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PT roles and professionalism > Roles II final > Flashcards

Roles II final Flashcards

1
Q

Passing standard score for npte

A

600

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1
Q

Perfect score on the NPTE

A

800

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2
Q

when was the first licensure exam

A

1951

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3
Q

when did FSBPT take over the licensure exam

A

1991

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4
Q

who originally developed the boards exam

A

APTA in conjunction with professional examination srvice

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5
Q

the first board exam was based on ______

A

normative model of physical therapy

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6
Q

after what step of signing up for boards can you work

A

when you are approved to SIT for the exam

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7
Q

How many state agencies are there for npte

A

53 different jurisdictions

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8
Q

examples of job search strategies

A

networking
professional associations, linked in, indeed, hospital websites, referral source, university faculty, CSM or professional meetings

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9
Q

what is a red flag for timing during the interview process

A

if they need an answer immediately

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10
Q

timing of job applications

A

apply in batches, offer may only be good for a couple days/weeks

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11
Q

on average how long do people look at a resume

A

6-8 seconds

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12
Q

primary objective of a resumer

A

do you have the sills, training and personal attributes to be successful, include our work history

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13
Q

most important part of resume

A

clinical rotations and work experience –> will show how you fulfill a role

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14
Q

what does an employer assess about you

A

experience, education, skills, motivation, work habits, stability, perseverance, judgement, adaptability, flexibility, openness to learning, responsibility, initiative, ability to work on a team, communication skills

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15
Q

What are soft skills

A

personality, communication, flexibility–> hard to teach

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16
Q

what should you never do during an interview

A

never talk negatively about past employer, clinical placement, university

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17
Q

what types of questions are asked during interviews

A

open-ended, behavior/skills based, general questions, hypothetical, clinically based questions

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18
Q

STAR method

A

discussing difficult questions
strategy/task
action
result

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19
Q

Following an interview what should you do

A

send a follow up thank you as soon as possible
follow up later if you don’t hear back

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20
Q

what to do when you receive an offer

A

thank employer, express interest, ask for time to consider

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21
Q

important things to know for negotiating your salary

A

avg salary for that type of PT, average PT salaries in the area, awareness of number of open positions in the area, cost of living

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22
Q

what to do after you accept the offer

A

get everyhing in writing

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23
Q

three domains of professional identity

A

individual, relational, collective

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24
Q

individual domain of professional identity asks

A

who am i?

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25
Q

relational domain of professional identity asks

A

who am I in relation to others?

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26
Q

collective domain of professional identity asks

A

who am I in relation to the profession?

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27
Q

what does your professional identity consist of

A

strengths, areas for growth, professional values/interests, communication style, professional networking

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28
Q

new PTs who have ______ in the first ear progress more rapidly

A

a mentor

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29
Q

In the first year as a pt , the most powerful learning occurs through ______

A

doing

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30
Q

stages that new PTs go through in the first year

A

transition, euphoria, angst recognizing and reconciling the realities of the practice, adaptation

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31
Q

basic instructional level

A

assumes participants have little information within the areas to be covered so that the focus of the activity is a general orientation and increased awareness

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32
Q

intermediate instructional level

A

assumes that the participants have a general familiarity with the topic so it focuses on increased understanding and application

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33
Q

advanced instructional level

A

assumes thorough familiarity with he topic and focuses on advanced techniques, recent advances and future directions

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34
Q

residency =

A

prepares you to be board certified, typically newer professionals, designed to enhance therapist’s expertise in a defined area of clinical practice

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35
Q

fellowship

A

provides greater depth within a subspecialty area –> NOT FOR NEW PROFESSIONALS

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36
Q

residency graduates perform _____ than non-residency graduates of specialty exams

A

better

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37
Q

what shoulder tests are good for telehealth

A

self speeds and self hawkins kennedy

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38
Q

purpose of the practice act

A

protecting the public health, safety and welfare and provides state with administrative control, supervision, licensure and regulation of practice of PT

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39
Q

administrative law

A

need a PT license and maintain your license in order to practice

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40
Q

negligence

A

omission (or commission) of an act that a reasonable and prudent person would (or would not) do not under given circumstance

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41
Q

professional negligence (malpractice) definition

A

occurs when the alleged wrongdoer is a licensed professional and the requisite action is within the scope of practice, thus requiring the knowledge and skills of a professional

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42
Q

intentional tort definition

A

an act that is intentionally committed knowing harm is a likely result (assault and battery)

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43
Q

assault definition

A

a threat to touch another without consent

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44
Q

battery definition

A

intentional touching of another without his or her consent

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45
Q

false imprisonment

A

confinement of a person to the extent that there is no reasonable exit and physical restraint was not necessary

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46
Q

defamation

A

communication to a third party or parties that that is unfounded and negative to their character (slander and libel)

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47
Q

fraud:

A

intentional misrepresentation in a manner that could cause harm `

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48
Q

what things need to be proven for negligence?

