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Infectious Disease and Microbiology > Role of Bacteria in Disease > Flashcards

Role of Bacteria in Disease Flashcards

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1
Q

The clinical management of a Bacterial infection is predicated on the ability to develop an

A

accurate differential diagnosis

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2
Q

The development of an infection depends on the complex interaction of:

A
  • The host’s susceptibility to infection.
  • The organism virulence potential
  • The opportunity for interaction between host and organism.
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3
Q

Gram positive bacteria

A

Large group of mostly chemoorganotrophs( organisms that depends on organic chemicals for its energy and carbon)

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4
Q

proteobacteria

A

is by far the largest and Gram-positive most metabolically diverse of all bacteria

  • Constitute the majority of all known, industrial and agricultural significance
  • all gram negative
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5
Q

firmicutes

A

nonsporulatinng and endospore-forming firmicutes

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6
Q

mollicutes

A

mycoplasmas

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7
Q

actinobacteria

A
  • coryneform & propionic acid bacteria
  • mycobacterium
  • filamentous
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8
Q

filamentous actinobacteria

A

streptomyocytes & relatives

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9
Q

key genera nonsporulating firmicutes

A

staphylococcus, micrococcus, lactobacillus, streptococcus, sarcina

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10
Q

staphylococus and micrococcus

A
  • gram +
  • non-motile
  • non-sporulated
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11
Q

catlase-positive

A

converts H2O2 into H2O and O2

-different from streptococcus

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12
Q

staphylococcus and micrococcus are resistant to

A

reduced water potential, tolerate drying and high salt

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13
Q

micrococcus is a

A

strictly aerobic pigmented bacteria (yellow, red)

  • obligate aerobe
  • produce acid from glucose only under aerobic conditions
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14
Q

micrococcus can be isolated from

A

skin but is much more common on dust particles and in soil

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15
Q

staphylococcus is a

A

facultative anaerobe

-produce acid from glucose both aerobically and anaerobically

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16
Q

_____ forms cell clusters whereas _______ does not

A

staphylococcus, micrococcus

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17
Q

What are the two major species of staph in humans?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis and aureus

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18
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis

A
  • non pigemented
  • non-pathogenic organism found on skin or mucous membranes
  • grows well on 7.5% NaCl containing media
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19
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Yellow pigmented species associated with pathological conditions
- boils, pimples, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, meningitis and arthritis

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20
Q

staphylococcus

A
  • grow in grape like cluster
  • individual cell about 0.8 micrometer
  • gram +
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21
Q

Staph lab diagnosis

A

gram + cocci that grow in cluster of grape

-should be innoculated onto nutritional agar with sheep blood

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22
Q

Staphylococci grow on

A

non-selective media

  • incubated with aerobically or anaerobically
  • large, smooth colonies seen within 24 hours
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23
Q

S. aureus colonies will

A

gradually turn yellow

-particularly when cultures are incubated at room temperature

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24
Q

almost all isolates of S. aureus produce

A

beta-Hemolysis pattern on sheep blood agar due to an alpha-toxin

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25
Q

Staph laboratoy diagnosis

A

coagulase: converts fibrinogen in plasma to fibrin

mannitol salt agar: selective differential medium (causes phenol red to turn yellow

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26
Q

Coagulase Negative

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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27
Q

Coagulase Positive

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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28
Q

Staphylococcus epidermidis on Mannitol Salt Agar

A

remains pink/red

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29
Q

Staphylococcus aureus on Mannitol Salt Agar

A

turns yellow

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30
Q

lactic acid bacteria

A

are gram + rods and cocci that produce Lactic acid as a major or sole fermentation product

  • dont carry out oxidative phosphorylation
  • obtain energy only by substrate-level phosphorylation
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31
Q

members of lactic acid group lack

A

porphyrins and cytochromes

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32
Q

all lactic acid bacteria grow

A

anaerobically

-not sensitive to oxygen and can grow with it present

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33
Q

aerotolerant aneaerobes

A

anaerobes that aren’t sensitive to O2 and can grow in its presence

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34
Q

homofermentative

A

produces a single fermentation product

-lactic acid

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35
Q

heterofermentative

A

produces other products

-mainly ethanol, CO2 and lactate

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36
Q

streptococcus

A

homofermentative

  • typically arranged in pairs of chains
  • some species pathogenic to humans and animals
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37
Q

lactococcus

A

streptococci of dairy significance

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38
Q

enterococcus

A

streptococi primarily of fecal origin

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39
Q

lactobacillus

A

rod shaped

  • vary from long and slender to short, bent rods
  • common in dairy products
  • resistant to acidic conditions
  • grows in pH as low as 4
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40
Q

