Role Of Director Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of examining the role of Directors, Board, and management?

A

To understand their roles in corporate, government, NFP, and CMEs.

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2
Q

What is corporate governance?

A

A framework of rules, relationships, systems, and processes by which authority is exercised and controlled in corporations.

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3
Q

What are the key functions of the board and its directors?

A
  • Approving and overseeing business operations
  • Reporting performance with transparency
  • Ensuring adherence to good corporate governance principles
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4
Q

What are the consequences of breaching director’s duties?

A

Potential legal liabilities and loss of reputation.

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5
Q

What are the ASX Corporate Governance Principles?

A
  • Responsibilities of the board
  • Structure of the board
  • Culture maintenance
  • Regular and accurate reporting
  • Timely and balanced disclosure
  • Shareholder rights
  • Risk management
  • Fair remuneration
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6
Q

True or False: Shareholders hold the board responsible for the company’s performance.

A

True

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7
Q

What steps can a board take to instil values in a company?

A
  • Define core values clearly
  • Lead by example
  • Integrate values into governance
  • Communicate values consistently
  • Align hiring with values
  • Embed values in systems
  • Encourage accountability
  • Recognize value-based behaviour
  • Engage stakeholders
  • Regularly review values
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8
Q

Fill in the blank: Corporate culture is formed by _______.

A

[beliefs, history, values, experiences of an organization]

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9
Q

What are the types of companies mentioned?

A
  • Incorporated entities
  • Unincorporated entities
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10
Q

What are the benefits of incorporation?

A
  • Separate legal entity
  • Continuity of existence
  • Limited liability for shareholders
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11
Q

What defines a proprietary company?

A
  • No more than 50 shareholders
  • Restricted rights to transfer shares
  • No ability to raise public capital
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12
Q

What is the role of a non-executive director?

A

Not employed by the organization, provides oversight.

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13
Q

Who can be considered a de facto director?

A

A person not validly appointed but performs the functions of a director.

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14
Q

What is the role of the chair of the board?

A

Responsible for the board agenda, presiding over meetings, and leading the board.

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15
Q

What is required for the appointment of directors?

A

Directors are appointed by shareholders, usually at the AGM.

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16
Q

What are the prohibitions on being a director?

A
  • Under 18 years of age
  • Insolvent
  • Disqualified under the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth)
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17
Q

What must happen for a director to be removed?

A

A resolution must be passed by shareholders, and the process must be documented.

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18
Q

What is the legal status of a company?

A

Recognized as a separate legal ‘person’ under the law.

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19
Q

What are the essential functions of directors?

A
  • Strategy formulation
  • Resource allocation
  • Performance monitoring
  • Compliance oversight
  • Risk management
  • Accountability to shareholders
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20
Q

What is a shadow director?

A

A person not validly appointed but whose instructions are followed by other directors.

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21
Q

What does the board collectively oversee?

A

The organization’s interest on behalf of shareholders/members.

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22
Q

What is the significance of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth)?

A

It governs the operation of Australian companies.

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23
Q

True or False: A company can continue to exist even after shareholders change.

A

True

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24
Q

What is the responsibility of the board regarding risk management?

A

To oversee and ensure a sound risk management framework.

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25
Q

Fill in the blank: The board must provide _______ to shareholders.

A

[timely and transparent reporting]

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26
Q

What is a principal executive officer?

A

The officer who takes the main role in the management of the organization.

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27
Q

What is a partnership?

A

An unincorporated business run by two or more persons for profit.

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28
Q

What is the role of officers in an organization?

A

Involved in decision-making and can impact financial standing.

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29
Q

What document outlines the operational framework of a company?

A

The constitution.

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30
Q

What are the key elements of a corporate governance statement?

A
  • Policies
  • Performance
  • Compliance with recommendations
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31
Q

What is the primary function of directors regarding strategy?

A

To set performance targets to meet commercial and community expectations.

