Financial Statements Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main duties of directors regarding financial reporting?

A
  1. Solvency
  2. Statutory financial reporting

Directors must ensure the organization is solvent and comply with reporting standards.

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2
Q

What are the three main financial statements?

A
  • Income statement
  • Balance sheet
  • Cash flow statement

These statements provide insights into an organization’s financial performance and position.

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3
Q

What is the definition of solvency?

A

A person is solvent when they are able to pay all the person’s debts when they are due and payable

Solvency is crucial for assessing an organization’s financial health.

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4
Q

What does Section 588G of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) relate to?

A

Liability for debts incurred by the company if the director has reasonable grounds to suspect insolvency

Directors must act responsibly to avoid personal liability.

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5
Q

Under what conditions do Safe Harbour Provisions apply?

A

If directors develop actions likely to improve the company’s outcome instead of immediate liquidation

This provision protects directors from liability during financial distress.

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6
Q

What are the duties related to keeping financial records?

A
  • Correctly record transactions
  • Explain financial position and performance
  • Enable preparation of true and fair financial statements

Proper record-keeping is essential for transparency and accountability.

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7
Q

What is the purpose of an audit committee?

A

To assist the board in fulfilling obligations regarding external financial reports and communication with auditors

The committee enhances governance and financial integrity.

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8
Q

What must be included in the financial report for a financial year according to the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth)?

A
  • Financial statements
  • Notes to the accounts
  • Directors’ declaration

These components ensure comprehensive financial disclosure.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the director’s declaration?

A

To confirm compliance with Accounting Standards and that the financial statements present a true and fair view

This declaration is a key accountability measure for directors.

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10
Q

What is the role of the auditor’s report?

A

To provide an independent opinion on the financial statements and assure compliance with laws and Accounting Standards

The auditor’s report adds credibility to financial disclosures.

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11
Q

What does the income statement measure?

A

The activity of an organization over a period of time, focusing on revenues and expenses

It reflects the performance in delivering goods and services.

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12
Q

What are the key components of a balance sheet?

A
  • Assets
  • Liabilities
  • Equity

The balance sheet provides a snapshot of financial position at a specific point in time.

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13
Q

What is the significance of materiality in financial statements?

A

Information is material if its omission or misstatement could influence decisions of users

Materiality guides what information must be disclosed.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ statement provides insight into the cash inflows and outflows of an organization.

A

[cash flow]

The cash flow statement is vital for assessing liquidity.

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15
Q

What factors should directors consider when evaluating the income statement?

A
  • Timing of revenues and expenses
  • Accrual accounting policies
  • Significant variances from budget

Directors must ensure accuracy and accountability in financial reporting.

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16
Q

What are the key responsibilities of the audit committee?

A
  • Reviewing financial statements
  • Ensuring independent audits
  • Overseeing internal control systems
  • Liaising with internal auditors
  • Reviewing compliance obligations

These responsibilities ensure effective governance and risk management.

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17
Q

What is the definition of ‘going concern’ in accounting?

A

The assumption that an organization will continue to operate for the foreseeable future

This concept is critical for financial statement preparation.

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18
Q

What must be disclosed in the director’s report for a public company?

A
  • Review of operations
  • Significant changes in state of affairs
  • Principal activities
  • Matters affecting future operations

These disclosures provide transparency to stakeholders.

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19
Q

What is the primary purpose of assessing an organisation’s financial position?

A

To determine if the assets, liabilities, and equity are increasing or decreasing in value over time.

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20
Q

What should directors consider regarding the existence of assets?

A

Directors need to ensure that the organisation is in physical control of the assets on the books.

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21
Q

What is meant by control in the context of assets?

A

Directors should be cautious about including assets in the balance sheet if there is a dispute over their control.

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22
Q

How can asset valuation change over time?

A

An asset might be restated to reflect a more current valuation than its original or historical cost.

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23
Q

What is fair value in asset valuation?

A

Fair value reflects a current market value less any costs to sell the asset.

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24
Q

What is the recoverable amount of an asset?

A

The higher of its fair value and its value-in-use, discounted to determine the recoverable amount.

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25
Q

What happens if an asset’s carrying value exceeds its recoverable amount?

A

The asset value must be reduced to the recoverable amount.

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26
Q

What should directors look for regarding liabilities?

A

Directors should assess the value, classification, discount, and contingent nature of liabilities.

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27
Q

What is the difference between current liabilities and non-current liabilities?