A

duty, breach, damages and causation

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49
Q

duty

A

duty owed to a person: occurs when a HC facility or provider undertakes care/treatmentc

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50
Q

corporate liability

A

company has a duty to hire qualified staff and supervise employees and monitor employee performance

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51
Q

Breach=

A

duty was not met, failure to act or failing to meet the standard of care

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52
Q

direct damages=

A

lost wages, current and future medical expeses

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53
Q

indirect damages=

A

value for pain, emotional distress and loss of consortium, loss of companionship is big

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54
Q

punitive damages

A

added with conduct was intentionally harmful or so negligent that it demonstrates a willful disregard for a standard of care

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55
Q

causation

A

causal relation between the breach of duty and damages that occurred

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56
Q

what is a summons

A

written legal document given tot he defendant naming them as the defendant, the plaintiff, jurisdiction and when/where to appear

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57
Q

what is a complaint

A

gives details about the case against the defendant and outlines the basis of the suit

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58
Q

what happens in a discovery

A

written and oral depositions, request for production of records

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59
Q

civil fraud

A

claiming a certain care plan will cure patient while knowing that it will not

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60
Q

criminal fraud

A

billing for services that were never rendered

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61
Q

when is harassment unlawful

A

when it is offensive to become enduring and a condition of continued employment or conduct is severe or pervasive enough to create a work environment that a reasonable person would consider intimidating, hostile or abusive

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62
Q

most common injury claims are

A

fractures, burns and increase/exacerbation of symptoms

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63
Q

most closed claims come from

A

falls, reinjury, burns and private practice

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64
Q

what class experiences the most allegations

A

professional conduct

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65
Q

how to minimize risk of allegations

A

communicate effectively with pts, families and colleagues
delegate only when appropriate and never leave treatment area when pt receives treatment from another level of staff
adopt an informed consent process that involves discussion and teach-back, follow documentation standards, avoid documentation errors, maintain clinical competencies specific to the patient population, be safe, recognize the patients comorbidites/condition that may affect treatment, respect pts, monitor environment for safety and know/comply to the state laws

66
Q

overt problem

A

noncompliant event that is obvious or easily seen

67
Q

covert problem

A

noncompliant event that is not obvious or easily seen

68
Q

what is a trend analysis

A

review and assessment of data taken over a period of time with the intention of identifying patterns in the organization

69
Q

occult problems

A

noncompliant event that is deeply hidden and cannot be identified without an in-depth investigation

70
Q

most important aspect of effective grassroots campaign

A

personal relationship with legislator

71
Q

how to build rltp with legislator

A

office visit, practice visit, town halls, fundraisers
be prepared, be unified, be informed

72
Q

who elects all members of board of directors

A

house of dlegates

73
Q

if we have a concern where would we take it

A

brought to board member of assembly member of the chapter

74
Q

what is consultation for a physical therapist

A

professional/expert opinion or advice
identifying problems, recommending solutions and produce a specific outcome in set amount of time

75
Q

What is general supervision:

A

PT is not required to be on site for direction and supervision, but must be available at least by telecommunications

76
Q

What is direct supervision:

A

PT is physically present and immediately available : can not be through telecommunications

77
Q

Direct Personal Supervision

A

PT or PTA is physically present and immediately available to direct and supervise tasks that are related to patient/client management. The direction and supervision is continuous throughout the time these tasks are performed. Telecommunications does not meet requirement of direct personal supervision

78
Q

How long is a PTA program

A

2 years

79
Q

What can’t be delegated to a PTA

A

Interpretation of referrals, examinations, PT diagnosis, develop POC, conducting re-exams, overseeing care/documentation/progress, discharge, screening (if it is during exam), dry needling, joint mobilizations, sharp debridment, or any situation with unstable response

80
Q

Consider when delegating

A

PTA education, training and skill level
Patient/client complexity, stability, criticality, acuity
Predictability of the intervention
Proximity of the PT
Supervision available with emergencies

81
Q

Other things to consider with delegation to PTA

A

Type of setting
Federal or state statute
Liability and risk management
Mission of PT services for the setting
Needed frequency of re-examination

82
Q

When does off site PTA supervision HAVE to be made

A

At least once a month, or at higher frequency when established by the PT, in accordance with the needs of the patient/client
Need to have on-site reexamine, on-site review of the POC with appropriate revision or termination, evaluation of need/recommendation for other resources

83
Q

If a change in medical status or POC or discharge is needed what does the PT and PTA do

A

PTA delegates to the PT an PT must perform re-eval

84
Q

Who is responsible for PTAs (direction and supervision)

