

common s.e of tamusolin

Answer 30

sexual dysfunction

Question 31

nephrotoxic drugs?

Answer 31

• NSAIDs
• ACEi
• ARB
• diuretic

Question 32

difference between lyme disease and ringworm

Answer 32

• lyme = caused by tick has bull eye centre
• ringworm = spread via infected person/animal or object

Question 33

tx of chest infection antibiotics

Answer 33

• amox
• doxy (AVOID in children give azithroymcin if PA)
• clarithy (avoid if simvastatin)

Question 34

which drugs do you PAUSE during sick days

Answer 34

• ACEi + ARBs
• spironoloctone/elpernone
• diuretics
• SGLT2i - glifozibs
• sacubitril/valsartan