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32
Q

What resources must directors make available for effective management?

A

CEO and succession plan.

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33
Q

What are the essential functions of directors?

A
  • Strategy
  • Resources
  • Performance
  • Compliance
  • Risk
  • Accountability to shareholders
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34
Q

Define compliance in the context of corporate governance.

A

Forced law, rule, regulation that must be followed.

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35
Q

What is performance in corporate governance?

A

Being productive or improving quality.

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36
Q

True or False: Boards should only avoid risks in their decision-making.

A

False.

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37
Q

What should delegations of authority include?

A
  • Matters reserved for the board
  • Matters delegated to management
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38
Q

What are the external aspects of compliance?

A

Establishing legal aspects and obtaining legal advice on matters.

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39
Q

What should directors monitor regarding performance?

A

Business plans, financial health using KPIs.

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40
Q

What should KPIs indicate?

A

Current position and progress towards objectives.

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41
Q

Fill in the blank: Directors should set the ______ and values.

A

purpose

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42
Q

Who typically evaluates the CEO’s performance?

A

Specialist advisers, chair, or non-exec director.

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43
Q

What is the role of directors in risk management?

A

Identify risks and develop strategies to mitigate the risk.

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44
Q

What is a fiduciary duty?

A

The relationship between directors and shareholders based on trust, honesty, care, and responsibility.

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45
Q

What does the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) require from directors?

A

To act in good faith for the best interest of the corporation.

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46
Q

What should directors disclose according to the Corporations Act?

A

Material personal interest in matters relating to the affairs of the company.

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47
Q

What constitutes a conflict of interest for directors?

A
  • Entering into a contract with the organization
  • Making a personal profit
  • Misuse of confidential information
  • Working as a competitor
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48
Q

What are the consequences of improper use of position?

A
  • Gain advantage for themselves or someone else
  • Cause detriment to the corporation
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49
Q

What does the duty of care and diligence entail?

A

Exercising powers and discharging duties in good faith.

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50
Q

What is the Business Judgement Rule?

A

A director is deemed to meet their duties if they make a business judgment in good faith for a proper purpose.

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51
Q

What areas should directors understand that arise from the organization’s activities?

A
  • Contracts
  • Trade practices
  • Intellectual property
  • Environmental law
  • Employment laws
  • Anti-discrimination law
  • Taxation
  • Data and cybersecurity
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52
Q

True or False: Directors owe a direct duty to creditors.

A

False.

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53
Q

What is the purpose of Safe Harbour provisions?

A

Conditional on paying employee entitlements and ATO obligations before going into administration or liquidation.

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54
Q

What are the maximum penalties for breaches of duty as per the Treasury Laws Amendment?

A

Increased maximum imprisonment and financial penalties.

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55
Q

What rights do directors have according to the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth)?

A
  • Right to information
  • Right to advise
  • Right to be heard
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56
Q

What must be recorded in minutes when directors delegate their powers?

A

The delegation itself.

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57
Q

What happens if a director is found to have acted recklessly?

A

They can be charged with a criminal offence.

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58
Q

What is the potential maximum civil penalty for individuals under the Amendment Act?

A

$1.565 million or three times the benefit gained.

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59
Q

What is the significance of monitoring financial management?

A

To ensure proper use of resources and compliance with financial reporting standards.

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60
Q

What should be done if an organization cannot pay its debts?

A

Obtain professional advice on the next course of action.

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61
Q

What is the duration of director rights after they cease to be a director?

A

7 years

This is a Common Law and Corporations Act right.

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62
Q

What is the Right to Advise?

A

Right to access independent advice other than that provided by the corporation.

63
Q

What is the Right to Be Heard?

A

Right to have views and concerns heard and recorded at meetings.

64
Q

What must be recorded when a director delegates their powers?

A

Must be recorded in minutes.

65
Q

What is the best protection for directors?

A

Vigilance in the performance of duties.

66
Q

What does D&O insurance provide?