A

the PTs

85
Q

PTAs assist with __________ aspect only

A

Intervention

86
Q

What type of supervision does Medicare require for PTAs in Private Practice PT

A

Direct on-site

87
Q

Is Part B covered for students in Medicare

A

No unless directed by PT and supervision has to be Direct

88
Q

Where can you look for information for PT and PTA information

A

APTA, payer website, practice act, supervisor or legal counsel of organization

89
Q

other definitions of a PT consultant

A

An individual to whom one refers for expert advice or services
A person who gives professional advice or services to a company for a fee
A person who by training and experience has acquired special knowledge in a
subject area that has been recognized by a peer group

90
Q

A PT consultant is not an employee of the company but works as an _________ ________

A

independent contractor

91
Q

attributes of a good consultant

A

expertise, objective, communication skills, good listener, professionalism, team player, ability to see multiple points of view, problem solving skills

92
Q

Phases of consulting

A

Entry and contracting
data collection and diagnosis
feedback and decision to act
implementation
extension, recycle or termination

93
Q

what happens during the feedback and decision to act phase

A

report findings in a manageable way
involve the client in analyzing
be prepared for resistance
set goals within a timeframe
determine steps to action

94
Q

what happens in the entry and contracting phase

A

meeting with client
exploring problem
decide if you’re the right consultant
listing clients’ expectations
specify your expectations
determining how to get started

95
Q

what happens during the extension, recycle or termination phase

A

evaluate success or failure
extend or recycle service if real problem is discovered
terminate if goals met

96
Q

what do you need to know/have in a consulting agreement

A

statement of independent contractor
description of scope of services
terms and conditions like resources, fees, expectations, purpose/objectives and termination circumstances
date of service
who will own any intellectual property that develops out of the project
signatures

97
Q

why does healthcare reform matter to us

A

payment and legal issues

98
Q

what year was the american disabilities act

A

1990

99
Q

when did HIPPA law enact and what was it’s impact

A

1996
established pt privacy and continuity of healthcare
enhanced penalties for fraud and abuse
established medicare integrity program

100
Q

when was the affordable care act enacted

A

2010

101
Q

G codes were enacted under what bill and when

A

2012 under the Middle Class Tax Relief Bill

102
Q

Describe the impact act of 2014

A

improved medicare acute care transformation act
enacted standardized data submission for all post-acute care facilities

103
Q

what are the four modes of healthcare financing in the US

A

out of pocket
individual private insurance
employment based group insurance
government-social insurance model

104
Q

Describe a Preferred Provider Organization insurance (PPO)

A

can see any provider in network without referral (may not be the case with PT) , in-network costs are significantly lower

105
Q

Describe Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) insurance

A

you must have a PCP who directs all services to in-network members/specialists

106
Q

what is point of service insurance

A

cash based model

107
Q

describe a High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP)

A

healthcare plan with high initial deductible cost but lower yearly or monthly premiums

108
Q

who owns ICD-9 and ICD-10 codes and what are they

A

World Health Organization
diagnostic codes

109
Q

Who owns Procedure codes and what are they

A

its what PT did
owned by American Medical Association

110
Q

where are procedure codes required

A

private practice, outpatient hospital, medicare part B SNF payment

111
Q

a lot of people that are underinsured also are ____

A

below federal poverty line

112
Q

consequence of uninsured

A

no usual source of care
less likely to have been seen by HC provider in last 6 months
unmet needs
worse healthcare outcomes
huge financial burden

113
Q

what was the affordable car act

A

identified essential health benefits
employer and individual mandates
reduced the uninsured

114
Q

what are the 10 essential health benefits from the affordable care act

A

ambulatory patient services
emergency services
hospitalization
maternity/newborn care
mental heath/substance abuse/behavioral health
prescription drugs
rehab abd habilitative
laboratory services
prevention and wellness services
pediatric (oral and vision included)

115
Q

are the minimum benefits the same in each state

A

no

116
Q

what does affordable mean in the affordable care acts employer mandate

A

employee’s contribution does not exceed 9.5% of household income

117
Q

what are applicable large employers

A

defined as averaged t lest 50 full time equivalents during previous calendar year

118
Q

what was the individual mandate in the affordable care act

A

individuals must have insurance for themselves and any dependents
failure to do so will equal monthly penalty on tax return

119
Q

exceptions to affordable care act

A

can’t afford
incarcerated
individual is not lawfully in U.S
refusal of healthcare due to religious beliefs
members of indian tribes

120
Q

Affordable care act eliminated ______

A

adverse selection: insurance companies couldn’t deny someone with worse health just because it would cost them more

121
Q

what is the medical loss ratio

A

insurers who do not spend 85% (large market) or 80% (medium market) on the insurer health costs, must provide rebate to consumers

