diseases Flashcards

Review useful information on rheumatic diseases in order to provide effective management.

1
Q

IgG4 related disease (IgG4RD) may affect what systems?

A

IgG4RD may involve salivary and lacrimal glands, autoimmune pancreatitis, cholangitis, retroperitoneal fibrosis, aortitis and periaortitis, thyroid disease, lung and pleural disease, and renal disease.

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2
Q

What is unique about IgG4 antibodies?

A

The disulfide bonds linking the heavy chains in IgG4 can link multiple molecules together and form unusual immune complexes. Levels of IgG4 above135 mg percent occur in about 90% of patients with IgG4RD.

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3
Q

What are the consensus criteria for diagnosis of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

The American European consensus group definition for Sjogren’s syndrome includes: 1. Ocular symptoms of inadequate tear production 2. Ocular signs of formula damage due to inadequate tearing. 3. Oral symptoms of decreased saliva production 4. Salivary gland histopathology demonstrating foci of lymphocytes. 5. Tests indicating impaired salivary gland function. 6. SSA/anti-Ro, SSB/anti-La autoantibodies.

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4
Q

What gastrointestinal symptoms can be attributed to Sjogren’s disease?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome often causes nausea, epigastric pain, and dyspepsia. Atrophic gastritis from CD4+ T cell infiltration can result in pernicious anemia. Celiac disease is increased similar to diabetes and autoimmune thyroid disease.

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5
Q

What is different about HIV associated parotitis and Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

The infiltrate in HIV-associated disease consists of cytotoxic CD8 T cells, and Sjogren’s infiltrate are 75% helper CD4 T cells.

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6
Q

The sensation of eye dryness correlates best with what corneal abnormality?

A

Dryness correlates best with increased friction of the upper lid moving over the cornea.

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7
Q

What is the cause of dysfunctional tear syndrome?

A

Breakup of the mucus layer with subsequent decrease in goblet cell function, dryness and activation of metalloproteinases.

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8
Q

What skin changes can occur in Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Skin involvement in Sjogren’s syndrome can include xerosis, cutaneous vasculitis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and annular erythema,

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9
Q

What changes occur early by MRI in the wrists of patients with scleroderma?

A

Lunate edema with effusions in the intercarpal joints and radio-carpal and ulnar-carpal joints. doi: 10.1186/ar4128

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10
Q

How do you order lymphocyte subsets at the VA

A

Go to blood tests and then order flow cytometry. you need to order a CBC at the same time. need to request leukemia/lymphoma panel. At upstate you order lymphocyte subsets, no further details required.

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11
Q

What do elevated platelet factor 4 plasma levels mean in systemic sclerosis?

A

Elevated plasma levels of platelet factor 4 (CXCL-4) correlate with pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary hypertension in systemic sclerosis.

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12
Q

What are the typical features of adult Still’s disease?

A

Still’s disease usually involves the knees, ankles, wrists more than the small joints and is often associated with pharyngitis, and lymphadenopathy. Biopsy shows B cell hyperplasia. Hemophagocytic syndrome is a rare complication and accounts for most deaths. Interstitial lung disease and myocarditis can happen. White cell counts over 15,000 and elevated ferritin levels are common. Biopsy of the skin rash shows complement deposition.

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13
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for adult Still’s disease.

A

The Yamaguchi criteria for adult Still’s disease include four major criteria: 1. fever at least 39°C 2. arthralgia or arthritis lasting two weeks or longer 3. nonpruritic skin rash which is maculopapular and salmon colored found on the trunk and extremities during febrile episodes 4. leukocytosis exceeding 10,000 with at least 80% granulocytes. Minor criteria include sore throat, lymphadenopathy, hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, elevated AST or ALT, and negative testing for ANA and rheumatoid factor. Criteria are satisfied if at least 5 items are present including at least 2 major criteria

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14
Q

What are the common causes of angioedema?

A

Drug reaction to Ace inhibitors are the most common cause, but NSAID’s, calcium channel blockers, estrogens, fibrinolytic agents, any new medication or significant increase in dosage should also be suspect. Complement factor 1 inhibitor (C1-INH) deficiency either inherited (Types 1, 2 or 3) or acquired are not as common. Inherited forms are due to absent protein, defective protein, or inherited problems with clotting factors causing bradykinin release. Aquired C1-INH deficiency can occur with malignancies where autoantibodies develop to C1-INH.

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15
Q

What diseases cause arthritis?

