rheumatoid arthritis Flashcards

epidemiology, genetics, natural history, clinical expression including clinical subtypes, pathology, and disease pathogenesis.

1
Q

What are some poor prognostic signs in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Rapid development of functional disability, weight loss, subcutaneous nodules, positive rheumatoid factor, and progressive erosive changes on x-ray are poor prognostic signs.
Anti-CCP antibodies predicts higher mortality in those without DMARD treatment. PMID: 24574208[uid]

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2
Q

What should the initial H and P include to support a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Onset (month/year), duration (month, year) and site of joint symptoms (small/large joints), and presence or absence of definite swelling/tenderness in the hands and feet (site and severity of small joint involvement). Other sites mentioned if positive. Subcutaneous nodules are pathognomonic.
Helpful negative findings should include abdominal exam(exclude IBD), skin exam (exclude psoriasis, and systemic lupus).

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3
Q

What laboratory testing is most helpful in diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Helpfulness of initial laboratory testing depends on the prior probability. In likely cases of rheumatoid disease, rheumatoid factor, anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody (anti-CCP) help to confirm the diagnosis. ANA, testing for hepatitis C are usually done to exclude alternatives. In unlikely cases, CBC, acute phase reactants helpful to exclude inflammatory arthritis when osteoarthritis or fibromyalgia seems more likely.
X-rays usually do not show specific changes for months to years after disease onset but are helpful to establish a baseline.

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4
Q

What is the role of MRI and ultrasound in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

MRI and ultrasound evaluation of peripheral joints usually does not add diagnostic information beyond that obtained from physical examination. Joint tenderness is more helpful than equivocal findings on imaging studies.
Either modality helps to evaluate a possible ruptured popliteal cyst.

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5
Q

What diagnostic changes are present initially in the synovial fluid in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

None.
Synovial fluid analysis helps to establish the presence of definite inflammation/arthritis and exclude infection and crystalline arthritis.
Rheumatoid factor is almost never present in the synovial fluid when absent in the peripheral blood.

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6
Q

What are the 2010 criteria for diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis.

A

The 2010 ACR/EULAR criteria require 6 of possible 10 points, from 4 domains.
domain 1: joint number and site:
>10 including 1 small: 5 pts
4-10 small joints: 3 pts
1-3 small (mcp pip, 2-5 mtp, thumb,wrists): 2 pts
1-10 large jts(shoulders, hips, knees, ankles): 1 pt
Domain 2: RF or anti CCP
low positive 2 pts
high positive(>3xUL) 3 pts
Domain 3: acute phase reactants
ESR or CRP 1 pt
Domain 4:
symptoms>6 wks, 1 pt
The number of points per domain indicate the degree to which such findings predict rheumatoid disease course instead of disappearing or morphing into SLE, scleroderma, or spondyloarthropathy.

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7
Q

What other diseases tend to occur in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Patients with rheumatoid arthritis experience more problems than controls with infections, cardiovascular disease, and lymphoma.
The risk for premature cardiovascular disease in smokers with anti CCP antibodies, and 2 copies of the shared epitope is 7.8 . Over 10 yrs of RA, other extraarticular features, and positive anti CCP constitutes indication for a statin.

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8
Q

What factors predict excessive mortality in rheumatoid arthritis.

A

Life expectancy in rheumatoid arthritis is reduced especially if there is polyarticular disease, extraarticular disease, persistently elevated esr/crp, high titer rheumatoid factor, bialleic shared epitope (HLA-DR link).

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9
Q

Does dip joint involvement occur in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Dip joint involvement in rheumatoid arthritis does occur but most often along with pip and mcp inflammation. Isolated dip joint arthritis is much more common in osteoarthritis, and psoriatic arthritis.

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10
Q

What underlies the HLA association with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

The HLA DRB1 gene with the shared epitope at amino acid location 67-74.
The shared epitope includes 4/20 known alleles with 2 showing strong relative risk (5-14). The amino acid sequences making up the shared epitope include QKRAA, QRRAA, or RRRAA. Q=glutamine K= lysine R=arginine A=alanine
If the shared epitope is homozygous, the relative risk can reach 49 !

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11
Q

What features of rheumatoid arthritis predict low bone density?

A

Age, disease activity, loss of height, prednisone over 10 mg daily, and low muscle mass predict osteoporosis. Stress fractures of the fibula and vertebral compression fractures are more common in osteoporosis associated with rheumatoid arthritis.