A

Current liabilities are due within the next 12 months, while non-current liabilities are due after that period.

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28
Q

What represents equity in an organisation?

A

Equity is the safety margin between the assets and liabilities.

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29
Q

What are the three main ways to generate equity?

A
  • Contributed equity
  • Reserves
  • Retained profits or accumulated losses
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30
Q

What is contributed equity?

A

Capital contributed by the owners of the organisation, typically through share sales.

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31
Q

What is an asset revaluation reserve?

A

Created by the revaluation of an asset that has increased in value.

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32
Q

What are retained profits?

A

Accumulated profits over time minus any payments made to shareholders.

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the statement of changes in equity?

A

To show movements in all components of equity for the period.

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34
Q

What does a cash flow statement summarize?

A

The flow of cash through the organisation’s bank accounts for the financial reporting period.

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35
Q

What are cash equivalents?

A

Very liquid financial instruments, such as short-term money market facilities.

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36
Q

What should directors ensure regarding cash flow?

A

They should understand how the organisation generates its cash.

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37
Q

What is a positive net operating cash flow?

A

Surplus cash generated from the operations of the business.

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38
Q

What indicates insufficient generation of operating cash flow?

A
  • Negative operating cash flows
  • Cash receipts less than cash payments
  • Net cash from operating activities lower than profit after tax
39
Q

What is a self-generating business?

A

A business where net cash inflow from operating activities is sufficient to cover required payments.

40
Q

What are the three common types of budgets or forecasts?

A
  • Projected income statement
  • Projected balance sheet
  • Cash flow forecast
41
Q

What characterizes a budget?

A

It is a planning document usually updated once a year and compared to actual results to determine variances.

42
Q

What is a forecast?

A

An estimate of what is expected to happen, updated regularly based on current circumstances.

43
Q

What is the purpose of a cash flow forecast?

A

To estimate when receipts will be collected, payments made, and cash left on hand.

44
Q

What does the cash inflow section of a cash flow forecast include?

A

All anticipated cash receipts including major asset sales, borrowings, and share issues.

45
Q

What should directors review regarding cash flow management?

A

Levels of cash on hand, collection of receivables, payment arrangements, and access to facilities.

46
Q

What is the reporting period requirement for public companies?

A

Financial statements must be presented to shareholders within four months of the end of the year.

47
Q

What is the maximum time frame for public companies to present financial statements to shareholders after the end of the year?

A

Four months for public companies, three months for listed companies.

48
Q

What is a challenge in benchmarking an organization’s financial statements?

A

Different accounting methods used may hinder accurate benchmarking.

49
Q

What does the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) require regarding general purpose financial statements?

A

They must be prepared in accordance with Accounting Standards issued by the AASB.

50
Q

What are the three requirements outlined in s 245T of the Corporations Act 2001 (Cth) for declaring a dividend?

A
  • Company’s assets must exceed liabilities before declaring dividend
  • Payment must be fair and reasonable to shareholders
  • Payment must not materially prejudice ability to pay creditors.
51
Q

How is goodwill defined in accounting?

A

Goodwill is the purchase price less the fair value of net assets acquired.

52
Q

What must be done to goodwill according to Accounting Standards?

A

Goodwill must be impairment-tested annually.

53
Q

What is the going concern assumption?

A

It assesses whether an entity will continue to function as a legal entity for the next 12 months.

54
Q

What should be done regarding estimates and judgments in financial reporting?

A

They should be reliable under current economic conditions.

55
Q

What are the two tiers of accounting standards for Not-for-Profit entities in Australia?

A
  • Tier 1: IFRS as adopted in Australia
  • Tier 2: Simplified Disclosures for For-Profit and Not-for-Profit Entities.
56
Q

What is required from small charities under the Australian Charities and NFPs Commission?

A

Annual information statement for charities with income less than 500K.

57
Q

What financial statement must medium-sized charities provide?

A

General purpose statements that comply with AAS.

58
Q

What is the accounting treatment for revenue from donations under AASB 1058?

A

Recognized once control of funds is established.

59
Q

When should pledges be recorded as revenue?

A

Pledges should not be recorded until funds are received.

60
Q

What must be done with volunteer services in government NFP sectors?

A

Valued at fair value and recorded in financial statements if reliably measurable.

61
Q

What breaches apply regarding insolvent trading?

A

Breaches apply only to directors, not management (officers).

62
Q

What should directors ensure regarding staff and audit processes?