Lactobacillus acidophillus

A

used in production of acidophilus milk

-breaks down food in intestine

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41
Q

listeria

A

gram-positive faculative anaerobic cocccobacilli

  • form chains 3-5 cells long
  • require full oxic or microoxic conditions for growth
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42
Q

listeria monocytogenes

A

causes major food borne illness (listeriosis)

  • transmitted in contaminated ready to eat food
  • causes mild illness to fatal form of meningitis
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43
Q

Oxford Agar media

A

selective and differential and used for detection of listeria from raw or unpasteurized food

  • selective components include lithium chloride, acriflavin, colistin sulphate, cefotetan, cycloheximide and phosphomyocin
  • produces black zones under/around Listeria colonies
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44
Q

endospore forming firmicutes key genera

A

bacillus, clostridium, sporosarcina, heliobacterium

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45
Q

endospores are advantageous for

A

soil microorganisms because its highly variable environment (temperature, nutrient levels and water activity)

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46
Q

endospore forming bacteria can be selectively isolated from soil and/or food by heating the sample to

A

80 degrees celsius for 10 min

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47
Q

bacillus and paenibacillus produce

A

extracellular hydrolytic enzymes that break down polymers such as polysaccharides, nucleic acids and lipids

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48
Q

many bacilli produce

A

antibiotics

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49
Q

paenibacillus papillae and bacillus thuringinesis produce

A

insect larvicides

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50
Q

What is toxic to certain insects which produce lysis of their intestinal cells

A

crystalline protein (Bt toxin)

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51
Q

clostridium

A

lack repiratory chain, anaerobic, found in anoxic soils

  • posses subterminal spores
  • some pathogenic and cause botulism, tetanus and gangrene
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52
Q

sporosarcina

A

unique among endospore formers because cells are cocci

  • strictly aerobic, spherical cells
  • common in soils
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53
Q

mollicutes key genera

A

mycoplasma, spiroplasma

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54
Q

mollicutes

A
  • lack cells walls, peptidoglycan absent

- dont stain gram +

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55
Q

mycoplasma cells are

A

pleomorphic

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56
Q

growth of mycoplasmas

A
  • media typically complex

- colonies show characteristic fried egg appearance

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57
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae epidemiogolgy

A

causes up to 40 % of community acquired pneumonia
-incidence greatest among school age children
infection is mild and may be asymptomatic in adults with history of previous infection
-1-3 week incubation period
-bacteria spread by large particles by aerosol to close contact

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58
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae pathogenesis

A
  • inhaled by host and attache to cells in respiratory tract

- bacteria produce P1 adhesion protein

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59
Q

cold agglutinins

A

autoantibodies believed to be result of antigenic alteration of erythrocytes

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60
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae clinical presentation

A

infection develop gradually over period of several days and can persist weeks to months
-involve upper respiratory tract, lower respiratory tract or both

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61
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae infections are frequent triggers of

A

reactive airway disease (asthma)

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62
Q

mycoplasma pneumoniae diagnosis mady by

A

polymerase chain reaction (PCR), nasopharyngeal swab, aspirate or sputum

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63
Q

treatment of mycoplasm pneumoniae

A

macrolide, inhibitors of protein synthesis, tetracycline, inhibitor of protein synthesis
fluoroquinolonies, inhibitor of DNA gyrase

64
Q

actinobacteria key genera

A

corynebacterium, arthobacter, propionibacterium

65
Q

actinobacteria

A

form their own phylum

  • gram +
  • over 30 taxonomic families
  • rod shaped to filamentous
  • usually aerobic
  • valuable for antibiotics and certain fermented dairy
66
Q

corynebacterium

A

gram-positive

  • aerobic
  • non-motile
  • rod shaped
67
Q

What kind of cell arrangements do Corynebacterium form during normal cell growth?