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12
Q

What is the relationship of prednisone dosage to steroid myopathy?

A

Steroid myopathy generally requires 40 to 60 mg daily for over one month, and improves within 3 to 4 weeks after dosage reduction. Steroid myopathy usually presents with improvement of synovitis and painless weakness.

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13
Q

When is an elevated sedimentation rate helpful in the assessment of generalized joint pain ?

A

An elevated sedimentation rate is useful to identify mild synovitis, and exclude fibromyalgia as the sole cause of joint pain. Obese diabetics, often have minor elevation in sedimentation rate along with typical fibromyalgia.

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14
Q

Is rheumatoid arthritis a risk factor for excess cardiac mortality?

A

Atherosclerotic coronary artery disease has a standardized mortality ratio of 1.5, and atrial fibrillation (8.2 vs 6 events/1000 pt-yr). Both are significant.
Pericarditis/tamponade, amyloidosis, myocarditis are increased but too rare to affect overall mortality.

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15
Q

How does lymphoma risk in rheumatoid arthritis vary with the disease severity and treatment?

A

Lymphoma risk increases markedly with disease activity (up to 9x) whereas relative risk with drug treatment is 1.2 for methotrexate, 1.4 for azathioprine, and 2.2 for cyclophosphamide.

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16
Q

Are serious infections more frequent in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Relative risk of infection severe enough to require hospital admission is 1.8. Excess risk is related to immune suppression mediated by the disease or its treatment, cigarette smoking, subclinical lung disease, and musculoskeletal immobility.
Glucocorticoids increase infection rates-dose related, DMARD treatment decreases them.

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17
Q

What factors affect employment in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Employment is decreased if there is joint pain, impaired physical function, lack of at least an ACR 20% response to treatment, and a difficult commute. Employment is increased if self-employed, positive attitude, at least an ACR 20% response to treatment, and workplace ergonomic improvements.

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18
Q

Is life expectancy decreased In patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Studies in pre anti-TNF era show a mortality risk (SMR) higher for women 1.5 than men 1.1, worse if severe disease, rheumatoid factor (especially anti-CCP) positive, and less in people who respond to treatment-0.4 if due to methotrexate.

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19
Q

What is the best way to asses rheumatoid disease control over the years?

A

Plain films of the hands and feet every 2 years is the most quantitative way to judge progressive joint damage. New erosions, periarticular osteoporosis, and joint space narrowing indicate need for additional treatment.
Increasing treatment based on progressive damage improves disease control better than clinical and laboratory features alone.

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20
Q

What is the role of rest and exercise the management of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Exercise, both resistive and endurance have a uniformly positive effect especially on self efficacy, and disease control. Rest, for the sake of rest, has shown no positive results in controlled trials.

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21
Q

What are some typical rheumatoid deformities?

A

Typical rheumatoid deformities that develop over decades, include swan neck hyperextension at pip joints, hyperflexion at dip joints, boutonniere-hyperflexion at pip joints , ulnar drift at MCP joints, wrist subluxation, loss of elbow extension, loss of shoulder rotation, knee flexion contractures, cock up toes, hammar toes,

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22
Q

What is the rate of relapse should one stop methotrexate or anti-TNF therapy in quiescent rheumatoid arthritis?

A

In one year about 80% relapse compared to 40% should treatment be continued. Stopping Rx results in disease flare earlier for anti-TNF than MTX.
Should a patient insist on a drug holiday, followup every 1-3 months would be appropriate.

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23
Q

What are the adverse reactions to anti-TNF treatment that require stopping therapy?

A

Severe injection reactions-local or systemic, neutropenia, development of heart failure, psoriasis, malignancy, severe infection, demyelinating disease, autoimmunity.

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24
Q

How does methotrexate reduce rheumatoid inflammation?

A

Methotrexate increases the extracellular concentration of adenosine which stimulates adenosine receptors (ADORA1-A2A- A2B) and subsequent inhibition of antigen presentation, costimulation, immune cell trafficking and proliferation, cytokine production, and cytotoxicity.
Methotrexate inhibits ATIC (5-Aminoimidazole-4-carboxamide ribonucleotide Transformylase/IMP Cyclohydrolayse) which forms IMP, Increasing AICAR (C9H13N5O4, AICA Ribonucleotide, 5-amidoimidizole-4-carboxamide ribonucleotide) levels -> inhibition AMP deaminase 1 and adenosine deaminase which increases adenosine (C10H13N5O4) levels and extracellular release of adenosine.
Adenosine receptors are 7 transmembrane G protein coupled receptors, affecting cAMP concentration.

