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EOR - Pediatrics (Alice copy + Seth's) > Rosh questions > Flashcards

Rosh questions Flashcards

1
Q

You hear a murmur that is continous and heard near the supraclavicular/infraclavicular region. It intensifes with head extension while seated and lessens while suppine. This is likely a _____. Should parents be worried?

A

Cervical venous hum is an innocent murmur

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2
Q

what murmur has the buzzword “vibratory” or “musical quality” and is often heard over the left sternal border?

A

Still murmur

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3
Q

what does a diagnosis of abscence seizure require? What does it show?

A

EEG
generalized 3 Hz spike and wave discharges

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4
Q

what is the first-line treatment of absence seizures?

A

ethosuximide

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5
Q

what activity can induce an absence seizure?

A

hyperventilation

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6
Q

which vitamin def is this?
fatigue, malaise, easy bruising, and bleeding from his gums

red swollen tongue, skin pallor, and a raised papular rash with corkscrew hairs on the arms and thighs

A

Vitamin C

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7
Q

What are the 4 Hs of vit C def?

A

Hemorrhage
Hyerkeratosis
Hypochondriasis
Heme issues

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8
Q

Abx therapy for bacterial men in pts <= 1 month

A

Cefotaximine + amp
OR
Gentamicin + amp

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9
Q

Abx therapy for bacterial men in pts 1 month to 18 years

A

Ceftriaxone + vanc
OR
Cefotaxime + vanc

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10
Q

Abx therapy for bacterial men in pts 18+

A

Ceftriaxone + vanc

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11
Q

What is Auspitz sign and what is it associated with?

A

scale removal produces blood droplets

chronic plaque psoriasis

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12
Q

Reed sternberg cells are seen in

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

owl’s eye appearance

Owls read books

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13
Q

age demographic of Hodgkin lymphoma

A

15-19 yo

EBV

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14
Q

What type of burns are calculated for infants < 1 yo?

A

ONLY partial and full thickness burns

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15
Q

what is the formula for burn size in infants < 1 yo

A

Head = 19%
Arms = 7% each (14% total)
Anterior trunk = 13%
Posterior trunk = 13%
Each leg = 10.5% (21% total)

edit this card

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16
Q

what is the murmur associated with valvular disease of rheumatic fever and why

A

pansystolic

Because mitral stenosis is the MC heart issue

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17
Q

what is a very common history of a patient with scabies?

A

Family members with similar symptoms

Not going into the woods or smth like that

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18
Q

MOA of the MC ADHD med

A

Dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition

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19
Q

how does the dx of ADHD differ between kids <17 yo and 17+ yo?

A

< 17 = 5 symptoms needed
17+ = 6 symptoms needed

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20
Q

What are the 2 alpha-2 receptor agonists used for ADHD?

A

Guanfacine
Clonidine

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21
Q

when might you prefer guanfacine/clonidine in addition to stimulants for ADHD?

A

adjunctive therapies by targeting symptoms such as insomnia, irritability, and tics

somatic hyperactive sympstoms

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22
Q

t/f the recommended management of sinusitis for persistent/ none improving symptoms for 10 days is augmetin

A

true

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23
Q

when using a pneomatic otoscope for AOM, there will be __ of the TM

A

reduced mobility

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24
Q

Characteristics of a benign cardiac murmur in kiddos:
Grade () intensity
softer intensity while the patient is in this position ()
systolic or diastolic
length
radiation ()
This () or this () quality

A

Grade (<= 2) intensity
softer intensity while the patient is (sitting compared to supine)
systolic and short
radiation is minimal
musical or vibratory quality

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25
Q

t/f all diastolic murmurs are pathologic

A

I think so

90% sure, but there are always exceptions in medicine it seems

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26
Q

t/f increasing preload increases the murmur with VSD

A

FALSE

increasing AFTERLOAD does (handgripping for instance)

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27
Q

if a patient has NON-seasonal allergies, what is likely the MC colporate of the symptoms?

A

Pet dander

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28
Q

a patient comes in with multiple erythematous macules and papules on the trunk, face, and proximal extremities that spare the palms and soles

this came up about48-72 hours after birth

what is the likely corporate?

A

Erythema toxicum neonatorum (unknown etiology)

appears by the second day after birth.

Benign skin condition, transient eruption
Etiology unknown
Healthy newborns, usually during days 2–7 of life
PE: pustules on an erythematous base
Tx: observation, reassurance to parents

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29
Q

when does milia typically present by?