A
  • Employ highest calibre staff
  • Define and accurate audit processes.
63
Q

What key financial performance indicators should directors monitor?

A
  • Budget usage
  • Expense control
  • Financial strengths and weaknesses.
64
Q

What are the components of an income statement?

A
  • Sales and other revenue
  • Profit before and after tax
  • Cost structures.
65
Q

What is the significance of the cash flow statement?

A

It should compare current year to previous year and be positive.

66
Q

What defines working capital?

A

Current assets less current liabilities.

67
Q

What does the current ratio assess?

A

The organization’s ability to pay debts as they fall due.

68
Q

What does the days’ receivables ratio measure?

A

Average length of days from invoice date to receiving payment.

69
Q

What is the average length of days it takes to sell entire inventory called?

A

Days inventory.

70
Q

What are financing ratios used to measure?

A

Sufficiency of profit to meet interest payments and relationship between liabilities and equity.

71
Q

What is the purpose of calculating and analyzing key ratios?

A

To assess and monitor the organization’s financial performance.

72
Q

What is the relationship between gross profit margin and profitability?

A

Gross profit margin must be adequate to cover overheads and deliver profit.

73
Q

What does the term ‘negative cash conversion cycle’ imply?

A

Receives cash faster than payments are made to suppliers.

74
Q

What are interest cover and debt to equity ratios used to measure?

A

The sufficiency of profit to meet interest payments and the relationship between liabilities and equity.

75
Q

What should gross profit and EBIT margins do over time?

A

Be maintained and, if possible, improved.

76
Q

What is the total profit generated a combination of?

A
  • The profit margin per sale
  • The volume of sales made
77
Q

What is a volume business example?

A

Supermarkets.

78
Q

What does EBIT stand for?

A

Earnings Before Interest and Tax.

79
Q

What is the primary difference in profit margins between NFPS and commercial organizations?

A

NFPS will have a lower margin than commercial organizations.

80
Q

What does Return on Equity (ROE) use to measure profit?

A

Profit after interest and tax, termed ‘net profit’.

81
Q

What is the best report to indicate early cash flow concerns?

A

12-month rolling cash flow.

82
Q

What are the three basic options for using specialists in insolvency?

A
  • Voluntary administration
  • Receivership
  • Liquidation
83
Q

What is the order of payment during the winding-up of an organization?

A
  • Liquidator and their costs
  • Secured creditors
  • Priority unsecured creditors
  • Unsecured creditors
  • Shareholders
84
Q

What are the four key financial warning signals?

A
  • Negative net operating cash flow
  • Payments to suppliers and staff exceed receipts from customers
  • Positive operating cash flows insufficient to cover new asset purchases
  • Net cash from operating activities lower than profit after income tax
85
Q

True or False: Delaying payments to creditors is a warning sign of financial distress.

86
Q

What should management accounts be for each board meeting?

A

Current and produced promptly at each month-end.

87
Q

What should directors do if they are concerned about the organization’s solvency?

A
  • Not incur further debts
  • Cease trading
  • Obtain immediate financial support
  • Use voluntary administration
  • Appoint a liquidator
88
Q

What are key elements of a successful performance indicator program?

A
  • What is being reported
  • Obtain senior management support
  • Plan systematically
  • Form a working group
  • Open communications
  • Involve employees
  • Measure and analyse
89
Q

How is labour performance measured?

A

By dividing output by hours worked, number of employees, or labour.

90
Q

What should directors consider in risk management?

A
  • Compliance/statutory
  • Legal/commercial
  • Political/economic
  • Financial/funding
  • Management
  • Operational
  • Service delivery
  • Health and safety
  • Human resources
  • Stakeholders
  • IT/information management
  • Security
91
Q

What are the primary roles of directors in relation to the budget?

A
  • Setting budget parameters
  • Reviewing and proposing changes to the budget
  • Monitoring actual expenditure compared to the budget
  • Using performance against budget figures as early warning
92
Q

What should be assessed regarding the business’s financial health?

A
  • Growth status
  • Trends causing changes
  • Solvency
  • Liquidity of assets
  • Due dates for debts
  • Equity levels on the balance sheet
  • Alignment with financial risk appetite
93
Q

What considerations should be made for financial reporting to the board?

A
  • Policy outlining board requirements
  • Consistency of presentation
  • Level of detail required
  • Best way to present information
  • Relevant measuring units
  • Need for trend analysis
  • Relevant ratios to track