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25
Q

What can cause macrocytic anemia during the course of treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Macrocytic anemia may be due to folate or b12 deficiency, or drugs that interfere with nucleic acid synthesis, such as methotrexate. Rarely increased reticulocytosis from any cause, myelodysplastic syndrome such as acute leukemia, alcohol abuse, liver disease, or hypothyroidism is present.

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26
Q

What is the prognosis in those who present with atypical rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Atypical rheumatoid arthritis progresses to typical RA in 20%, 10% develop some other connective tissue disease, 5-10% develop other features of undifferentiated systemic rheumatic disease, and the rest resolve ~ 50%. Typical RA is more likely if multiple small joints are involved, ESR is high, and rheumatoid factor positive. Positive anti-CCP patients progress to RA 90%, 25% if negative. Typical RA at onset, resolves in 7.5% in 7 years.

27
Q

What is the difference in usefulness between rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP ?

A

No practical difference.
Rheumatoid factor is an polyclonal IgM antibody to the Fc portion of IgG, present in 80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-CCP is an antibody to cyclic citrullinated protein , present in 50-80%, more common in those with the shared epitope, and in smokers. Although anti CCP relates to pathogenesis more directly, the tests are roughly equivalent in usefulness.
The anti CCP was developed to measure the immune response to post translational modification of arginine containing proteins, thought to be central to pathogenesis. The cyclic structure decreases the rate of false positives. In those with the shared epitope, smoking increases the risk of developing rheumatoid arthritis- 2.3 x if 1 epitope, 5.6 if 2. If anti CCP is present the relative risk of developing RA for smokers is 57 vs 17 in non smokers. anti-CCPis a better predictor of severe disease than the presence of the shared epitope.

RF was developed from tests looking for streptococcal antibodies, and anti-CCP by investigation of anti squamous epithelial (keratin) antibodies.

28
Q

What is the relationship of LDL/HDL to risk of cardiovascular events during treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Major adverse cardiovascular events occurring during tocilizumab treatment of rheumatoid arthritis relate to the initial cholesterol/HDL but following treatment related to decrease in joint inflammation (DAS28) but not cholesterol ratios. PMID 26332171

29
Q

What medications are effective in treating rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Effective treatment include NSAID’s, glucocorticoids, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil), methotrexate (Trexal) , azathioprine (Imuran), leflunomide (Arava), cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept), mycophenolic acid (Myfortic), cyclosporine (Neoral), etanercept (Enbrel), adalimumab (Humira), infliximab (Remicade), golimumab (Simponi), certolizumab pegol (Gimzia), abatacept (Orencia), tocilizumab (Actemra), rituximab (Rituxan), or ustekinumab (Stelera).

30
Q

What are some of the non HLA genes involved in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

7 of 20 non HLA genes listed in UpTpDate include: 4 receptors,4 pathways, 1 Ig structure.
Receptors:
-IL2RB (interleukin 2 receptor, beta) promotor region.
-IL2RA -mediates IL-2 dependent T cell response.
-CCR6 (chemokine, cc motif, receptor 6) receptor for macrophage inflammatory protein alpha (MIP-3-alpha) leading to phospholipase C-dependent intercellular calcium mobilization. Important in Th17 recognition.
-CCL21 (chemokine, cc motif, ligand 21) chemotactic factor that attracts T cells.
Metabolic signaling
-IRF5 (interferon regulatory factor 5) transcription factor necessary for interferon alpha production.
-PTPN22 (protein tyrosine phosphatase N22), important in transducing T and B cell growth signals. Also affects type 1 diabetes, JIA, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
-PXK (PXK domain-containing serine/threonine kinase) regulates Na, K-ATPase ion transport. Also associated with SLE.
-SPRED2 (sprouty-related EVH1 domain-containing protein 2) regulates growth factor
induced activation via MAP kinase.
Immunoglobulin structure:
-RBPJ (recombination signal-binding protein for immunoglobulin kappa J region) downstream from notch required for T cell development. Also associated type 1 diabetes.

31
Q

What sort of immune reaction characterizes rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Multiple immune processes are likely including type 3, immune complex complement mediated hypersensitivity, Th17 induced inflammation. Signal transduction pathways, and purine metabolism pathway are abnormal in rheumatoid arthritis (Jak STAT).

