Rotations 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Ante-mortem inspection at what point need to occur and how

A

○ Performed via the vet at maximum 24 hours before slaughter in a group setting, not individual examination mainly a herd level issue. If large amount of sheep showing general clinical signs then possible to mark these when post-mortem inspection is occurring

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2
Q

What are some roles of the on site veterinary officer

A

○ Ante-mortem inspections morning and night in the sheep yards to ensure the sheep are well cared for, not suffering from any debilitating illness and is fit for slaughter for human consumption
○ Post-mortem inspections on particularly diseased animals and to ensure the inspectors are inspecting the carcasses adequately
○ Performing checks and observing processes to ensure all relevant policies are being upheld
○ Signing off on all the product that leaves the premises to verify that they have followed all relevant policies

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3
Q

Level of food safety risk rate meat, chocolate and ice-cream

A

○ Highest = meat due to its environment is perfect for bacteria to grow, also has the highest risk of contamination with bacteria
○ Middle = ice-cream due to its diary component which allows for contamination
○ Lowest = chocolate due to its low moisture content and high sugar which makes it low risk

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4
Q

Electrical stunning what are the 2 phases and how long do they last

A

1) tonic phase 10-12s

2) clonic phase 20-25s

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5
Q

What are the clinical signs of tonic phase

A
  • Immediate collapse
  • Non-rhythmic breathing
  • Head raised
  • Forelegs extended, hindlegs tucked into body
  • No corneal reflex
    Fixed, fully dilate pupil
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6
Q

What are the clonic phase signs

A
  • Relaxed jaw
  • Tongue hanging out
  • Gradual relaxing of mm
  • Paddling/involuntary kicking
  • Downward rotation of eyes
  • Salivation/urination/defecation
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7
Q

Reversible stunning methods what are the 3 and the 2 irreversible stunning methods

A

1) Head only electrical stunning
2) non penetrative captive bolt
3) CO2 stunning - pigs
Irreversible
1) head to back electrical stunning
2) penetrative captive bolt stunning

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8
Q

Slaughter methods what are the two types and what animals

A
  • Important to cut carotid and vertebral artery as supply to brain not the jugular vein as that is draining
    Chest stick
  • Most effective method of bleeding -> thoracic stick at the level of the heart
    ○ Rapid initial blood loss and the shortest time to loss of brain function
    2) Thoracic stick
  • Sheep and goats sticking can be performed by cutting the blood vessels at the throat
    ○ Don’t have well developed vertebral artery so don’t need to worry
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9
Q

What do the following drugs do 1) cloxacillin 2) trimedexil 3) engemycin 4) erythromycin

A
  • Cloxacillin - intramammary dry cow treatment
  • Trimedexil - dexamethasone type - INDUCE PARTURITION
    ○ Mimicking stress of calf
  • Engemycin - tetracycline - broad spectrum antibiotics
  • Erythromycin - injectable treatment of mastitis - macrolide
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10
Q

When to give a S4 drug and name 2 that are and 1 that isn’t

A
  • bonifay relationship - meaningful substantial relationship with the client - who are they
  • Client needs to have Justifiable therapeutic need
    oxytocin and xylazine
    4 in 1 isn’t
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11
Q

What are 3 common causes of increase in BMCC

A

○ Poor condition of rubber components of the miking claw
§ Cracks harbour bacteria
○ Inadequate coverage of teats by disinfectant when applying teat spray
§ Disinfectant - kill bacteria + emollients to reduce cracks that harbour bacteria
○ Removal of milking units without cutting the vacuum first
§ Damage the teat canal, retropulse milk going teat to teat, or backwards to other cows - spreading mastitis

