Rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

Presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome

A

CLOTS

  • clots
  • livedo reticularis (net like mottling of the skin)
  • obstetric complications
  • thrombocytopenia

Ix

  • diagnostic blood tests:
    • thrombocytopenia and a paradoxically prolonged APTT, as well as positive anti-phospholipid antibodies. These antibodies include anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies and lupus anti-coagulant.
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2
Q

What is Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

Malignant tumour that occurs most frequentlt in teh diaphyssi of the pelvis and long bones

  • affects children
  • onion skin appearance on xray
  • fna of lesion shows EWS-FLI1 protein
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3
Q

Name benign bone tumours

A
  • osteoma
  • osteochondroma
  • giant cell tumour
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4
Q

Name malignant bone tumours

A
  • osteosarcoma
  • Ewing’ sarcoma
  • chondrosarcoma
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5
Q

What is an osteoma?

A
  • benign ‘overgrowth’ of bone, most typically occuring on the skull
  • associated with Gardner’s syndrome (a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis, FAP)
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6
Q

What is an osteochondroma?

A
  • most common benign bone tumour
  • more in males, usually diagnosed in patients aged < 20 years
  • cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone
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7
Q

What is a giant cell tumour?

A
  • tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma
  • peak incidence: 20-40 years
  • occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones
  • X-ray shows a ‘double bubble’ or ‘soap bubble’ appearance
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8
Q

What is an osteosarcoma?

A
  • most common primary malignant bone tumour
  • children and adolescents
  • occurs in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure:
    • with 40% occuring in the femur, 20% in the tibia, and 10% in the humerus
  • x-ray shows Codman triangle (from periosteal elevation) and ‘sunburst’ pattern
  • mutation of the Rb gene significantly increases risk of osteosarcoma (hence association with retinoblastoma)
  • other predisposing factors include Paget’s disease of the bone and radiotherapy
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9
Q

What is Chondrosarcoma?

A
  • malignant tumour of cartilage
  • most commonly affects the axial skeleton
  • more common in middle-age
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10
Q

What is dermatomyositis

A
  • an inflammatory disorder causing symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness and characteristic skin lesions
  • may be from underlying malignancy
  • 80% are ANA positive
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11
Q

What is Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Marfan’s syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15 that codes for the protein fibrillin-1.

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12
Q

Common side effects of biphosphonates

A
  • oesophageal reactions
  • osteonecrosis of the jaw
  • atypical stress fracture
  • hypocalcaemia
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13
Q

Features of psoriatic arthropathy

A
  • symmetrical polyarthritis
  • asymmetrical oligoarthritis
  • sacroilitis
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14
Q

CREST syndrome

A

Type of systemic sclerosis

  • Calcinosis
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
  • Oesophageal dysmotility
  • Sclerodactly
  • Telangiectasia
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15
Q

What is a type I hypersensitivity

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • atopy (asthma, eczema, hayfever)
  • Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells
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16
Q

What is a type II hypersensitivity?

A

Cell bound

- Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
• ITP
• Goodpasture's syndrome
• Pernicious anaemia
• Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions
• Rheumatic fever
• Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid
  • IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface
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17
Q

What is type III hypersensitivity?

A

Immune complex

Serum sickness
• Systemic lupus erythematosus
• Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
• Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)

  • Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine
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18
Q

What is Type IV hypersensitivity

A

Delayes hypersensitivity

T cell mediated

Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction
• Graft versus host disease
• Allergic contact dermatitis
• Scabies
• Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
• Multiple sclerosis
• Guillain-Barre syndrome
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19
Q

Aspiration of gout shows

A

Negatively birefringent crystals

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20
Q

Blood tests of an osteomalacia patient

A

Low calcium and phosphate

High alkaline phosphotase

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21
Q

Treatment for osteomalacia

A

Vitamin D supplementation

- a loading dose is often needed initially

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22
Q

What is a poor prognosis for RA?

A
rheumatoid factor positive
anti-CCP antibodies
poor functional status at presentation
X-ray: early erosions (e.g. after < 2 years)
extra articular features e.g. nodules
HLA DR4
insidious onset
23
Q

Drug interactions of methotrexate?

A

avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently - increases risk of marrow aplasia
high-dose aspirin increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity secondary to reduced excretion
*treatment of choice for methotrexate toxicity is folinic acid

24
Q

X-ray findings of ankolysis spondylitis

A

Subchondral erosions, sclerosis and sqauring of lumbar vertebrae
Syndesmophytes

25
What antibodies seen in drug induced lupus?
Anti-histone antibodies
26
Skin features in dermatomyositis
photosensitive macular rash over back and shoulder heliotrope rash in the periorbital region Gottron's papules - roughened red papules over extensor surfaces of fingers 'mechanic's hands': extremely dry and scaly hands with linear 'cracks' on the palmar and lateral aspects of the fingers nail fold capillary dilatation
27
Blood tests seen in osteoporosis
Normal Ca, PO, ALP, PTH
28
Blood tests seen in osteomalacia
Decreased Ca and PO | Increased ALP and PTH
29
Blood tests seen in primary hyperparathyroidism | Osteitis fibrosa cystica
Increased Ca, ALP and PTH | Decreased phosphate
30
Blood tests seen in CKD | Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Decreased Ca | Increased phosphate, ALP, PTH
31
Blood tests seen in Paget’s disease
Normal Ca, PO, PTH | Increased ALP
32
Blood tests seen in osteopetrosis
All normal | Ca, PO, ALP, PTH
33
Blood tests in osteogenesis imperfecta
Normal Ca, PO, PTH, ALP
34
Ankolysing spondylitis features
The A’s - apical fibrosis - anterior uveitis - aortic regurgitation - achilles tendonitis - AV node block - Amyloidosis
35
DEXA scan | How is Z score adjusted
Age, gender, ethnic factors
36
DEXA scan | What is T score based on
Based on bone mass of young reference population
37
HLA- A3 association
Haemochromotosis
38
HLA-B51 association
Bechet’s disease
39
HLA-B27 assosciation
- ankolysing spondylitis - reactive arthritis - acute anterior uveitis
40
HLA-DQ2/ DQ8 association
- coeliac disease
41
HLA-DR2 association
- narcolepsy | - Goodpasture’s
42
HLA-DR3 association
- dermatitis herpetiformis - Sjogren’s syndrome - primary biliary cirrhosis
43
HLA-DR4 association
- T1DM | - RA (in particular the DRB1 gene)
44
What score is used for hypermobility?
Beighton score
45
Adverse effects of methotrexate
- mucositis - myleosuppression - pneumonitis - pulmonary fibrosis - liver fibrosis
46
What is Felty’s syndrome?
Splenomegaly and neutropenia in a patient with RA
47
Antibodies associated with Sjogren’s syndrome
- anti-Ro (70%) | - anti-La (30%)
48
What are the rotator cuff muscles
SItS - supraspinatus - infraspinatus - teres minor - subscapularis
49
Function of supraspinatus
Abducts arm before deltoid and is most commonly injured
50
Function of infraspinatus
Rotates arm laterally
51
Function of teres minor
Adducts and rotates arm laterally
52
Function of subscapularis
Adducts and rotates arm medially
53
Which drugs co-prescribed casues bone marrow suppresion
Azathioprine and allopurinol
54
First line treatment for osteoarthritis
- paracetomal and topical NSAIDs