32
Q

What is the relationship of antibodies to PAD (peptidyl-arginine deiminase) and anti-citrullinated antibodies?

A

Citrullination results in a net loss of charge and a more hydrophobic protein. Anti-Citrullinated antibodies are associated with RA susceptibility, articular damage, and RA-ILD.
Antibodies to a peptidyl-arginine deiminase (PAD) common epitope on PAD 3 and 4 (PADXR) is associated with more active citrullination, and with rheumatoid arthritis and interstitial lung disease.
PMID 24901704

33
Q

What features on history and physical examination suggests rheumatoid vasculitis?

A

Rheumatoid vasculitis tends to occur in patients with long disease duration, smoking at the time of RA diagnosis (75 vs 40%), coexistent vascular disease, destructive joint disease, and use of Biologics. Use of hydroxychloroquine and low dose aspirin are protective.
Physical findings include nail fold thrombi, and new nodules on finger pads or palmar surfaces. mononeuritis multiplex, and distal sensory motor or motor neuropathy occurring 20%. Episcleritis/scleritis is specific for vasculitis. Peripheral ulcerative keratitis (PUK) is a crescent shaped ulceration at the corneal scleral junction may progress to a corneal melt syndrome due to vasculitis. About one third develop pericarditis, arrhythmias, aortic incompetence, or myocardial infarction. Glomerulonephritis from unusual ANCA positive vasculitis may develop on related proteinase 3 or myeloperoxidase. The mesenteric arteries may be involved in causing infarction/perforation.

34
Q

What is the relationship of rheumatoid vasculitis to anti-TNF therapy?

A

60% of patients who develop vasculitis during anti-TNF therapy improve with discontinuation and 10% have vasculitis return once it is restarted. These cases seem to be more like cutaneous vascultis than systemic vasculitis.

35
Q

What tests confirm the presence of rheumatoid vasculitis?

A

IgM rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP are suggestive but tissue biopsy-skin or muscle is more specific. Angiography is occasionally diagnostic of large vessel involvement.

36
Q

What special risks are present during general anesthesia in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Cervical cord compression is possible in those with odontoid destruction and C1 – C2 Instability.
Crico-erythenoid joint destruction can complicate intubation.
Total joint replacement increases the risk of sepsis during transient bacteremia.

37
Q

What chemical reaction results in a citrullinated peptide?

A

Citrullinated peptides are formed when arginine (C in peptides oxidizes the terminal guanidine (not guanine) (HN=C(NH2)NH- ) on arginine to O=C(NH2)NH- citrulline .
Proteins susceptible to this post translational modification include myelin basic protein, filaggrin, histones, as well as fibrin and vimentin during tissue inflammation and cell death.

38
Q

What are the major side effects of methotrexate treatment?

A

Adverse effects of methotrexate include bone marrow toxicity (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, anemia), cirrhosis and fibrosis, opportunistic infections (PCP, CMV, herpes zoster, fungal, mycobacterial) hypersensitivity pneumonitis, organizing pneumonia, noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, pulmonary fibrosis, asthma-restrictive airway disease, arthritis, oligospermia, teratogenicity, and malignancy.

39
Q

What is the frequency of methotrexate induced pulmonary hypersensitivity and what are the risk factors?

A

Methotrexate induced lung disease occurs in 1-8% of patients within the first year after starting treatment for immune or malignant problems. Risk factors include age>60, rheumatoid pulmonary involvement, previous DMARD treatment, hypoalbuminemia, diabetes mellitus, daily treatment, abnormal PFT’s, prolonged blood level elevation as with ascites-3rd space effect. Dose relationship not nearly as strong as for bleomycin.
Activating NFkB related to folate pathway may be stimulated more than adenosine production.

40
Q

What is the difference between episcleritis and scleromalacia perforations?

A

Episcleritis is superficial, brightly erythematous, associated with active disease. Scleromalacia, is bluish, nodular, and associated with subcutaneous nodules.
Episcleritis responds rapidly to treatment of synovitis. Scleromalacia responds poorly and may progress to corneal melt requiring surgical treatment.

41
Q

What types of erythematous inflammatory macules occur due to rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Sweet syndrome, pyoderma gangrenosum, and rheumatoid neutrophilic dermatitis.

42
Q

What metabolic pathway is inhibited by tofacitinib citrate (Xeljanz) ?