A

AT BIRTH

this is how to differentiate it from Erythema toxicum neonatorum

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30
Q

your patient has bilious vomitting, gastric bubble of the right chest wall, and abd distension - what is the likely diagnosis? What would be seen on upper GI with contrast series?

A

Intestinal malrotation

Ligament of Treitz on the right side of the abdomen

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31
Q

what condition is associated with malassezia furfur?

A

Tinea versicolor

likely not to tan in the sun

or pityriasis versicolor

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32
Q

what descent is MC for kawasaki disease?

A

Asian

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33
Q

what infection presents similar to acute sunburn, but sloughs off?

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)

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34
Q

what is the buzzword appearance of the perioral region of SSSS?

A

perioral crusting with a dried oatmeal appearance (aka SSSS sad face)

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35
Q

what is the go to treatment of SSSS?

A

Naficillin

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36
Q

what color are the scales of plaque psorasis?

A

silver

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37
Q

what is wilson disease (overview).

A

a disorder of copper metabolism

most common found from5 - 35

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38
Q

What 2 organ systems are most affected with wilson disease

A

hepatic and neurologic (with psych as well)

also don’t forget the eyes!

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39
Q

Hepatic issues with wilson may lead to these s/s

A

Bleeding/ascities/hepatomegaly

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40
Q

MC neurologic symptom of wilson disease

A

dysarthria

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41
Q

MC psych symptom of wilson disease

A

depression

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42
Q

the overall mamnagement of wilson is stabilizing, and then preventing. How do you stablize?

A

Chelating agents

trientine or D-penicillamine

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43
Q

this may be used as maintanence therapy to prevent symptoms of wilson

A

Zinc

or low dose chelating agents (penicillamine)

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44
Q

inheritance pattern of wilson disease

A

Autosomal recessive

spells “WAR”

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45
Q

What chromosome is affected with wilson disease?

A

Chromosome 13

wilson disease = 13 letters!

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46
Q

1st line parenteral abx for pyelo

A

3rd gen ceph

ceftriaxone, ceftotaxime, cefepime

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47
Q

when do GERD symptoms usually resolve by for infants?

A

1 yo

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48
Q

when would you give an H2 blocker in a kiddo under 1 yo with gerd?

A

FTT
evidence of esophagitis

moderate to severe esophagitis diagnosed by endoscopic biopsy and all infants with mild esophagitis on endoscopy, poor weight gain, feeding refusal, or marked irritability that is temporally related to reflux episodes and failure to improve with the conservative measures described above.

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49
Q

treatment of hearing loss at birth

A

Cochlear implantation

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50
Q

what is more severe, conduct disorder, or oppositional defiant disorder?

A

Conduct disorder

Oppositional defiant disorder is similar to conduct disorder in that children are defiant, disobedient, and hostile toward authority figures, however, they do not violate societal norms or rules and are not violent toward other people or animals.

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51
Q

t/f hypothermia is a common symptom of hypothyroidism at birth

A

true

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52
Q

What is the most common type of psoriasis in children?

A

Chronic plaque psoriasis

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53
Q

which type of hernia descends into the scrotum

A

indirect inguinal

IN the scrotum

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54
Q

of seizures in a day

difference between a simple vs complex febrile seizure
-time
generalized/focal

A

Simple = 1 seizure in 24 hours that is < 15 min with no focal features

Complex would be >1 seizure >15 min, focal/nonfocal

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55
Q

for molluscum contagiosum, other than observation, what are the first line therapies

A

cryotherapy, curettage, and cantharidin

3 Cs

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56
Q

MC symptoms of an osteosarcoma

A

Pain and a palpable mass on the metaphyses of long bones

MC malignant bone tumor

sunburst appearance on xray from the lesion growing too fast (periosteal reaction)

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57
Q

what size of a bone lesion makes you worried about malignancy (not benign)

A

> 4 cm in diameter

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58
Q

what are the margins of a unicameral bone cyst on exam?

A

well-defined margins with no bone destruction

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59
Q

what is the trunk incurvation reflex aka?

A

galant reflex

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60
Q

two first-line treatments of warts (verruca)

A

SA
Cryotherapy

same as molluscum but no scorpion med

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61
Q

what is the MC causitive organism for acne vulgaris?