A

Likely causes include: rheumatoid arthritiis, gout, Crohn’s disease, ulcerative colitis, Lyme disease, psoriatic arthritis, Reiters syndrome, ankylosis spondylitis, Systemic lupus erythematosus, reactive arthritis, acute serum sickness. Less common causes include sarcoidosis, spondyloarthritis, gonococcal arthritis, viral arthritis-parvovirus b19, post traumatic arthritis, Intraarticular hemorrhage, loose body, torn meniscus, post traumatic arthritis, and osteochondritis. Degenerative joint disease, and degenerative disc disease are more likely to cause pain and noninflammatory swelling.

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16
Q

What is the major complication when complete rest is used to treat tendinitis?

A

Without movement, tendons become weak and stiff such that whatever inflammatory reaction resolves due to rest, quickly returns when activity is resumed.

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17
Q

What are the 7 items included in the standard general anxiety scale?

A

The general anxiety disorder 7 item scale rates feeling anxious, inabliitly to stop worrying, worrying too much about different things, trouble relaxing, too restless to sit still, afraid something awful might happen, and being easily annoyed or irritable giving 0 to 3 points per item depending on frequency of daily occurrence. A total score >15 Indicates severe anxiety.

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18
Q

What are the red flags indicating the need for further evaluation in cases of backache of recent onset?

A

Red flags indicating possible definite cause for backache include: trauma, unexplained weight loss, age over 50 especially if osteoporotic, unexplained fever, history of urinary tract or other infections, immunosuppression, diabetes mellitus, history of cancer, intravenous drug abuse, long use of corticosteroids, age greater than 70, focal neurologic deficit, progressive or disabling symptoms, associated bowel or bladder dysfunction, duration longer than six weeks, and prior spinal surgery.

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19
Q

What life-threatening complications occur in Behcet’s disease?

A

The greatest morbidity and mortality comes from neurologic, ocular, and large vessel arterial or venous disease.

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20
Q

What medications effectively treat Behcet’s syndrome ?

A

Therapeutic agents that have proven effective in Behcet’s disease include glucocorticoids, colchicine, azathioprine, anti-TNF therapy, interferon alfa-2a and interferon alpha-2b at 3 to 19 million units three times weekly, thalidomide, and rituximab. Smaller trials of cyclophosphamide, cyclosporine, show some benefit as well.

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21
Q

What treatment is used to manage glomerulonephritis seen in Behcet’s syndrome?

A

Renal disease seems to behave like granulomatosis with polyangiitis, so that rituximab might be effective if glomerulonephritis is present. Those patients with amyloidosis do better with colchicine.

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22
Q

What commonly causes bilateral knee pain in an adolescent with normal x-rays?

A

Billateral anterior knee pain is a descriptive diagnosis for a condition formally called chondromalacia patella. The descriptive term is more honest as chondromalacia is difficult to demonstrate as a specific cause of knee pain and is often asymptomatic. Bilateral anterior knee pain seems to occur in late adolescence during vigorous physical activity and then subsides over years. It is not a precursor to osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis. Mechanical irritation in the soft tissues guiding the quadriceps/patellar tendon from overuse and/or poor biomechanical stress tolerance is the probable cause.

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23
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome criteria include documented fatigue for six months or more, and at least four of the eight following symptoms: post exertion malaise, impaired memory/concentration, unrefreshing sleep, muscle pain, multi-joint pain without redness or swelling, tender cervical or axillary lymph nodes, sore throat, and headache. Fatigue must be severe enough to interfere with work or usual activities.

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24
Q

What are some local conditions that cause muscle enzyme elevation?

A

Localized conditions that often elevate muscle enzymes include eccentric exercise induced delayed onset muscle soreness, muscle infarction in diabetes, and iatrogenic muscle injury as from intramuscular injections.

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25
Q

Why are sensitive features of an illness which are non specific important to recognize?

A

Highly sensitive features or an illness when absent, weigh against the likelihood of that illness.

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26
Q

Why are specific features of an illness detected on physical examination important to recognize?

A

Objective specific features of an illness when present make diagnoses more certain and can help but not eliminate consideration of other causes.

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27
Q

What is connective tissue disease?

A

Connective tissue disease is one of many terms such as overlap syndrome that refer to patients who have a lupus like disorder yet do not fulfill diagnostic criteria for systemic lupus. Conditions with fatigue, arthralgia, Raynaud’s phenomena, dysphagia, and interstitial pneumonitis with a positive ANA generally fit in this category. The prognosis is good so that symptomatic treatment alone is often appropriate.

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28
Q

With systemic diseases can cause muscle enzyme elevation?

