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EOR - Pediatrics (Alice copy + Seth's) > Rosh questions > Flashcards

Rosh questions Flashcards

1
Q

You hear a murmur that is continous and heard near the supraclavicular/infraclavicular region. It intensifes with head extension while seated and lessens while suppine. This is likely a _____. Should parents be worried?

A

Cervical venous hum is an innocent murmur

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2
Q

what murmur has the buzzword “vibratory” or “musical quality” and is often heard over the left sternal border?

A

Still murmur

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3
Q

what does a diagnosis of abscence seizure require? What does it show?

A

EEG
generalized 3 Hz spike and wave discharges

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4
Q

what is the first-line treatment of absence seizures?

A

ethosuximide

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5
Q

what activity can induce an absence seizure?

A

hyperventilation

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6
Q

which vitamin def is this?
fatigue, malaise, easy bruising, and bleeding from his gums

red swollen tongue, skin pallor, and a raised papular rash with corkscrew hairs on the arms and thighs

A

Vitamin C

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7
Q

What are the 4 Hs of vit C def?

A

Hemorrhage
Hyerkeratosis
Hypochondriasis
Heme issues

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8
Q

Abx therapy for bacterial men in pts <= 1 month

A

Cefotaximine + amp
OR
Gentamicin + amp

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9
Q

Abx therapy for bacterial men in pts 1 month to 18 years

A

Ceftriaxone + vanc
OR
Cefotaxime + vanc

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10
Q

Abx therapy for bacterial men in pts 18+

A

Ceftriaxone + vanc

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11
Q

What is Auspitz sign and what is it associated with?

A

scale removal produces blood droplets

chronic plaque psoriasis

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12
Q

Reed sternberg cells are seen in

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

owl’s eye appearance

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13
Q

age demographic of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

15-19 yo

EBV

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14
Q

What type of burns are calculated for infants < 1 yo?

A

ONLY partial and full thickness burns

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15
Q

what is the formula for burn size in infants < 1 yo

A

Head = 19%
Arms = 7% each (14% total)
Anterior trunk = 13%
Posterior trunk = 13%
Each leg = 10.5% (21% total)

edit this card

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16
Q

what is the murmur associated with valvular disease of rheumatic fever and why

A

pansystolic

Because mitral stenosis is the MC heart issue

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17
Q

what is a very common history of a patient with scabies?

A

Family members with similar symptoms

Not going into the woods or smth like that

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18
Q

MOA of the MC ADHD med

A

Dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition

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19
Q

how does the dx of ADHD differ between kids <17 yo and 17+ yo?

A

< 17 = 5 symptoms needed
17+ = 6 symptoms needed

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20
Q

What are the 2 alpha-2 receptor agonists used for ADHD?

A

Guanfacine
Clonidine

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21
Q

when might you prefer guanfacine/clonidine in addition to stimulants for ADHD?

A

adjunctive therapies by targeting symptoms such as insomnia, irritability, and tics

somatic hyperactive sympstoms

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22
Q

t/f the recommended management of sinusitis for persistent/ none improving symptoms for 10 days is augmetin

A

true

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23
Q

when using a pneomatic otoscope for AOM, there will be __ of the TM

A

reduced mobility

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24
Q

Characteristics of a benign cardiac murmur in kiddos:
Grade () intensity
softer intensity while the patient is in this position ()
systolic or diastolic
length
radiation ()
This () or this () quality

A

Grade (<= 2) intensity
softer intensity while the patient is (sitting compared to supine)
systolic and short
radiation is minimal
musical or vibratory quality

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25
Q

t/f all diastolic murmurs are pathologic

A

I think so

90% sure, but there are always exceptions in medicine it seems

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26
Q

t/f increasing preload increases the murmur with VSD

A

FALSE

increasing AFTERLOAD does (handgripping for instance)

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27
Q

if a patient has NON-seasonal allergies, what is likely the MC colporate of the symptoms?

A

Pet dander

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28
Q

a patient comes in with multiple erythematous macules and papules on the trunk, face, and proximal extremities that spare the palms and soles

this came up about48-72 hours after birth

what is the likely corporate?

A

Erythema toxicum neonatorum

appears by the second day after birth.

Benign skin condition, transient eruption
Etiology unknown
Healthy newborns, usually during days 2–7 of life
PE: pustules on an erythematous base
Tx: observation, reassurance to parents

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29
Q

when does milia typically present by?

A

AT BIRTH

this is how to differentiate it from Erythema toxicum neonatorum

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30
Q

your patient has bilious vomitting, gastric bubble of the right chest wall, and abd distension - what is the likely diagnosis? What would be seen on upper GI with contrast series?