A

Indemnity for directors and officers.

67
Q

What are the key responsibilities of directors?

A

Establish governance to meet shareholder/member expectations.

68
Q

What stakeholders depend on the leadership of directors?

A
  • Stakeholders
  • Employees
  • Members
  • Suppliers
  • Creditors
  • Broader society
69
Q

What does the Rio Tinto case illustrate about stakeholder expectations?

A

Expectations include prioritizing ESG considerations and ethical governance.

70
Q

True or False: Shareholders now expect boards to prioritize short-term profits over long-term value creation.

71
Q

What are the two main focuses for boards to manage expectations effectively?

A
  • Governance and oversight
  • Stakeholder engagement
72
Q

What should boards do to strengthen governance and oversight?

A
  • Integrate ESG into strategy
  • Establish clear accountability
  • Conduct regular reviews and audits
73
Q

What is a key action in meaningful stakeholder engagement?

A

Early and ongoing consultation with affected communities.

74
Q

What should be linked to executive compensation?

A

ESG metrics.

75
Q

Name a benefit of a diverse board composition.

A

Better positioned to manage contemporary expectations.

76
Q

What is a robust risk management framework designed to do?

A

Identify potential ESG-related risks early.

77
Q

What is a key area of information a board should review before entering a joint partnership?

A

Strategic fit and business case.

78
Q

What is one potential financial risk of a partnership?

A

Unequal financial commitments.

79
Q

Fill in the blank: A board must conduct thorough _______ before entering into a joint partnership.

A

due diligence

80
Q

What is a potential operational risk of a partnership?

A

Dependency risk.

81
Q

What can lead to brand and reputational damage in a partnership?

A

A partner’s ethical, environmental, or operational failures.

82
Q

What should be established to oversee decision-making in a partnership?

A

A strong governance framework.

83
Q

What is an essential step in crisis preparedness?

A

Swift and transparent response to issues.

84
Q

What does the STAR Entertainment case discuss?

A

Allegations regarding the behavior of directors and officers failing to meet the required duty of care.

85
Q

What should the board conduct to minimize risks when entering a partnership?

A

Thorough due diligence on the partner’s financials, legal standing, governance, and reputation.

Due diligence helps to identify potential risks and ensure compatibility before forming a partnership.

86
Q

What is the purpose of a well-structured partnership agreement?

A

To clearly define roles, responsibilities, and expectations.

A clear agreement helps prevent misunderstandings and conflicts between partners.

87
Q

List three key steps to reduce conflicts of interest for board members.

A
  • Full Disclosure & Transparency
  • Recusal from Discussions & Decisions
  • Establish a Conflict of Interest Policy
88
Q

What should a Conflict of Interest Policy outline?

A
  • What constitutes a conflict (e.g., family relationships, business ties)
  • The process for disclosure and management of conflicts
  • Consequences for non-compliance
89
Q

True or False: Board members should engage in discussions related to their own conflicts of interest.

A

False

Board members should recuse themselves from discussions and decision-making when a conflict arises.

90
Q

What is one way to ensure that individuals with disabilities are included in board governance?

A

Appoint individuals with disabilities as board members.

This ensures firsthand perspectives are considered in decision-making.

91
Q

What should be provided to remove barriers to participation for individuals with disabilities?

A
  • Accessible meeting formats
  • Flexible participation options
  • Accessible materials
92
Q

How can a Deputy Chair enhance board effectiveness?

A

By supporting the Chair and facilitating board evaluations.

This includes managing board dynamics and ensuring accountability.

93
Q

What key performance indicators (KPIs) should be set for assessing CEO performance?

A
  • Financial metrics
  • Operational performance
  • Leadership effectiveness
  • Stakeholder impact
94
Q

What is the role of the board when addressing loss of goodwill during a merger?

A

To manage stakeholder concerns, rebuild trust, and protect long-term value.

This includes conducting assessments and strengthening communication.

