RPA2 Module 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the single most important risk affecting the price movements of common stocks?

A

market risk.

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2
Q

Describe what characterizes an investment decision.

A

(1) asset allocation
(2) security selection.

.

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3
Q

What is a passive investment management strategy, and what does it seek to
accomplish?

A

Passive strategies simply aim to do as well as the market.

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4
Q

What is the relationship between a passive investment strategy for common stocks and (a) the efficiency of markets, (b) the return objective and (c) transaction costs?

A

(a) If the market is totally efficient, no active strategy should be able to beat the market on a risk-adjusted basis. The greater the efficiency of the market, the greater the merit of passive investing.
(b) The investment objective of a passive strategy is to simply do as well as the market.
(c) With a passive strategy, the goal is to minimize transaction costs because the benefits of active trading are not likely to be worthwhile.

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5
Q

With a buy-and-hold strategy, does an investor have to perform any functions
after the stocks are selected?

A

The emphasis is on avoiding transaction costs, taxable transactions, additional search costs, the time commitment to portfolio management.

Even with a buy-and-hold strategy, an investor has to perform certain functions such as dealing with dividends (whether to reinvest them in other securities) and adjusting the portfolio for risk considerations.

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6
Q

What is an index fund?

A

An index fund is a pool of assets designed to duplicate as nearly as possible the performance of some market index.

A stock index fund may consist of all the stocks in a well-known market average such as Standard & Poor’s 500 Composite Stock Index (S&P 500).

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7
Q

Explain the tax efficiency of index funds.

A

A significant advantage of index funds is their tax efficiency. Index funds basically buy and hold, selling shares only when necessary. Actively managed funds, on the other hand, do more frequent trading and tend to generate larger tax bills, some of which may be short-term gains taxable at ordinary income tax rates.

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8
Q

What is an enhanced index fund?

A

index funds that are tweaked

For example, an enhanced fund tracking the Standard & Poor’s (S&P) 500 could have the same industry sector weightings as the S&P 500 but hold somewhat different stocks, perhaps with lower price/earnings (P/E) ratios.

Or an enhanced fund can use futures and options to hold the S&P 500 and invest the remainder of the funds in bonds or other securities. The theory is that the manager can, by tweaking the fund slightly, outperform the index

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9
Q

What is the rationale for adopting a passive management investment strategy that utilizes index funds?

A

According to reputable market observers, on average the typical actively managed fund underperforms the index by about 2% annually.

The rationale for this underperformance can be attributed to the following factors:

(a) Securities markets are extremely efficient in digesting information.
(b) Indexing is cost-efficient, with expenses much lower than actively managed funds.

(c) Actively managed funds incur heavy trading expenses. Trading costs can
amount to 0.5% to 1.0% per year in additional expenses.

(d) Indexing has a tax advantage, deferring the realization of capital gains

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10
Q

Discuss how equity index funds have performed over time relative to actively
managed equity mutual funds.

A

According to Morningstar, the mutual fund tracking company, for the five-year
period ending in 2010, passive equity index funds outperformed active funds within each asset class, except for one, when results were adjusted for survivorship bias.

Balanced funds showed the most pronounced level of outperformance while
international funds were the lone category where active funds outperformed passive funds.

According to S&P, over a recent five-year period, 75% of actively managed
mutual funds failed to outperform the market.

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11
Q

Describe the underlying assumption of an active investment management strategy and the most likely form that such a strategy takes.

A

An active management strategy assumes (implicitly or explicitly) that investors
possess some advantage relative to other market participants. The most traditional and popular form of active stock strategies is the selection of individual stocks.

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12
Q

What sources of information do analysts use in evaluating common stocks?

A

Presentations from the top management of the companies being considered

Annual reports

Form 10-K

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13
Q

What can be said about the quality of analysts’ earnings per share forecasting?

A

Analysts spend much of their time forecasting earnings. Regardless of the effort expended by analysts, investors should be cautious in accepting analysts’ forecasts of earnings per share (EPS). The forecasts for long-term EPS are typically overly optimistic. Errors can be large and occur often.

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14
Q

Describe the investment strategy that involves shifting among cyclicals, growth and value stocks..

A

Such a strategy is known as sector rotation. Investors can pursue the sector investing approach using what are called sector mutual funds, or sector exchange-traded funds (ETFs).

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15
Q

How successful is market timing? Explain.

A

Much of the empirical evidence on market timing comes from studies of mutual funds. Several studies found no evidence that funds were able to time market changes and change their risk levels in response. (Also, market timing often involves high brokerage commissions and taxes.)