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12
Q

How to perform a vasectomy on a sheep

A

2) Make 7cm longitudinal skin incision over the palpated vas deferens
○ Need to go whole way through the skin
3) Tissue scissors to dissect subcutaneous tissues
○ Purple area is the vaginal tunic
4) Locate the vas deferens medial to the spermatic cord
5) Place nick in vaginal tunic (upwards turned scalpel blade) to remove the spermatic cord
○ AVOID THE VEIN AND ARTERY within the vaginal tunic
6) Blunt dissection the nick in the tunic to extend
7) Exteriorise the spermatic cord
○ If cannot then may not have incised through the visceral part of vaginal tunic just the parietal so need to incise further
8) Use haemostats to push through mesorcium (membrane) between spermatic cord and pampiniform plexus and clamp the spermatic cord in two places (proximal and distal)
9) Ligate proximal and distal to the clamps (outside of the clamps)
10) Excises the portion of the cord
11) If small enough can leave the vaginal tunic open
12) Closure of the skin - simple continuous

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13
Q

Epidural in a sheep where performed and how

A
  • Sacrococcygeal articulation is identified by slight vertical movement of base of tail
  • 20g) needle inserted at an angle of 20 degrees to the horizontal plane
  • Hanging drop technique doesn’t work due to shallow angle of needle but lack of contact with bone during insertion and NO RESISTANCE TO INJECTION is identification
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14
Q

How many roots for dogs teeth maxillary and mandibular

A
1 root - 105,205
2 root - 106-107, 206-207
3 root - 108-110, 208-210
Lower 
1 root first and 11 (305, 311, 405, 411)
All others 2 roots
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15
Q

When do adult incisors start to erupt and completely erupted at

A

Earliest 12 - 16 weeks

completely erupted at 24 weeks

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16
Q

What is ankylosis in regards to teeth? Describe what you would see on radiographs.

A
  • Solid fixation of tooth resulting from fusion of cementum and alveolar bone, with obliteration of periodontal ligament
  • Common if excessive orthodontic force, luxation or avulsion of tooth or can occur due to age
  • Loss of periodontal ligament can be seen on radiograph, looks like thin black line around roots
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17
Q

What are the indications for raising a gingival flap?

A
  • Large sulcus depth
  • Multiple root tooth removal
  • Crown lengthening
  • Allow for wound closure
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18
Q

What are the causes of a discoloured tooth?

A
  • Internal or external discolouration
    ○ External - plaque bacteria, calculus, food colouring, stain, caries, enamel hypoplasia, dental exposure, fungal infection
    ○ Internal - antibiotics, pupal necrosis and Pulpitis - death of a tooth due to trauma or infection
19
Q

Name 3 adverse outcomes if you tried to excessively rotate or cork maxillary canine?

A

1) Fracture of the tooth
2) Oronasal fistula caused by root apex pushing through the thin bone plate into nasal passage
3) Fracture of bucchal bone and significant trauma to surrounding tissues

20
Q

Heartworm for puppies at what age have to test and at what age don’t have to

A

1) Puppies under 6 months, start on prevention (ideally from less than 3 months)
○ Start on monthly until correlate with annual vaccinations then annually proheart if want that
2) Puppies over 6 months of age ideally should have an antigen test first and again 6-12months after commencing preventative
○ 6-7 months is the minimum lifecycle - minimum at which you can test

21
Q

heartworm what is the safety margin, after 3-6-7months what to do and after 6-7months post heartworm missing

A
  • 2.5-3months generally over the time will still cover
    ○ Safety margin
  • After 3-6-7 month go on prevention then come back 4-6 months
  • Over 6-7 months -> test antigen then put on prevention - test again in 6 months
    ○ If give preventative at this point without testing § Will kill Microfilaria -> mildly unwell generally NOT ADULTS
22
Q

Tapeworms what need, which product has within and the types of tapeworms need to worry about

A

praziquantel (bitter taste) - sentinel spectrum (insect growth regulator - not for flea allergic dog)
○ Most common is the flea tape worm -> if have good flea control then DON’T WORRY
○ Echinococcus -> rural areas with sheep carcase
○ Spirometra -> lizard and frogs within - playing in the river
§Dose not high enough in products to kill
§ Persistent tapeworm infections with treatment - send away for identification and then treat with HIGH dosses