95
Q

What does ASIC stand for and what is its main role?

A

Australian Securities and Investments Commission; regulates organizations to protect consumers, investors, and creditors.

ASIC was created under the ASIC Act 2001 (Cth).

96
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ is responsible for enforcing the Competition and Consumer Act 2010 (Cth).

A

Australian Competition and Consumer Commission (ACCC)

97
Q

What does the AICD Code of Conduct require from its members?

A
  • Act honestly and in good faith
  • Use care and diligence
  • Manage conflicts of interest
  • Maintain confidentiality
98
Q

List three things that every board must get right.

A
  • Establish whom the board represents
  • Set a positive role in corporate strategy
  • Ensure effective internal controls
99
Q

What is the purpose of the session on board meetings and governance?

A

To examine the composition and structure of the board and develop effective meeting procedures.

100
Q

What should a board ensure regarding stakeholder engagement?

A

Transparency and trust.

This includes acting as a liaison between the board and key stakeholders.

101
Q

What should boards do to verify accurate disclosures?

A

Ensure timely and complete disclosures to members, shareholders, and regulators.

102
Q

What is the purpose of the board meeting session?

A

To examine the composition and structure of the board and develop effective meeting procedures.

103
Q

What will participants be able to identify after the session?

A

Relevant board meeting protocols and procedures (including the use of committees).

104
Q

List the factors that a board’s composition depends on.

A
  • Board size
  • Director tenure
  • Structure of the organisation
  • Stage of the organisation’s development
  • Locations of operation
  • Strategies being pursued
  • Nature of the organisation
  • Company type (family, publicly listed, Indigenous, proprietary)
105
Q

What must be disclosed in governance reporting?

A

The composition of the board and governance structures.

106
Q

What are the types of boards mentioned?

A
  • All executive boards
  • All non-executive boards
  • Majority executive
  • Majority non-executive
107
Q

True or False: All executive boards are made up entirely of non-executive directors.

108
Q

What is the advantage of an all-executive board?

A

Can make quick decisions working together.

109
Q

What is a key requirement of the Aged Care Act 1996 (Cth) regarding board composition?

A

Majority independent non-executive directors (NEDs) and at least one with experience in clinical care.

110
Q

What does diversity in a board help to achieve?

A
  • A range of views and perspectives
  • New ideas and innovation
  • Reduce risk of blind spots in decision making
111
Q

What are characteristics of effective directors?

A
  • High ethical standards
  • Skills and experience
  • Competence in specialised area
  • Sound judgement
  • Willingness to challenge opinions
  • Integrity
  • Ability to devote required time
112
Q

What should board meetings allow for?

A

Formal and informal proceedings, including time for free discussion.

113
Q

What is the role of the Chair in a board meeting?

A

Link between board and organisation, encourage open debate, keep board informed, evaluate CEO’s performance.

114
Q

Fill in the blank: The agenda of a board meeting is usually set by the chair, CEO, and _______.

A

[company secretary].

115
Q

What is the purpose of board committees?

A

To conduct more detailed work and make recommendations to the board.

116
Q

What is a key responsibility of the audit committee?

A

Communication between board and internal/external auditors.

117
Q

What must be monitored by the risk committee?

A

If the organisation is operating within its risk appetite.

118
Q

What is a challenge in evaluating a board?

A

Lack of clear evaluation criteria.

119
Q

What is one of the key actions to improve board performance?

A

Establish clear expectations for board roles and responsibilities.

120
Q

What is a ‘Circular Resolution’?

A

Allows decisions to be passed without a meeting, by sending written documents to be signed.

121
Q

True or False: Board meeting attendance includes the CEO and other executives.

122
Q

What should board meeting minutes be?

A

Accurate and authentic.

123
Q

What is the purpose of the CEO’s report?

A

To provide a progress report on the organisation’s plans, policies, and budget.

124
Q

What should the CFO’s report include?

