Risk: Issues For Directors Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key stages within the strategic planning process?

A
  1. Description of the desired outcome (vision)
  2. Statement of the work done (mission)
  3. Development of strategic plans
  4. Implementation and monitoring
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2
Q

What is the definition of strategy?

A

The process of selecting goals and developing ways to achieve them long-term

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3
Q

What does VUCA stand for in the context of developing good strategy?

A

Volatility, Uncertainty, Complexity, Ambiguity

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4
Q

What is the time horizon for a strategic plan?

A

3-5 years, reviewed annually

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5
Q

What is the primary purpose of business plans?

A

Outlines actions to implement the strategic plan, including forecasts, financial plans, and budgets

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6
Q

True or False: Operational plans provide details that assist with the planning.

A

True

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7
Q

What must be aligned with the strategic plan?

A

Budget and financial sustainability

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8
Q

What role does the board play in setting strategy?

A

The board must be proactively engaged in strategic planning

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9
Q

In owner-operator organisations, what is the board’s role?

A

Assess risks and assist the owner in implementing strategy

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10
Q

What is the role of the board in not-for-profit organisations (NFPs)?

A

Set the plan with the CEO

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11
Q

What is a key responsibility of the board regarding strategy?

A

Ensuring the organisation has an appropriate strategy

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12
Q

What are the four key questions in the planning cycle?

A
  1. Where are we now
  2. Where do we want to be
  3. How do we get there
  4. How will we know we are on track
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13
Q

What does SWOT analysis help identify?

A

Areas to focus on to create value

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the Blue Ocean Strategy?

A

To create uncontested market space and make competition irrelevant

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15
Q

What is strategic intent?

A

Key deliverables that will be achieved during the plan period and the value it will create

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16
Q

What is the Ansoff Matrix used for?

A

To analyze growth strategies

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17
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ strategy is undisciplined and enters the market with better, cheaper options.

A

disruptive

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18
Q

What are some methods for cost reduction?

A
  1. Scalability/Efficiency
  2. Sourcing supplies at reduced cost
  3. Vertical integration
  4. Process improvement
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19
Q

What are KPIs?

A

Key Performance Indicators used to measure the success of strategic plans

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20
Q

List some indicators of future performance.

A
  • Innovation monitoring
  • Culture health indicators
  • Sales pipeline quality
  • Sick leave trends
  • Quality control/defects
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21
Q

What type of reporting should be used for exceptions in strategic plans?

A

Exception-based reporting

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22
Q

What is the purpose of a balanced scorecard?

A

To provide transparency, ensure alignment between mission and execution, and allow for customization

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23
Q

What is strategic risk?

A

Risks that could prevent the organisation from achieving its strategic goals

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24
Q

What is competitive risk?

A

The risk of falling behind competitors as they innovate faster

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25
Q

What does operational risk refer to?

A

The risk that operations and business processes are not up to standard

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26
Q

What are two common reasons strategies fail?

A
  1. Not understanding the problem
  2. Not understanding the organisation’s capabilities
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27
Q

What should be included in a strategic plan review?

A
  1. Value created for shareholders
  2. Consistency with vision, mission, and values
  3. Identification of strengths and opportunities
28
Q

What are the four common reasons strategies fail?

A
  • Not understanding the problem
  • Not understanding the organization’s capabilities
  • Not understanding the immovable pressures
  • Not understanding the cultural landscape

These reasons highlight the importance of comprehensive understanding in strategic planning.

29
Q

What does the term ‘organizational capabilities’ refer to in strategy execution?

A

The collective abilities of an organization to perform its functions effectively and efficiently.

This includes resources, skills, and processes available to the organization.

30
Q

What percentage of employees spend less than three hours per week on strategic work according to a recent study?

A

76%

This statistic indicates a significant gap in strategic engagement among employees.

31
Q

What are the five key culture questions for boards?

A
  • Clear direction on culture
  • Monitoring of organizational culture
  • Support of structures and policies for desired culture
  • Access to reliable data on culture realization
  • Relevance of current cultural values for the future

These questions help boards assess and guide the culture within the organization.

32
Q

What are the four steps in the strategic planning cycle?

A
  • Formulation
  • Approval
  • Implementation
  • Review

This cycle ensures that the strategic plan is developed, approved, executed, and evaluated effectively.

33
Q

What is the purpose of the PESTELED framework?

A

To analyze various external factors that can impact an organization.

PESTELED stands for Political, Economic, Social-cultural, Technological, Environmental, Legal, Ethical, and Demographic factors.

34
Q

What are Porter’s Five Forces?

A
  • Rivalry among existing industry participants
  • Bargaining power of customers
  • Threat of new entrants
  • Bargaining power of suppliers
  • Threat of substitute products or services

These forces help analyze the competitive environment of an industry.