A

Cutibacterium acnes

sounds like cutaneous bacterium

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62
Q

t/f growth spurts and night pain are common history findings of Osgood-Schlatter disease or osteochondrosis of the tibial tubercle

A

FALSE

growth spurt is, but not night pain

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63
Q

___ is a lower UTI while ____ is an upper UTI

A

cystitis = lower (lower in the GU tract)
pyelo = upper (more proximal)

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64
Q

MCC of epistaxis in kiddos

A

picking your nose / trauma

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65
Q

your 3 day old infant presents with new onset erythamatous macules and papules that progressed to pustules on a erthematous base. What likely is the diagnosis and what would be seen on a wright-stained smear? Treatment?

A

Erythema toxicum neonatorum

it would show numerous eosinophils

No treatment

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66
Q

t/f evaporative coolers are good for reducing allergen exposure

A

False - These coolers increase humidity, which can increase mold or dust mites in the house.

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67
Q

why is it a good idea to wash sheets regularly for asthmatics?

A

It reduces dust mite exposure

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68
Q

what is the classic presentation of rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Nonspecific
blanching, erythematous macular rash that begins at the wrists and ankles, spreads to the trunk, and may become petechial over time. Rash on the palms and soles is highly characteristic of RMSF but usually occurs later in the disease progression

history of being in the woods with a tick bite

treatment = doxy

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69
Q

what is the bacterium that causes rocky mountain spotted fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

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70
Q

What are the two hosts that can transfer Rickettsia rickettsii to humans (for rocky mountain spotted fever)

A

Dermacentor andersoni or Dermacentor variabilis (wood or dog ticks)

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71
Q

What are the two causes of elevated INdirect bilirubin?

A

Gilbert syndrome
Crigler-Najjar syndrome (seen more at birth and more severe)

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72
Q

Abx for cat scratch disease

A

azithromycin

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73
Q

what is the rash of Neisseria meningitidis

A

macular, non blanchable rash

seen in children > 10 yo

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74
Q

difference between herpes zoster and varicella

A

Herpes zoster is the REACTIVATION of varicella (chicken pox) along a dermatome

HZV = shingles

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75
Q

difference in the therapy for intussception vs pyloric stenosis

A

intussception = pneumatic reduction to stop ballooning

pyloric stenosis = pyloromoty

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76
Q

what steroid specifically is used to reduce fetus likelihood/severeity of hyaline membrane disease?

A

Dexamethasone

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77
Q

what is CMV aka? HHV ___

A

5

cyto

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78
Q

What is varicella aka? HHV ___

A

3

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79
Q

What is HHV 4?

A

EBV

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80
Q

What is HHV 6?

A

roseolovirus (6th disease)

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81
Q

What is HHV 7?

A

Also roseolovirus?

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82
Q

What is HHV 8?

A

rhadinovirus - kaposi’s sarcoma (KSHV)

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83
Q

Mneomnic for herpes 3-8

A

ZEC triple R K

zoster
EBV
CMV
Roseola x 2
rhadinovirus/kaposi’s

84
Q

what specifically is the pathophys of Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

osteochondrosis from adolescent growth spurt paired with repeated contraction of the quads muscles leading to repetitive tension produces strain at the tibial tubercle apophysis

activity-related pain of gradual onset (10-15 yo)

leads to an enlarged tibial tubercle

85
Q

this PE action shows tenderness of the tibial tubercle for Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

resisted knee extension

86
Q

t/f systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis often involves systemic symptoms including fevers and rash

A

TRUE

87
Q

when does the rash of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis appear and disappear?

A

With the appearance and disappearance of fever

88
Q

Lab findings of systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis

A

no specific laboratory tests for the disease, but markedly elevated inflammatory markers (erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein), elevated white blood cell count, marked thrombocytosis, and normal findings on urinalysis, antinuclear antibody, and rheumatoid factor are typically seen.

Mild anemia is common.

treat with NSAIDs

89
Q

big vital sign difference between roseala and rubella

A

roseola is a very high fever while rubella (German measeles) is a low grade fever (or none)

90
Q

First line treatment of perioral impetigo mild

A

Mupirocin

91
Q

MCC of intestinal obstruction

A

Intussusception

92
Q

MCC of endocarditis

A

staph aureus

93
Q

what is the color of the base of oral thrush?

A

Erythematous

white plaques above it

94
Q

what age are lozenges CI?

A

< 4 yo

choking hazard

95
Q

t/f if you highly suspect strep based on PE, you do not need to get a Rapid antigen detection test

A

FALSE

according to Rosh at least

96
Q

what is the RDW of iron deficiency anemia?