A
  • P&L
  • Balance sheet
  • Cash flow statement
125
Q

What should be considered when developing a board culture?

A

Encourage divergent views and open discussions.

126
Q

What are the key elements necessary to build a business case?

A
  • Options
  • Feasibility
  • Accountability
  • Risks
127
Q

What is the ideal size of a board?

A

Large enough to include diversity of skills but small enough to operate cohesively.

128
Q

What is the significance of diversity of thinking on a board?

A

It brings diverse perspectives and approaches.

129
Q

What should board evaluations assess?

A
  • Strategy formulation
  • Performance of organisation
  • Risk management
  • Board composition
  • Board relations
  • Board culture
  • Efficiency of operations and governance
130
Q

What is one way to improve decision-making processes in board meetings?

A

Provide well-structured meeting agendas with clear objectives.

131
Q

Fill in the blank: The board can authorize management for expenditure up to a certain _______.

132
Q

What should be included in well-structured meeting agendas?

A

Clear objectives

Agendas should guide the meeting effectively.

133
Q

How can data and expert insights be utilized in meetings?

A

To inform strategic discussions

134
Q

What is a key strategy to avoid groupthink in meetings?

A

Ensure meetings allow for diverse perspectives

135
Q

What are important factors to strengthen board composition?

A
  • Recruit directors with diverse expertise
  • Include independent members
  • Ensure a mix of seasoned and emerging leaders
136
Q

What is the role of external expertise in board governance?

A
  • Invite industry experts to present
  • Encourage mentorship between board members
  • Benchmark against best practices
137
Q

What is a significant risk for directors regarding insolvency?

A

Directors may personally be liable for debts

138
Q

What should directors check to understand an organization’s insolvency risk?

A
  • Financial reports
  • Auditor’s feedback
  • Minutes and financial statements
139
Q

What is regulatory risk in the context of board governance?

A

Directors can be liable for the organization’s breach of duties

140
Q

What should directors review to assess performance risk?

A

Minutes and resolutions before accepting an appointment

141
Q

What factors contribute to reputational risk for board members?

A
  • Potential litigation history
  • Time, capacity, and resources for the role
142
Q

What should be researched regarding board dynamics?

A
  • Background and skills of current directors
  • Relationship between stakeholders and management
  • Potential for conflict
  • Alignment with board values
143
Q

What should NFP directors consider regarding their role?

A

Alignment with the cause of the charity

144
Q

What is a recommended practice for ensuring accurate board meeting minutes?

A

Assign a competent minute-taker

145
Q

What should a standardized template for meeting minutes include?

A
  • Date, time, location
  • Attendees
  • Agenda items
  • Discussions, decisions, action points
146
Q

What is essential when documenting decisions and actions in meeting minutes?

A
  • State resolutions passed
  • Note conflicts of interest
  • Assign follow-up actions
147
Q

What is the importance of reviewing and approving minutes promptly?

A

To allow corrections before final approval

148
Q

What should be maintained to ensure confidentiality and compliance in record-keeping?

A

Secure records

149
Q

What financial documents are essential when selling a business?

A
  • Profit & Loss Statements
  • Balance Sheets
  • Cash Flow Statements
  • Tax Returns
  • Debt and Loan Agreements
150
Q

What is included in business valuation during a sale?

A
  • Recent valuation reports
  • Comparable sales data
  • Details on intellectual property
151
Q

What legal documents are necessary for a business sale?

A
  • Business registration documents
  • Contracts with suppliers
  • Lease agreements
  • Employment contracts
152
Q

What operational information should be prepared for a business sale?

A
  • Organizational structure
  • Standard operating procedures
  • Customer and supplier contracts
153
Q

What market information is crucial for selling a business?

A
  • Market analysis
  • Customer demographics
  • Competitor analysis
154
Q

What should a transition and exit plan include when selling a business?

A
  • Owner’s role post-sale
  • Employee retention plan
  • Potential risks and liabilities