A

Intestinal malrotation

Ligament of Treitz on the right side of the abdomen

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31
Q

what condition is associated with malassezia furfur?

A

Tinea versicolor

likely not to tan in the sun

or pityriasis versicolor

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32
Q

what descent is MC for kawasaki disease?

A

Asian

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33
Q

what infection presents similar to acute sunburn, but sloughs off?

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

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34
Q

what is the buzzword appearance of the perioral region of SSSS?

A

perioral crusting with a dried oatmeal appearance (aka SSSS sad face)

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35
Q

what is the go to treatment of SSSS?

A

Naficillin

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36
Q

what color are the scales of plaque psorasis?

A

silver

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37
Q

what is wilson disease (overview).

A

a disorder of copper metabolism

most common found from5 - 35

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38
Q

What 2 organ systems are most affected with wilson disease

A

hepatic and neurologic (with psych as well)

also don’t forget the eyes!

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39
Q

Hepatic issues with wilson may lead to these s/s

A

Bleeding/ascities/hepatomegaly

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40
Q

MC neurologic symptom of wilson disease

A

dysarthria

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41
Q

MC psych symptom of wilson disease

A

depression

42
Q

the overall mamnagement of wilson is stabilizing, and then preventing. How do you stablize?

A

Chelating agents

trientine or D-penicillamine

43
Q

this may be used as maintanence therapy to prevent symptoms of wilson

A

Zinc

or low dose chelating agents (penicillamine)

44
Q

inheritance pattern of wilson disease

A

Autosomal recessive

spells “WAR”

45
Q

What chromosome is affected with wilson disease?

A

Chromosome 13

wilson disease = 13 letters!

46
Q

1st line parenteral abx for pyelo

A

3rd gen ceph

ceftriaxone, ceftotaxime, cefepime

47
Q

when do GERD symptoms usually resolve by for infants?

A

1 yo

48
Q

when would you give an H2 blocker in a kiddo under 1 yo with gerd?

A

FTT
evidence of esophagitis

moderate to severe esophagitis diagnosed by endoscopic biopsy and all infants with mild esophagitis on endoscopy, poor weight gain, feeding refusal, or marked irritability that is temporally related to reflux episodes and failure to improve with the conservative measures described above.

49
Q

treatment of hearing loss at birth

A

Cochlear implantation

50
Q

what is more severe, conduct disorder, or oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Conduct disorder

Oppositional defiant disorder is similar to conduct disorder in that children are defiant, disobedient, and hostile toward authority figures, however, they do not violate societal norms or rules and are not violent toward other people or animals.

51
Q

t/f hypothermia is a common symptom of hypothyroidism at birth

A

true

52
Q

What is the most common type of psoriasis in children?

A

Chronic plaque psoriasis

53
Q

which type of hernia descends into the scrotum

A

indirect inguinal

IN the scrotum

54
Q

of seizures in a day

difference between a simple vs complex febrile seizure
-time
generalized/focal

A

Simple = 1 seizure in 24 hours that is < 15 min with no focal features

Complex would be >1 seizure >15 min, focal/nonfocal

55
Q

for molluscum contagiosum, other than observation, what are the first line therapies

A

cryotherapy, curettage, and cantharidin

3 Cs

56
Q

MC symptoms of an osteosarcoma

A

Pain and a palpable mass on the metaphyses of long bones

MC malignant bone tumor

sunburst appearance on xray from the lesion growing too fast (periosteal reaction)

57
Q

what size of a bone lesion makes you worried about malignancy (not benign)

A

> 4 cm in diameter

58
Q

what are the margins of a unicameral bone cyst on exam?

A

well-defined margins with no bone destruction

59
Q

what is the trunk incurvation reflex aka?

A

galant reflex

60
Q

two first-line treatments of warts (verruca)

A

SA
Cryotherapy

same as molluscum but no scorpion med

61
Q

what is the MC causitive organism for acne vulgaris?

A

Cutibacterium acnes

sounds like cutaneous bacterium

62
Q

t/f growth spurts and night pain are common history findings of Osgood-Schlatter disease or osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle

A

FALSE

growth spurt is, but not night pain

63
Q

___ is a lower UTI while ____ is an upper UTI

A

cystitis = lower (lower in the GU tract)
pyelo = upper (more proximal)

64
Q

MCC of epistaxis in kiddos

A

picking your nose / trauma

65
Q

your 3 day old infant presents with new onset erythamatous macules and papules that progressed to pustules on a erthematous base. What likely is the diagnosis and what would be seen on a wright-stained smear? Treatment?