23
Q

Distemper clinical signs, transmitted and treatment/prognosis

A

○ fever, oculonasal discharge, coughing, weight loss, vomiting, diarrhoea, neurological signs such as myoclonus, seizures and blindness. Death is possible
○ Hyperkeratosis of the footpads is noted in chronic infections.
○ Distemper is transmitted via respiratory droplets or contact with contaminated fomites.
○ Treatment is support. Those with CNS disease have a poor prognosis.

24
Q

Canine adenovirus- 1 what also called, clinical signs, transmitted, treatment

A

infectious canine hepatitis
○ Possible clinical signs include fever, depression, lethargy, abdominal pain, pallor, tonsillitis, lymphandenopathy, hepatomegaly, coughing, vomiting, diarrhoea, bleeding tendencies, hepatic encephalopathy, neurological signs and death.
○ Transmission is via oronasal exposure to infectious secretions.
○ This virus is environmentally hardy.
○ Treatment is supportive.
○ Vaccination with canine adenovirus type 2 cross protects against type 1 infection also.

25
Q

Puppy vaccinations options at what ages

A

1) 6-8 weeks - C3 or C4 (can give parainfluenza)
2) 10-12 weeks - C5 (oral does bordetella only, intranasal does both NO BOOSTER, injectable kennel cough needs booster), early finish C3 can occur here
3) 14-16 weeks - C4 (oral doesn’t need booster)

26
Q

If puppy up to 12 months with no vaccination history

A

vaccinate C4 and oral BB and boost in 1 months’ time with C4 only

27
Q

Adult vaccination what give

A

○ Triannual C3 and annual bronchoshield 3 or injectable kennel cough
NOT oral as just bordetella

28
Q

if have adult dog with unknown vaccination history

A

Duramune c3- (this will last the three years) plus kennel cough. If using intranasal, this will then just need a booster in 1 years’ time, if using injectable this should be boosted in 1 month

29
Q

Feline panleukopenia (parvovirus) clinical signs, high risk, transmission, treatment

A

○ result in fever, anorexia, depression, vomiting, bloody diarrhoea, jaundice, dehydration, panleukopenia, infertility, abortions, stillbirths, congenital neurological disease and death
○Young unvaccinated kittens are at the greatest risk
○ Transmission is usually via faecal oral ingestion of the organism.
○ Treatment is generally supportive.
- probably lifelong vaccination immunity

30
Q

Feline Herpesvirus 1 and feline Calicivirus clinical signs, transmission and treatment

A

○ result in sneezing, nasal discharge, fever, anorexia, conjunctivitis, keratitis, uveitis, cough, dyspnoea, oral vesicles or erosions, and chronic stomatitis.
○ These diseases are usually not life threatening, but can result in chronic or recurrent respiratory signs and morbidity.
○ Transmission is by inhalation ore respiratory droplets or contact with contaminated fomites.
○ Treatment is generally supportive.

31
Q

FeLV infection clinical signs, transmission and efficacious vaccinations

A

○ result in fever, chronic widespread secondary infections, weight loss, anorexia, depression, bone marrow suppression, immunosuppression, neoplasia and death.
○ Transmission is mainly by ingestion of infected cat’s saliva via social grooming. There is no cure for this disease.
○ Vaccines are not 100% efficacious.

32
Q

FIV infection clinical signs and transmission

A

○ signs are diverse owing to the immunosuppressive nature of infection.
○ Often recurrent minor illnesses, especially with upper respiratory and gastrointestinal signs, often reoccurring fevers.
○ Transmission is mainly cat to cat by bite wounds, and occasional perinatal transmission.