122
Q

who qualifies for medicaid

A

earn less than 138% of FPL

123
Q

100% poverty line for family of 4

A

$30,000

124
Q

medicaid enrollees are

A

sicker and more disabled

125
Q

what is quality care

A

means doing the right thing at the right time in the right way for the right person and having the best results possible

126
Q

What is the Hospital Readmissions Reductions Program

A

if medicare pt returns with new admission within 30 days of discharge than the government punishes the acute care hospital

127
Q

ACOs share in _____ _______ with the government

A

cost savings

128
Q

what is included in bundle payments

A

acute, patient hospital services, physician services, outpatient hospital services, post acute care services beginning 3 days prior to hospitalization and spanning 30 days following discharge

129
Q

what is the PTs role as a researcher

A

we need to apply principles of scientific methods: read and interpret literature; participate in, plan and conduct research, evaluate outcome data and assess new concepts/technologies

130
Q

considerations for conducting research in a clinical setting

A

facility or institutional resources
patient management
reporting/managing research related injury or illness
modifying or terminating the project

131
Q

Purpose of research agenda for APTA

A

encourage programs of research among junior investigators and increase awareness of PT scientists among funding agencies

132
Q

what is population research

A

seeks to characterize, explain and/or influence the levels of distributions of health across populations

133
Q

what are the action items of population research

A

disparities
social determinants of health
interventions

134
Q

what is health services research

A

how do social factors, financing systems, organizational structures/processes, technologies and personal behavior affect access to health care/total cost of HC and quality of HC

135
Q

what ares are included in health services research

A

pt experience, personalized medicine, shared decision making

136
Q

action items of health services research

A

delivery models
utilization and cost
payment and insurance

137
Q

what is clinical research

A

looks at safety, effectiveness, efficacy of diagnosis and diagnostic procedures, treatment regimens and protocols, devices and technology intended for human use

138
Q

action areas of clinical research

A

telehealth
value
treatment/interventions

139
Q

what areas are included in clinical research

A

genomics
novel technologies
innovation

140
Q

general themes of clinical research

A

documenting effectiveness of interventions
validating diagnostic or classification systems
accurately identifying prognostic indicators of functional limitations or disability

141
Q

who is apart of the research team

A

PTs
Physicians
administrative support

142
Q

what does the IRB do

A

protects the rights and welfare of human subjects recruited to participate in research activities

143
Q

HC administrators must be prepared to handle

A

technology innovations
compliance strategies
organizational behavior
healthcare financing
human resources
health information management
facility management

144
Q

quality HC policies come from

A

Joint commission
agency for HC research and quality (AHRQ)

145
Q

case fatality %

A

total number of patients who died due to a specific condition/total number who were diagnosed with that condition (within a time period)

146
Q

patient centered care includes

A

respect, inclusion, inform, comfort, support, transition

147
Q

when does a direct access patient need to be referred

A

if not showing functional improvement after 10 visits or 15 business days whichever comes first

148
Q

what is required to treat TMD

A

a referral

149
Q

how soon do medicare certification of plan of care need to be submitted for payment

A

30 days

150
Q

low risk definition:

A

probably of harm is less than 10%, harm could be minor and insignificant

151
Q

high risk definition

A

probably of harm is likely or over 50% any harm could be major or catastrophic

152
Q

moderate risk definition

A

probably of harm is moderate (10-50%) any harm could be moderate, preventative measures can reduce the probability

153
Q

status quo phase of change

A

comfortable with expectations, administrator efforts needed for change

154
Q

disruption phase of change

A

employees fearful of change and resent it, administrative efforts needed in empathy and support/training

155
Q

exploration phase of change

A

employees let go of fears, may demonstrate benefits to change, administration needs to provide support and training as needed by ensuring opportunities for change

156
Q

rebuilding phase of change

A

employees accept and embrace change
administrators just need to reinforce the new behaviors

157
Q

competing style of resolution

A

assertive and uncooperative
power-oriented, standing up for your rights and what you believe as correct, individual pursues their own concerns at the other’s expense

158
Q

accommodating style of resolution

A

unassertive and cooperative
opposite of competition
individual neglects their own concerns and satisfies the concerns of others
element of sacrifice/ selfless, generous or even yielding to someone else

159
Q

avoiding style of resolution

A

unassertive and uncooperative
individual doesn’t pursue their own concerns or others concerns
don’t address he conflict
sidestepping the issue or postponing it
simply withdrawing

160
Q

collaborating style of resolution

A

assertive and cooperative
opposite of avoiding
attempt to work with another person and find solution that satisfies everyone

161
Q

compromising style of resolution

A

intermediate between assertiveness and cooperativeness
objective is to find some mutually acceptable solution that partially satisfies
gives up more than competing but less than accommodating
less exploration than collaborating
splitting difference, quick middle ground

162
Q

compromising givens up ____ than competing but _____ than accommodating

A

more, less

PT roles and professionalism (3 decks)

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