A

HIGH

A red blood cell distribution width (RDW) blood test measures the variation in size and volume of red blood cells (RBCs) in a blood sample

97
Q

apart from being short, what is often seen on the neck of someone with down syndrome?

A

excess skin on the nape of the neck

98
Q

mneomonic to remember barlow maneuver

A

BAD
Barlow ADduction

99
Q

First line treatment of irritant diaper dermatitis

A

DFrequently changing the diaper and leaving it off for a few hours each day

100
Q

OM is a common complication of ___.

A

flu

101
Q

crash and burn mneomnic is for

A

Kawasaki disease

102
Q

what is the crash and burn mneumonic

A

CRASH and burn: conjunctivitis, rash, adenopathy, strawberry tongue, hand or foot edema, uncontrolled high fever

103
Q

t/f not manipulating warts helps them heal?

A

true

104
Q

MC spread from sinuses for preseptal cellulitis

A

ethimoid sinus

105
Q

what are the ages to use MCHAT? When is Developmental Behavior Checklist used instead for ASD screening?

A

MCHAT = 18-24 months
Developmental Behavior Checklist = 4-18 yo with an intellectual disability

106
Q

moderate risk MCHAT

A

3-7

107
Q

In a patient with anorexia nervosa, you overly treat, leading to refeeding syndrome. The hallmark of this syndrome is this electrolyte abnormality ____

A

hypophosphatemia

108
Q

what is severe obesity (BMI percentile or #)

A

120% of 95th percentile
OR
> 35 BMI

109
Q

Samter triad

A
  1. asthma
  2. nasal polyps / chronic sinusitis
  3. aspirin hypersensitivity
110
Q

MC complication of chicken pox

A

bacterial/ soft tissue infection

111
Q

What ROM is decreased in slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

Decreased internal rotation of the left hip

112
Q

90% of colic resolves by

A

9 weeks

113
Q

study of choice for Vesicoureteral reflux

A

Voiding cystourethrography

114
Q

tactile fremitus of PNA

A

increased

115
Q
A
116
Q

treatment of Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction (dacryostenosis)

A

nonsurgical management, including observation and massage (Crigler massage)

resolves by 6 months

117
Q

how to diagnose a Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction (dacryostenosis)

A

clinically

dye disappearance test can confirm the diagnosis

118
Q

MCC of Congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction (dacryostenosis)

A

incomplete canalization at the end closest to the nose

119
Q

synovial fluid analysis of late lyme disease

A

Synovial fluid white blood cell count is typically elevated in the inflammatory range of 20,000 to 60,000 cells/µL but is not as high as in septic arthritis

120
Q

What differs tanner 1 from 2?

A

Tanner 2 = enlargement of scrotum and testes with change of color and reddening

121
Q

What differs tanner 2 from 3?

A

Lengthening of the the penis

122
Q

What differs tanner stage 3 from 4?

A

Increase in everything with scrotum skin darkening

at stage 5 = adult morphology

123
Q

what is the only tetragenic one of these: mumps, roseola, rubella, and rubeola

A

rubella

eye, heart, rubella
ella = female

124
Q

MC presentation of CMV in utero

A

In utero, periventricular calcifications, ventriculomegaly, microcephaly, hyperechogenic fetal bowel, fetal growth restriction, ascites, hepatosplenomegaly, or pleural effusion may be seen on ultrasound imaging. At the time of birth, approximately 10% of neonates have symptoms. The most common manifestations include petechiae, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, small size for gestational age, microcephaly, sensorineural hearing loss, lethargy, poor suck, chorioretinitis,

125
Q

what vit def is MC in exclusively BF babies?

A

Vit D

400-600 IU/day

126
Q

lesions of HFM disease

A

The exanthem associated with hand, foot, and mouth disease may be composed of macular, maculopapular, and vesicular lesions. These lesions are usually nonpruritic and nonpainful. Lesions on the buttocks are more commonly seen in infants compared to older children.

127
Q

which serotype of HFM is atypical and more severe?

A

coxsackievirus A6 serotype

128
Q

MCC of Peritonsillar abscess

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

129
Q

MC antecedent condition of orbital cellulitis

A

bacterial rhinosinusitis

130
Q

UA of nephrotic syndrome often shows ___ bodies

A

Oval fat bodies

131
Q

what are mongolian spots aka?

A

Slate gray nevus

congenital dermal melanocytosis

goes away, but can do cosmetic laser treatment if needed

132
Q

Are scabies infections caused by male, female, or both sexes of mites?

A

Females. They burrow into the epidermis to lay their eggs before dying.