33
Q

F3 vaccination when give in kittens and adults

A

§ 6-8 weeks need 3 vaccines 1 month apart F3 then annual (possible triannual but not registered)
§ If definitely 8 weeks of age then 2 is only needed then annual
§ Yearly vaccination against F3 for adults
§ Feline panleukopenia - parvo, feline enteritis (old name)
□ Zoeitus triannual for this part BUT NOT CALICI OR OTHER

34
Q

FIV vaccination what vaccines need to give

A

§ 3 vaccines 2-4 weeks apart from 8 weeks, annual vaccinations EVEN IF ADULT TEST THEN SAME (give same time as F3)
§ Idexx test -> snap test antigen or antibody if positive - send off to indexx and will test for free
§ Wait 4-6 weeks after cat bite then vaccinate
§ Is better to vaccinate separately as quite a burden on new kitten - does increase the cost though

35
Q

How long after last vaccination need to confine to home environment

A

10-14d

36
Q

Rabbit calcivirus when give vaccination

A
  • 4,8,12 weeks and then 6 months AVA recommendations
  • Comes in 10 multi viral dose, discarded within 24 hours recommended - rabbit vaccines day
    ○ Spot checks, remove after a month definitely
    Extremely tissue toxic to people if inject
37
Q

Direct effects on HR and BP for 1) methadone 2) acepromazine 3) diazepam 4) ketamine 5) atropine

A

1) decreased, no effect
2) no effect, decrease
3) no effect, no effect
4) increased, increased
5) increased, no effect

38
Q

Common CRI drug doses

A
  • Ketamine
    ○ 10mcg/kg/min -> for dogs and cats
  • Fentanyl
    ○ 0.3 - 0.5 (some 0.7)mcg/kg/min -> for dogs and cats
  • Dopamine
    ○ 5 - 10mcg/kg/min - can start at 7 and then increase or reduce
39
Q

Example of PM drug and doses for 1) really sick cat trauma 2) feline spay

A

1) Really sick cat - trauma, abdominal hernia etc
○ Methadone (0.5mg/kg - good for when painful)
○ Midazolam (0.2mg/kg) can use because obtunded at this point so excitement reaction probably not relevant
○ Alfaxalone 4mg/kg
2) Feline spey
○ Methadone (0.5mg/kg) - painful so need this level
○ Medetomidine (15-20mcg/kg - need to really hit them)
○ IF STILL NOT SEDATE - give 4mg/kg of alfaxalone SQ
§ Then when induction is occurring

40
Q

Example of PM drug and doses for radiographs, BAL

A

○ Butorphanol (0.3mg/kg)
○ Induction: propofol and midazolam (0.2-0.3mg/kg) - give to reduce the amount of isoflurane needed during anaesthesia and if sick helps
§ Give 2mg/kg of propofol, all of midazolam, flush then assess
§ Then can give 0.5-1mg/kg of propofol to effect if needed

41
Q

Example of PM drug and doses for CT with possible FNA, normal dog

A

○ Methadone (0.3mg/kg) - painful but not super painful

○ Acepromazine (0.02mg/kg) - depending on temperament of the dog

42
Q

Blood pressure autoregulation brain and kidney what values important

A
  • Brain and kidney ability of organ to maintain blood pressure with changing systemic blood pressure
    ○ Brain - 50 and 150mmHg
    § Below this brain poorly perfused - ischaemia -> can be screwed below 50
    ○ Kidney - 60 and 160mmHg
    § Minimum blood pressure reading that is acceptable
43
Q

Glycopyrrolate how long take to work, duration and dose

A

can take 5-10mins to start working but generally if going to work will occur within the first few minutes
§ 40-60mins in duration
§ Dose - 5-20mcg/kg

44
Q

Dobutamine and dopamine what are they

A

Dobutamine - positive ionotropic, beta receptor
○ Dopamine
§ Low doses -> dopaminergic agonist - helps you pee
§ Middle - 7-10mcg/kg/min - beta agonist - positive inotropes
§ >10mcg/kg/min - Alpha agonist - improve vascular tone