A
Tofacitinib citrate (C16H20N60) (Xeljanz) is a JAK kinase inhibitor types 1 and 3, that interferes with cytokine stimulation (IL-2, IL-4, IL-7, IL-9, IL-15, and IL-21) and interfere with lymphocyte activation, function, and proliferation. Approved for use in rheumatoid arthritis. ACR 20 = 31%, ACR 50 =13%, and ACR 70 = 3% with methotrexate is indistinguishable from adalimumab with methotrexate. 
Growth factors are inhibited that may cause lymphopenia, neutropenia, and anemia. Decreased resistance to infection can occur and tuberculosis is a particular risk.
43
Q

What biologic anti-TNF agents are available to treat rheumatoid arthritis, and what determines your choice?

A

TNF inhibition with etanercept (Enbrel), adalimumab (Humira), infliximab (Remicade), golimumab (Simponi), certolizumab pegol (Cimzia) are usually tried first.
The patient’s insurance generally dictates the first choice. Subsequent failures are usually due to anti-drug antibodies or drug sensitivity.
Abatacept (Orencia) CTLA4Ig, rituxan (rituximab) anti CD20, tocilizumab (Xeljanz), anti IL6R (Actemra) are generally reserved for TNF failures.
Using multiple biologics produces excessive immunosuppression and is contraindicated.

44
Q

What medications decrease rheumatoid arthritis intensity through cyclooxygenase inhibition?

A

Acetaminophen, NSAIDs (ibuprofen ( Advil), Naprosyn ( Aleve), meloxicam (Mobic), Diclofenac (Voltarin)). Glucocorticoids (by mouth, intramuscular, intra-articular), stabilize cell membranes the release of araichidonic acid. The 5-amino salicylate component of sulfasalazine works by prostaglandin inhibition. Sulfapyridine inhibits cytokine production and sulfasalazine increases extracellular adenosine.
Steroids do everything an NSAID can do as well as inhibiting cytokine synthesis. Using both is unnecessary when using over 10 mg prednisone daily.

45
Q

What effective biologic treatment for rheumatoid arthritis affects primarily T and B cells rather than cytokines ?

A

Costimulation blockade with abatacept (Orencia), and B cell depletion with rituximab (Rituxan) are effective treatments for rheumatoid arthritis.
Autologous bone marrow transplantation affects multiple components or the immune system, and may induce a remission for months to years.

46
Q

What evidence supports the use of intravenous methylprednisolone in the management of rheumatoid disease flares?

A

In patients who flare taking methotrexate alone, one dose of 250 mg of methylprednisolone intravenously works as well as adding infliximab in terms of inhibiting symptoms and x-ray destruction at week 50.
PMID: 23912798

47
Q

What are the indications to use anti-IL-1 in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti IL-1 treatments are rarely used due to absence of head-to-head trials showing superior efficacy, and medication insurance policy.
IL-1 inhibition with IL-1 receptor antagonist anakinra, (Kineret) , canakinumab (Ilaris, anti IL-1 beta), IL-1Ra gene therapy and IL-1 Trap-rilonacept (Arcalyst, IL-1R and IL-1RacP -Fc) are approved for cryopyrin associated syndromes. Canakinumab may be useful in complicated gout, and anakinra in adult onset Still’s disease.

48
Q

What patients are most likely to develop hepatotoxicity during the first seven months of methotrexate treatment?

A

Patients with obesity, untreated high cholesterol, elevated pre-methotrexate enzymes, use of a biologic agent, and no folic acid supplementation

49
Q

How does hydroxychloroquine work both as an antimalarial and anti-rheumatic medication?

A

Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) increases the pH of lysosomes so that the malarial parasite cannot digest hemoglobin (antimalarial), and antigens cannot be processed into immunogens (immunosuppressive).

50
Q

What initial evaluation should be done prior to starting anti-TNF treatment?

A

Initial evaluation to prevent problems with immunosuppressive therapy should include quantiferon or skin testing for tuberculosis, chest x-ray, hepatitis A, B and C screening, maximizing vaccine therapy to include Pneumovax, varicella zoster, hepatitis A and B.

51
Q

What are some possible side effects of anti-TNF treatment?