133
Q

what differs bacterial trachietis from croup?

A

SAME as croup but toxic appearing

treat with IV abx

134
Q

MCC of atypical PNA and presentation

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

low grade symptoms

135
Q

Best initial treatment of encopresis

A

Colonic disimpaction followed by an oral laxative (not fiber)

136
Q

classic presentaiton of nummular eczema

A

highly pruritic, round, coin-shaped patches.

dull red, exudative, and crusted appearance during the acute phase and a dry, scaly appearance with a central clearing in older lesions.

137
Q

what temp should a teething obj be for teething remedy?

A

cold

138
Q

Maternal RF for pyloric stenosis

A

erthromycin

also infant exposure to cow milk or soy proteins, and infant exposure to caregivers with diarrheal disease

139
Q

Which pathogen is most likely to cause tympanic membrane perforation?

A

Group A Streptococcus

140
Q

t/f hair loss is common with tinea capitis

A

true

itchy + hairloss = think this

141
Q

1st line treatment of AOM

A

amoxicilin

142
Q

What is the difference between bulbar and tarsal conjunctiva?

A

The bulbar conjunctiva is the part that covers the globe of the eye, while tarsal conjunctiva covers the eyelids.

143
Q

what is hyaline membrane disease aka?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

144
Q

What does the pathophys of decreased surfactant lead to for Respiratory distress syndrome

A

Inadequate surfactant leads to increased alveolar surface tension

145
Q

sweat chloride test needed to be dx with CF

A

> 60

60 fibrosis = mneomonic

146
Q

is there dullness or hyperresonance to percussion with CF?

A

hyperresonance

because fluid

147
Q

common findings of scarlet fever and treatment

A

rash
strawberry tongue
pastia lines (petechiae on axilla)

amoxicillin over penicillin cuz it tastes good

148
Q

your 12 week pt has yellow, greasy, adherent plaques on the head. This is ___ and should be treated with ___ at first

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

mineral oil

149
Q

Brittle bone disease is aka ____ and has this inheritance

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

autosomal dominant

150
Q

MC complication of kawasaki disease

A

coronary artery abnormalities

151
Q

difference in causitive organisms for otitis externa vs AOM

A

Otitis externa = psedomonas (think swimming)
AOM = SMH (not typically pseudomonas)

152
Q

if your patient complains of pruiritis of the ear, are you thinking AOM or otitis externa?

A

swimmer’s ear

153
Q

What is the step after discovering IGF is low paired with a decrease in height velocity? What is the step after the next step?

A

1st order GH stimulation testing
Then, order an MRI of the brain

154
Q

is barky cough epiglottitis or croup? What about drooling?

A

Barking = croup
Drooling = epiglottitis

155
Q

which disease has linear petechiae over the axillary folds?

A

Scarlet fever

complication of strep throat

156
Q

Which class of blood pressure medication is most often associated with drug-induced angioedema?

A

ACE inhibitors

-pril

157
Q

can 2 yo have Zofran?

A

yes

158
Q

DOC for short term treatment of enuresis and how this differs from the long term treatment plan

A

Desmopressin is most effective short term
Alarm therapy is best long term

159
Q

Earliest location of androgenic alopecia hairloss

A

Temporal scalp or vertex

160
Q

what is the dx test of choice for herpes

A

PCR

use to be tzank

KNOW THIS (only 27% of test takers got right)

161
Q

what venous blood lead level should be rechecked?

A

15 and 44 mcg/dL

in 1-4 weeks

if > 45, then urgent chelation therapy typically

162
Q

what is used to prevent gonococcal infection of the eyes after birth in baby’s?

A

Topical erythrmoycin

163
Q

RF for bronchiliotis

A

preterm

I guess BF is not a preventitve factor

164
Q

murmur of TOF

A

harsh systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border, a palpable thrill, and a prominent right ventricular impulse

165
Q

how to dx pertussis (whooping cough)

A

Clinically
2 weeks of cough + one of the following (paroxysms, whoop, apnea in infants < 1 year of age, or posttussive vomiting.)

166
Q

what causes more force directed laterally during knee flexion and leads to retropatellar pain

A

increased q angle

167
Q

“palpable right ventricular lift” makes you think of

A

TOF

168
Q

by what age should the posterior fontanel be closed

A

birth
2 mos at the latest

169
Q

Hypercalcemia can lead to constipation t/f

A

True

170
Q

MCC of aortic stenosis

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

171
Q

what is the hallmark presentation of symptoms associated with mycobacterium marinum?