A

club-shaped, irregular-shaped or V-shaped

68
Q

corynebacterium are

A

extremely diverse

-include animal and plant pathogens

69
Q

arthrobacter

A

primary soil organisms

  • remarkably resistant to desiccation and starvation
  • dont form spores or other resting cells
70
Q

propionic acid bacteria

A

first discovered in swiss cheese

71
Q

What is responsible for the characteristic holes in Swiss cheese?

A

Fermentative production of CO2 from propionic acid bacteria

72
Q

What is partly responsible for unique flavor of swiss cheese?

A

propionic acid

73
Q

gram positive anaerobes that ferment

A

lactic acid, carbohydrates and polyhydroxy alcohols

-primarily produce propionic acid, acetic acid and CO2

74
Q

mycobacterium

A

nonmotile, non-spore forming aerobic Gram+ rods

-stain acid fast

75
Q

What unique lipids are only found in the presence of mycobacterium

A

mycolic acids

76
Q

acid fastness

A

resistance to decolorization by acids during Gram staining procedures
-not readily stained by gram stain because of high waxy-surface due to lipid content

77
Q

What mixture of dyes is used in acid-fast stain?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

-red dye basic fuchsin and phenol

78
Q

Cells are somewhat______

A

pleomorphic

79
Q

pleomorphic

A

ability of some bacteria to alter their shape or size in response to environmental conditions

80
Q

What kind of colonies does Mycobacteria form?

A

On solid media, it forms tight, compact, wrinkled colonies due probably to the high lipid content and hydrophobic nature of the cell surface

81
Q

What is needed to stiumulate the growth of M. tuberculosis in the laboratory?

A

Lipids and fatty acids

82
Q

What is often used in primary isolation of M tuberculosis?

A

Glycerol-Egg medium

83
Q

What are the three groups mycobacteria can be classified into?

A
  1. Nonpigmented
  2. Photochromogenesis
  3. Scrotochromogenesis
84
Q

M. Tuberculosis is carried in

A

airborne particles, Infectious droplet nuclei

85
Q

How is TB spread?

A

From person to person through the air

86
Q

Filamentous actinobacteria key genera

A

Streptomyces, Actinomyces

87
Q

Actinomycetes

A

large group of phylogenetically related filamentous

-gram + bacteria

88
Q

most actinomycetes form

A

spores

89
Q

Most important genus of actinomycetes

A

Streptomyces

90
Q

Streptomyces

A

over 500 species

  • spores are called conidia
  • primarily soil microorganisms, responsible for earthy odor of soil
  • strict aerobes that produce many extracellular enzymes
91
Q

Most striking physiological property of streptomyces

A

they produce ATM (antibiotics)

92
Q

About ___ of all isolated_____ produce_____

A

50%, streptomycetes, antibiotics

93
Q

Streptomyces species are

A

important to soil environments because they’re capable of metabolizing other organisms’s remains

94
Q

What do Streptomyces release when they die?

A

Geosmin

-responsible for the earthy aroma often after rain

95
Q

Chlamydia key genera

A

chlamydia, chlamydophila

96
Q

chlamydia

A

obligate intracellular parasites with poor metabolic capacities
-gram - type cell walls

97
Q

chlamydophilia psittaci

A

causative agent of the disease psittacosis

98
Q

chlamydophiila pneumoniae

A

cause respiratory syndromes

99
Q

chlaymydia trachomatis

A

causative agent of disease trachoma

100
Q

psittacosis

A

epidemic disease of birds thats occasionally transmitted to humans and causes pneumoia-like symptoms

101
Q

trachoma

A

debilitating disease of the eye characterized by vascularization and scarring of the cornea
-leading cause of blindness in humans

102
Q

elementary body

A

small, dense cell

  • relatively resistant to drying
  • infectious
  • non-multiplying
103
Q

reticulate body

A

larger, less dense cell

  • divides by binary fission
  • non-infectious
104
Q

chlamydias are primarily____ invaders of the________ system

A

airborne, respiratory

105
Q

_______ is the most prevalent STI

A

chlamydia

106
Q

What causes chlamydia?

A

Bacterium chlamydia trachomatis

-obligate intracellular bacterium

107
Q

Where can women get chlamydia?

A

In the cervix, rectum or throat

108
Q

Where can men get chlamydia?