A

Signs of developing an allergic reaction include trouble breathing (wheezing), chest pain, dizziness, headache, hives, upset stomach or vomiting. Autoimmune reactions are possible such as SLE, leukocytoclastic vasculitis, psoriasis.
Opportunistic infections occur at 0.1 events per 100 patient years and serious infections at 4.6 events/100 patient years.
Demyelinating disease may also develop-paresthesias, ataxia-transverse myelitis, Guillian-Barre, optic neuritis, 30 vs 5 events/100,000 years, etanercept/normal.
Heart failure ? but high doses should be avoided and possible events investigated.
Risk of Herpes Zoster is increased slightly equal to low dose prednisone (

52
Q

Why has the drug strategy to treat early, treat vigorously, and treat to target (minimal disease activity) been helpful in RA?

A

All 3 aspects reduce the amount of radiological joint damage. Start with 1 drug (usually MTX), add more (not sequential) until joint inflammation is mostly gone, not stopping due to a partial response.

53
Q

What types of drug treatments are effective in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Effective treatments for rheumatoid arthritis include; Inhibitors of NF-kB transcription factor activation (antiprostaglandins, adenosine receptor stimulation, glucocorticoids), immune presentation inhibition, antimetabolites, anti cytokines (receptor, circulating TNF, IL-1 alpha and beta, IL-17), B cell lysis, anti T-B cell interaction), and when especially severe- immune system reversal.

54
Q

What should you do if an infection requiring antibiotics develops during the course of anti-TNF treatment?

A

Treatment with the anti-TNF agent should be stopped temporarily during the course of antibiotic treatment in order to maximize efficacy. Fever and severe malaise indicate need for emergency room evaluation including chest x-ray and blood tests to exclude severe sepsis.

55
Q

What are some specific features of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Specific features supporting the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis include prolonged polyarticular symmetric involvement, subcutaneous nodules, positive rheumatoid factor or anti CCP.

56
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of methotrexate induced lung disease?

A

Pneumonitis may be mild to severe; fever-76%, chills, malaise, nonproductive cough-81%, dyspnea-82%, chest pain, rales, cyanosis. Lung pathology includes eosinophilia, lymphocytic infiltrates, fibrosis, and poorly organized granulomas. Chest x-ray shows diffuse infiltrates, more in the lower lobes, and CT scans may show patchy or diffuse ground glass changes and/or honeycombing, reticular opacities.

57
Q

What anti rheumatic drugs inhibit cell proliferation ?

A

Methotrexate, azathioprine (Imuran), leflunomide (Arava), cyclophosphamide, mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept), mycophenolic acid (Myfortic), cyclosporine (Neoral),

58
Q

What biologics work in RA?

A

anti TNF monoclonals include:
etanercept (Enbrel), adalimumab (Humira), infliximab (Remicade), golimumab (Simponi), certolizumab pegol (Cimzia).
anti IL-6 receptor: tocilizumab (Actemra)
anti T-B cell costimulation: abatacept (Orencia) CTLA4 Ig
anti B cell: rituximab (Rituxan).

61
Q

T and B cell co stimulation is inhibited by what medication?

A

abatacept (Orencia) is the extracellular portion of CTLA4 complexed to immunoglobulin rather than being part of the B cell (CD80) receptor. CD80 on B cells is competitively inhibited from binding to CD86 on T cells which prevents T cell activation.

62
Q

What monoclonal antibody lyses most B cells?

A

rituximab (Rituxan) attaches to CD20, an activated-glycosylated phosphoprotein on pro-B cells up to just prior to plasma cell stage.
CD20 is suspected to optimize the calcium channel response to T independent antigens.

63
Q

What is the difference between JNK kinase and Janus kinase 3 (Jak3).

A

c-jun N-terminal protein kinase (JNK) phosphorylates c-jun at 2 serine sites activating jun transcription factor, and Jak3 kinase phosphorylates cytokine receptors enabling cytokine transmission.

63
Q

What is the consequence of minor infections on the long term use of immunosuppressive treatment.

A

Limited understanding of risk means that the risk adverse will blame any intercurrent illness on treatment induced damage to their immune system. Course of treatment thereby becomes unnecessarily shortened.

63
Q

How do patients with RA respond to pioglitazone?

A

pioglitazone a peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor gamma agonist improves insulin resistance, patient reported global health, and CRP but not ESR or joint swelling/tenderness in rheumatoid arthritis.

64
Q

What pathways are important in Crohn’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and type I diabetes?

A

Antigen processing pathways, T cell activation pathways, signaling molecules and interaction pathways are abnormal in Crohn’s disease, rheumatoid arthritis, type I diabetes