The biggest risk of market timing is that investors will not be in the market at critical times. Investors who miss only a few key months may suffer significantly.

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16
Q

According to the efficient market hypothesis or concept, what is the primary factor in determining stock prices?

A

information.

17
Q

Explain the concept of an efficient market. .

A

An efficient market is one in which the prices of all securities quickly and fully reflect all available information about the assets.

The current stock price reflects all known information and all information that can be reasonably inferred.

A market is efficient relative to any information set if investors are unable to earn abnormal profits (returns beyond those warranted by the amount of risk assumed) by using that information set in their investing decisions.

18
Q

List the four conditions necessary for an efficient market.

A

The four conditions necessary for an efficient market are:

(1) A large number of rational, profit-maximizing investors who are price takers;
that is, one person alone cannot affect the price of a stock.

(2) Information is costless and widely available to market participants at about the same time.
(3) Information is generated in a random fashion.
(4) Investors react quickly and fully to new information.

19
Q

Explain why abnormal returns are not possible if the market is perfectly efficient.

A

In a perfectly efficient market, stock prices always reflect immediately all available information.

Every security’s price is equal to its intrinsic value. This means investors
cannot use new information to earn abnormal returns because available information is already impounded in stock prices.

20
Q

The efficient market hypothesis has three cumulative forms. Define each of these.

A

(1) The Weak Form - Above-average profits should not be expected by studying past stock prices and volume data.

(2) The Semistrong Form - Concerned with all publicly available
information.

(3) The Strong Form - Stock prices reflect all information, public and
nonpublic. This form goes beyond the semistrong form in considering the value of information contained in announcements.

21
Q

Briefly describe two ways to test for weak-form efficiency.

A

Statistically test the independence of stock price changes. In other words, if trends (patterns) in stock prices do not exist, the market has (at least) weak-form efficiency.

Test specific trading rules that use past stock price and volume data. If such trading rules produce risk-adjusted returns beyond that of simply buying and
holding, after deducting costs, the market would not be efficient—even in a weak form.

22
Q

What are event studies, and how are they utilized in testing for market efficiency?

A

Studies of stock returns to determine the impact of a particular event on the stock price are known as event studies. These studies allow researchers to control aggregate market returns while firm-unique events are examined.

23
Q

How does SEC regulate insider trading?

A

SEC requires insiders (officers, directors and owners of more than 10% of a
company’s stock) to report their monthly purchase or sale transactions to SEC within two business days except when SEC may determine that the two-day period is not feasible. This information is then made public.

Though insiders previously were required to report their prior monthly transactions by the tenth of the following month, reporting to SEC was changed to two business days by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.

Several studies have indicated that corporate insiders consistently earned abnormal (excess) investment returns on their stocks. These investors substantially outperformed the market when they made large trades. Nevertheless, investors should be aware that, for a variety of reasons, insider transactions can be very misleading or simply of no value as an indicator of where a company’s stock price is likely to go. Subsequent research has disputed some of these findings after deducting transaction costs and adjusting for differences in firm size and price multiples

24
Q

What are market anomalies, and why is their study important when considering market efficiency?

A

Market anomalies are in contrast to what would be expected in a totally efficient market and constitute exceptions to market efficiency.

Therefore, their study is important when considering market efficiency to determine how pervasive such anomalies are and whether they are exceptions or whether the market under study is less efficient than believed.

25
Q

What is the P/E ratio anomaly?

A

There is some evidence that securities with low P/E ratios have provided positive excess returns.

26
Q

What are (a) the size effect and (b) the January effect anomalies?

A

(a) The size effect is the observed tendency for smaller firms to have higher positive abnormal stock returns than large firms.
(b) The January effect is the observed tendency for small company stock returns to be higher in January than in other months.

27
Q

The Value Line Investment Survey, which is the largest and perhaps the best known investment advisory service in the country, has had a very strong performance in its rankings. Why couldn’t an investor realize excess returns by following its rankings?

A

The Value Line Investment Survey rankings and changes in the rankings do contain useful information. However, there is evidence that the market adjusts quickly to this information (one or two trading days following the Friday release) and that true transaction costs can negate much of the price changes that occur as a result of adjustments to this information.

28
Q

What is data mining?

A

Data mining refers to the search for patterns in security returns by examining
various techniques applied to a set of data. In most cases, the patterns do not stand up to independent scrutiny or application to a different set of data or time period.