A

Infection after exposure to water with pain weeks after

treatment with clarithromycin, -cycline, or Bactrim

papules that progress to shallow ulcers and scar formation

172
Q

classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis

A

chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus

173
Q

treatment of toxoplasmsosis

A

SPF
pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine, and folinic acid

174
Q

what is the spread of roseola

A

Rash starting on the neck or trunk and spreading to the face and extremities

if it spared the hands, think scarlet fever

174
Q

Can kiddos use Mirtazapine for depression

A

Not approved

175
Q

is oxymetazoline or phenylephrine used firstline after failed to stop nosebleed?

A

oxymetazoline

176
Q

*

A 2-day-old infant boy is evaluated for poor feeding and abdominal distention. He has had several episodes of bilious vomiting and has not passed any meconium since birth. An abdominal radiograph reveals dilated loops of bowel without gas or stool present in the rectum. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Hirschsprung disease

177
Q

Hemophilia A vs B factor deficiency

A

A = 8 (VIII)
B = 9 (IX)

178
Q

when do you use a lactose tolerance test for milk allergy work up?

A

Basically never

Given its poor specificity, it is not the first-line test.

179
Q

What stool test can be used to rule out inflammatory bowel disease?

A

Fecal calprotectin.

180
Q

Sausage shape mass in ____ is dx for ____ while an olive-shaped mass in the ____ is dx of ____

A

Both RUQ

Sausage = intussception
Olive = pyloric stenosis

181
Q

your patient has aspirated smth into the lungs - what is the next best step?

A

rigid bronchoscopy

182
Q

MC neurologic disorder in early childhood

A

Febrile seizures

just supportive care assuming that they retun to baseline

no EECG unless two unprovoked seizures

183
Q

Is oral erythromycn for gonocollcal or chlamydial eye infection in newborn

A

chlamydial

oral is best

184
Q

1st line treatment of allergic contact dermatitis

A

topical triamcinolone

think poison ivy = tree = tri (not accurate at all, just way to remember)

185
Q

MCC of viral conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus

186
Q

for asthma therapy, do you often switch out meds?

A

No

typically add meds or make them stronger

187
Q

treatment of CAH

A

Hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and sodium chloride

188
Q

treatment of mild Primary immune thrombocyotpenia vs mod

A

mild = just monitor
moderate = start prednisone

189
Q

MOA of escitalopram

A

SSRI

aka lexipro

-opram = SSRI

190
Q

wickham striae are seen in this condition ___ and look like this buzz word ____.

A

Lichen planus
Fine white lines

191
Q

MC sequalea of ASD is which of these:
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Pulmonic stenosis
Right atrial hypertrophy
Ventricular dysrhythmia

A

RA hypertrophy

192
Q

what is the common CXR finding of foreign body aspiration of the lung?

A

Hyperinflation of the affected lung d/t in ability to exhale properly

if you hear decreased breath sounds over that lung field, expect to see this!

193
Q

MC age for avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis

A

3-12 yo

5-7 yo very common

effects boys > girls

194
Q

t/f herpetic gingivostomatitis often causes bleeding to the gums

A

true

195
Q

If a patient does not respond well with nebulized Epi for sus of croup, what is the likely alternative dx?

A

Bacterial trachieitis

196
Q

You have a 9 yo patient who has never had the flu shot - should you reccomend 2 doses?

A

NO
only 6 months - 8 yo if it is their 1st time

197
Q

preferred abx treatement for uncomplicated acute cystitis

A

Cefdinir

198
Q

what test is done for celiac disease

A

Serum tissue transglutaminase antibody test

just look for the glut and you are good

199
Q

what do you use to dx pertussis other than clinicallly?

A

PCR and culture of the nasaophayngeal specimens (not oropharyngeal)

200
Q

what characterizes the onset of type IV cell-mediated hypersensitivity (often from contact dermatitis)

A

Delayed reaction

201
Q

what type of strep is MC for strep throat?

A

Group A

202
Q

what is a characteristic finding upon manipulating the blisters of a superfiscial partial vs deep partial burn?

A

Deep partial blisters are easily unroofed

also blanch with pressure, but are more sluggish

203
Q

At what age does HR approach adult values (60-100)?

A

About 8 yo

204
Q

1st line treatment for staring spells (abscence seizures)

A

Ethosuximide

think E = for Eye staring

EOR - Pediatrics (Alice copy + Seth's) (23 decks)

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