A

Urethra (inside the penis) rectum or throat

109
Q

Symptoms of chlamydia in women include

A
  • abnormal vaginal discharge (may have strong smell)
  • burning sensation when urinating
  • pain during intercourse
110
Q

Symptoms of chlamydia in men include

A
  • discharge from the penis
  • burning sensation when urinating
  • burning or itching around the opening of the penis
  • pain and swelling in one or both testicles
111
Q

treatment of chlamydia

A

antibiotics

-doxycycline, erythromycin

112
Q

Bacteroides

A
  • Obligately anaerobic, non-sporulating Gram-Negative bacteria
  • saccharolytic, fermenting sugars or proteins to acetate and succinate as major fermentation products.
  • Numerically dominant bacterium in human intestinal tract
  • Some species of bacteroides can occasionally be pathogens
  • Synthesize sphingolipids
113
Q

Flavobacterium

A
  • Found primarily in aquatic environments
  • Aerobic, nutritionally restricted using glucose as a C & E
  • frequently yellow-pigmented
  • Rarely pathogenic
114
Q

Spirochetes key genera

A

Spirochaeta, Treponema, Cristispira, Leptospira, Borrelia

115
Q

Spirochetes

A
  • gram-Negative, motile, and tightly coiled Bacteria, slender and flexuous in shape.
  • Widespread in aquatic environments and in animals
  • Some cause diseases
116
Q

Spirochetes classified into 8 genera based on

A

habitat, pathogenicity, phylogeny, morphology, and physiology

117
Q

Spirochaeta

A
  • Free-living
  • anaerobic and facultative anaerobic spirochetes
  • common in aquatic environments
118
Q

Cristispira

A
  • Found in nature
  • primarily in the crystalline style of molluscs such as clams and oysters
  • crystalline style is a flexible, semi-solid rod in the digestive tract of the molluscs
119
Q

Treponema

A
  • Anaerobic or microaerophilic host-associated spirochetes

- commensal or parasites of humans

120
Q

treponoma palidium

A
  • causal agent of syphilis
  • the cell is flat and wavy
  • only 0.2μm in diameter
121
Q

Borrelia

A

Majority are human or animal pathogens

122
Q

Borrelia recurrentis

A

causative agent of relapsing fever in humans and is transmitted via an insect vector, lice

123
Q

relapsing fever

A
  • characterize by a high fever and generalized muscular pain that last for 3-7 days
  • followed by a recovery period of 7-9 days.
  • Left untreated, the fever returns in two to three more cycles and can cause death from hemorrhaging and organ failure
124
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

-causes Lyme disease
~transmitted to humans by the bite of infected ticks
-Early symptoms may include fever, headache, fatigue
and characteristic circular skin rash called erythema migrans
(bulls’-eye pattern)
-Left untreated later symptoms may involve the joints, heart and CNS

125
Q

Leptospira and Leptonema

A

Strictly aerobic spirochetes that use long-chain fatty acids (for
example, oleic acid) as e- donor and carbon sources.

126
Q

Leptospiras

A

thin, finely coiled, and usually bent at each end into a semicircular hook

127
Q

All genera within the pseudomonad group are

A
  • Straight or curved Gram-Negative rods with polar flagella
  • Chemoorganotrophs
  • aerobes
128
Q

Psuedonomads

A
  • Nutritionally versatile (very simple)
  • Ecologically important organisms in water and soil
  • Some species are pathogenic
129
Q

Zymomonas

A

Genus of large, Gram-Negative rods that carry out
vigorous fermentation of sugars to ethanol
-Used in production of fermented beverages

130
Q

In the genus _________ the cells are always ________

A

Neisseria, cocci

131
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

causative agent of the disease gonorrhea

132
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

is a serious pathogen that can cause a potential fatal inflammation of the membranes lining the brain

133
Q

Acinetobacter

A

common soil and water organisms

occasionally found as parasites of animals and have been implicated in some nosocomial infections

134
Q

Chromobacterium

A

rod-shaped

  • best known is C. violaceum (a purple pigmented organism)
  • found in soil and water and occasionally in pus-forming infections of humans and animals
135
Q

Enteric Bacteria

A

a major group of highly related, Gram-Negative, facultative bacteria

136
Q

Mixed-acid fermenters

A

three acids are formed in significant amounts: Acetic, Lactic, and Succinic
-Ethanol, CO2 and H2