35
Q

Define ‘risk capacity’.

A

The broad-based amount of risk an organization can accept in pursuit of its objectives.

This term is crucial for understanding how much risk an organization is willing to undertake.

36
Q

What is the difference between inherent risk and residual risk?

A
  • Inherent risk: identified but not treated
  • Residual risk: identified and treated, but some risk remains

Understanding both types of risk is essential for effective risk management.

37
Q

What is meant by ‘risk appetite’?

A

The amount of risk an organization is willing to take in achieving its goals.

This concept varies between different risks and informs decision-making processes.

38
Q

Fill in the blank: The process of identifying potential events that may impact an entity and managing the risk according to the organization’s risk appetite is known as _______.

A

risk management

Effective risk management is vital for organizational success.

39
Q

What are the components of the International Risk Management Framework?

A
  • Integrated
  • Structured and comprehensive
  • Customized
  • Inclusive
  • Dynamic
  • Best available information
  • Human and cultural factors
  • Continual improvement

These components ensure a comprehensive approach to risk management.

40
Q

What should directors ensure regarding risk appetite?

A

It aligns with the organization’s risk culture, vision, mission, and values.

Alignment is essential for effective risk governance.

41
Q

What is the role of directors in risk management?

A
  • Establishing risk appetite levels
  • Revisiting risk appetite regularly
  • Receiving active reports on key issues
  • Conducting ‘deep dives’ for assurance

Directors play a crucial role in overseeing and guiding risk management processes.

42
Q

True or False: Directors should only focus on financial risks in risk management.

A

False

Directors need to consider a broad range of risks, including operational, strategic, and compliance risks.

43
Q

What factors influence organizational risk cycles?

A
  • Size of the organization
  • Financial health
  • Stage of maturation
  • Competition
  • Changing regulatory environment
  • Nature of the decision
  • Industry speed of change
  • State of the economy

These factors impact how an organization manages risks over time.

44
Q

What is risk velocity?

A

How quickly one goes from the onset of the risk to the impact of the risk.

Understanding risk velocity helps organizations prepare for potential impacts.

45
Q

What are the two types of cycles most organisations operate on?

A

Short-term or annual cycle and a longer-term strategic cycle of 5 years.

46
Q

What is the purpose of a reporting culture?

A

To encourage people to report errors, unsafe conditions, inappropriate procedures, and other concerns.

47
Q

Who sets the reporting parameters in an organisation?

A

Directors, board, CEO.

48
Q

What systems should be established for effective complaints handling?

A

Internal and external complaints handling, near-miss reporting, whistleblowing systems.

49
Q

What is the role of a whistleblowing system?

A

To protect the reporter and encourage a reporting culture.

50
Q

True or False: Blame should be attached to reporting in a just culture.

51
Q

What does a thinking and learning culture encourage?

A

Thinking about new technologies and business models.

52
Q

What should a risk-aware culture promote among directors and boards?

A

Mindfulness of risk without fear.

53
Q

Fill in the blank: An ethical culture must consider the _______ of the organisation on its risk framework.

54
Q

What are the key components of ISO 2018 Risk Management Guidelines regarding communication?

A
  • Bring different areas of expertise together
  • Ensure different views are considered
  • Provide sufficient information for risk oversight
  • Build a sense of inclusiveness
55
Q

What is involved in the scope, context, criteria aspect of risk management?

A
  • Define the scope of risk management activities
  • Establish external and internal context
  • Specify acceptable levels of risk
56
Q

What are the three steps in risk assessment?

A
  • Risk identification
  • Risk analysis
  • Risk evaluation
57
Q

What should monitoring and review systems establish?

A

Monitoring and reporting systems in all stages of the risk management process.

58
Q

What personal risks do directors face?

A
  • Inability to meet governance challenges
  • Reputation
  • Defamation
  • Secrets and surprises
  • Board dysfunctionality
  • Financial viability
  • Conflicts of interest
59
Q

What is the first step in business continuity planning?

A

Understanding areas of business vulnerability.

60
Q

What is a crucial component of crisis management?

A
  • Have a plan
  • Identify a spokesperson
  • Be honest and open
  • Keep employees informed
61
Q

What actions should directors take regarding risk management?

A
  • Undertake due diligence
  • Understand risk terms
  • Develop and renew risk appetite
  • Review risk management framework
62
Q

Fill in the blank: It is critical to ensure a review process is _______.

A

[in place]

63
Q

True or False: Complacency around business continuity and crisis management planning is acceptable.

64
Q

What should be the focus of training, testing, and maintaining the business continuity plan?

A

Testing in a real environment when key personnel are unavailable.

65
Q

What does the ISO 22301 standard provide?

A

Guidance for establishing a business continuity system (BCM).

66
Q

What is a key aspect of effective risk culture?

A

Aligning culture throughout the entire organisation.