A

Erythema toxicum neonatorum

it would show numerous eosinophils

No treatment

66
Q

t/f evaporative coolers are good for reducing allergen exposure

A

False - These coolers increase humidity, which can increase mold or dust mites in the house.

67
Q

why is it a good idea to wash sheets regularly for asthmatics?

A

It reduces dust mite exposure

68
Q

what is the classic presentation of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Nonspecific
blanching, erythematous macular rash that begins at the wrists and ankles, spreads to the trunk, and may become petechial over time. Rash on the palms and soles is highly characteristic of RMSF but usually occurs later in the disease progression

history of being in the woods with a tick bite

treatment = doxy

69
Q

what is the bacterium that causes rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

70
Q

What are the two hosts that can transfer Rickettsia rickettsii to humans (for rocky mountain spotted fever)

A

Dermacentor andersoni or Dermacentor variabilis (wood or dog ticks)

71
Q

What are the two causes of elevated INdirect bilirubin?

A

Gilbert syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome (seen more at birth and more severe)

72
Q

Abx for cat scratch disease

A

azithromycin

73
Q

what is the rash of Neisseria meningitidis

A

macular, non blanchable rash

seen in children > 10 yo

74
Q

difference between herpes zoster and varicella

A

Herpes zoster is the REACTIVATION of varicella (chicken pox) along a dermatome

HZV = shingles

75
Q

difference in the therapy for intussception vs pyloric stenosis

A

intussception = pneumatic reduction to stop ballooning

pyloric stenosis = pyloromoty

76
Q

what steroid specifically is used to reduce fetus likelihood/severeity of hyaline membrane disease?

A

Dexamethasone

77
Q

what is CMV aka? HHV ___

A

5

cyto

78
Q

What is varicella aka? HHV ___

A

3

79
Q

What is HHV 4?

A

EBV

80
Q

What is HHV 6?

A

roseolovirus (6th disease)

81
Q

What is HHV 7?

A

Also roseolovirus?

82
Q

What is HHV 8?

A

rhadinovirus - kaposi’s sarcoma (KSHV)

83
Q

Mneomnic for herpes 3-8

A

ZEC triple R K

zoster
EBV
CMV
Roseola x 2
rhadinovirus/kaposi’s

84
Q

what specifically is the pathophys of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

osteochondrosis from adolescent growth spurt paired with repeated contraction of the quads muscles leading to repetitive tension produces strain at the tibial tubercle apophysis

activity-related pain of gradual onset (10-15 yo)

leads to an enlarged tibial tubercle

85
Q

this PE action shows tenderness of the tibial tubercle for Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

resisted knee extension

86
Q

t/f systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis often involves systemic symptoms including fevers and rash

A

TRUE

87
Q

when does the rash of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis appear and disappear?

A

With the appearance and disappearance of fever

88
Q

Lab findings of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

no specific laboratory tests for the disease, but markedly elevated inflammatory markers (erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein), elevated white blood cell count, marked thrombocytosis, and normal findings on urinalysis, antinuclear antibody, and rheumatoid factor are typically seen.

Mild anemia is common.

treat with NSAIDs

89
Q

big vital sign difference between roseala and rubella

A

roseola is a very high fever while rubella (German measeles) is a low grade fever (or none)

90
Q

First line treatment of perioral impetigo mild

A

Mupirocin

91
Q

MCC of intestinal obstruction

A

Intussusception

92
Q

MCC of endocarditis

A

staph aureus

93
Q

what is the color of the base of oral thrush?

A

Erythematous

white plaques above it

94
Q

what age are lozenges CI?

A

< 4 yo

choking hazard

95
Q

t/f if you highly suspect strep based on PE, you do not need to get a Rapid antigen detection test

A

FALSE

according to Rosh at least

96
Q

what is the RDW of iron deficiency anemia?

A

HIGH

A red blood cell distribution width (RDW) blood test measures the variation in size and volume of red blood cells (RBCs) in a blood sample

97
Q

apart from being short, what is often seen on the neck of someone with down syndrome?

A

excess skin on the nape of the neck

98
Q

mneomonic to remember barlow maneuver

A

BAD
Barlow ADduction

99
Q

First line treatment of irritant diaper dermatitis

A

DFrequently changing the diaper and leaving it off for a few hours each day

100
Q

OM is a common complication of ___.

A

flu

101
Q

crash and burn mneomnic is for

A

Kawasaki disease

102
Q
A

EOR - Pediatrics (Alice copy + Seth's) (22 decks)

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