137
Q

2,3-butanediol fermenters

A

smaller amounts of acid are form, and Butanediol

-Ethanol, CO2 and H2 are the main products

138
Q

Escherichia

A
  • Universal inhabitants of intestinal tract of humans and warm-blooded animals
  • Synthesize vitamins, particularly Vitamin K2
  • Some strains are pathogenic, implicated in diarrheal diseases, also urinary tract infections (mostly in women)
139
Q

Salmonella and Shigella

A
  • Closely related to Escherichia
  • Usually pathogenic, typhoid fever and gastroenteritis
  • Salmonella characterized immunologically by 3 surface antigens
  • found primarily in strains of Salmonella causing typhoid fever
  • Shigella typically pathogenic to humans, causing a severe gastroenteritis, release endotoxins
140
Q

Proteus

A
  • Genus containing highly motile cells
  • produce the enzyme urease
  • Frequent cause of urinary tract and wound infections in humans
  • an opportunistic pathogen of humans. E.g. Proteus vulgaris
141
Q

Butanediol fermenters

A

closely related group of organisms

-Enterobacter, Klebsiella, and Serratia

142
Q

Enterobacter aerogenes

A

common cause of urinary tract infections

143
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

causes pneumonia in humans but are commonly found in soil and water

144
Q

Serratia marcescens

A

causes a broad range of hospital-acquired infections
-including respiratory tract infections, UTI, septicemia, meningitis, pneumonia, conjunctivitis wound and eye infections, osteomyelitis, keratoconjunctivitis, keratitis, endophthalmitis and endocarditis.

145
Q

Vibrio

A
  • GramNegative,
  • Cells are Motile
  • straight or curved rods
  • Facultative aerobes
  • Fermentative metabolism
146
Q

One key difference between the Vibrio group and Enteric bacteria is that

A

members of the Vibrio group are Oxidase-positive

147
Q

_________ is one of the most common human infectious diseases in
developing countries and is transmitted almost exclusively via _______.

A

Cholera, water

148
Q

Cholera

A
  • is an infection in the small intestine caused by the bacterium vibrio cholerae
  • main symptoms are profuse watery diarrhea and vomiting
149
Q

Vibrio treatment

A
  • Oral or IV hydration is the mainstay of cholera treatment.
  • Doxycycline is recommended as first-line treatment for adults
  • Azithromycin is recommended as first-line treatment for children and pregnant women
  • During an epidemic or outbreak, antibiotic susceptibility should be monitored through regular testing of sample isolates from various geographic areas
150
Q

Rickettsias

A
  • Small Gram Negative, coccoid or rod-shaped cells
  • Alpha or Gammaproteobacteria
  • Most obligate intracellular parasites
  • Causative agent of several human diseases, including Typhus (Rickettsia typhi) and Q fever (Coxiella burnetii).
  • cell wall contains peptidoglycans
  • cells divide by binary fission.
  • Rickettsias do not survive long outside their hosts
151
Q

Gliding Bacteria

A
  • typically either long rods or filaments
  • Lack flagella, can move when in contact with surfaces
  • Myxobacteria is a group of gliding bacteria that form multicellular structures
  • Deltaproteobacteria
  • Aerobic Chemoorganotrophic soil bacteria
  • Lifestyle includes consumption of dead organic matter or other bacterial cells
152
Q

Epsilonproteobacteria

A
  • Abundant in oxic–anoxic interfaces in sulfur-rich environments.
  • Many are autotrophs
  • Use H2, formate, sulfide, or thiosulfate as electron donor.
153
Q

Campylobacter

A

-motile, comma-shape or spiral, strictly microaerophilic Gram Negative rods.

154
Q

The primary diseases caused by campylobacters are

A

gastroenteritis and septicemia

-Causes colicky abdominal pain and diarrhea.

155
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

Spiral-shaped, nonspore-forming Gram Negative rods, Oxidase and Catalase-positive, Highly motile bacterium with 4-6 flagella

  • Produce an abundance of Urease
  • associated with gastritis that can evolve into Chronic Gastritis
156
Q

QuickVue H. pylori Test

A

detects IgG antibodies specific to Helicobacter pylori in human serum, plasma or whole blood

157
Q

Urea Breath Test

A

checks if the patient has H. pylori in the stomach. It can show if there is a H. pylori infection

Infectious Disease and Microbiology (9 decks)

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