A

Systemic disorders such as inflammatory myopathy (polymyositis/dermatomyositis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and mixed connective tissue disease with antibodies to RNP), infectious myopathy, drug induced myopathies (alcohol, lipid lowering drugs, cocaine, antimalarial drugs, antipsychotic drugs, colchicine, antiretroviral drugs, ipecac, Interferon alpha and penicillamine), dystrophic myopathies, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, metabolic myopathies, hyperthermia, motor neuron disease, endocrine myopathy, and periodic paralysis should be considered. Presymptomatic myopathies as in the early stages of polymyositis, distal myopathy, mitochondrial myopathies, inclusion body myopathy, muscular dystrophy, myotonic dystrophy, and predisposition to malignant hyperthermia.

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29
Q

What is the relationship between spinal pain and degenerative disc disease

A

Spinal pain and degenerative this disease are both very common but not tightly connected given that radiographic disk changes persist and gradually worsen whereas most spinal pain is intermittent. Nevertheless, disc disease probably makes the spine more susceptible to minor trauma/stress which generally is the proximal cause of spinal pain. Radicular pain suggests nerve pressure however discogenic pain can also radiate.

30
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for fibromyalgia?

A

The criteria for fibromyalgia include a widespread pain index >7, symptom severity >5. If widespread pain index is only 3 – 6 then symptom severity needs to be >9. Symptoms present >3 months. No other condition is present to explain the pain. Widespread pain index is derived from counting the areas of tenderness including the neck, jaw, shoulder, upper and lower arm, chest, abdomen, upper and lower back, hips, upper or lower legs for a maximum of 19 areas. Symptom severity score is derived from weighting fatigue, waking up refreshed, cognitive symptoms on a 0 – 3 scale. Somatic symptoms are rated from 0 – 3 in terms of their number. The final score is between 0 – 12. Best predictor in normals who develop chronic widespread pain is non restorative sleep.

31
Q

What is the PFAPA syndrome?

A

PFAPA syndrome refers to a pediatric condition usually presenting before age 5, consisting of recurrent pharyngitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, and aphthous stomatitis without correlation to ethnicity, geographical distribution, or gender or genetic defect.

32
Q

How much dietary calcium is necessary to treat osteoporosis?

A

The minimum daily requirement of calcium is 1000 mg which would require 2500 mg of calcium carbonate, or citrate, or 1200 mg of microcrystalline hydroxyapatite ( phosphate). Calcium lactate and calcium gluconate do not contain enough calcium to be a practical supplement.Daily dosage needs to be adjusted for calcium and vitamin D intake.

33
Q

What is diagnostic of inclusion body myositis?

A

Biopsy shows basophilic rimmed vesicles on frozen section and permanent sections show variation fiber size. On electron microscopy the inclusions resemble myxovirus particles. CD8 + T cells predominate in the inflammatory infiltrate. Inclusion body myositis generally occurs in older men causing slowly progressive mostly distal muscle weakness and lower than expected increases in muscle enzymes. EMG tends to have more fibrillation and polyphasic potentials and MRI changes involve distal anterior muscle groups. Rare genetic enzymatic abnormalities

34
Q

What genetic defects occur in Nemaline myopathy?

A

Nemaline myopathy results from congenital abnormalities in the thin filaments due to abnormalities in nebulin (NEB, chromosome 2), alpha-actin (ACTA1, chromosome 1), slow skeletal alpha-tropomyosin 3 (TPM3, chromosome 1), beta tropomyosin 2 (TPM2, Chromosome 9), cofilin 2 (CFL2, Chromosome 14).

35
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome criteria include documented fatigue for six months or more, and at least four of the eight following symptoms: post exertion malaise, impaired memory/concentration, unrefreshing sleep, muscle pain, multi-joint pain without redness or swelling, tender cervical or axillary lymph nodes, sore throat, and headache. Fatigue must be severe enough to interfere with work or activities. Exclusionary medical conditions include COPD, congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, hepatitis B or C, insulin-dependent diabetes, rheumatoid arthritis, specific lupus erythematosus, sickle cell anemia, stroke without full recovery, multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease, dementia, epilepsy, schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, depression with psychotic or melancholic features, anorexia nervosa or bulimia, drug/alcohol/narcotic abuse within two years before fatigue diagnosis, narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, sleep disordered breathing, restless leg syndrome, and periodic limb movement disorder.

36
Q

What are some poor prognostic features in patients complaining of chronic fatigue?

A

Unexplained persistent or relapsing fatigue that is not the result of ongoing exertion, not alleviated by rest, and results in the reduction of previous levels of occupational, educational, social, and personal activities, may not have a treatable cause. Poor prognostic factors include more than eight unexplained symptoms, lifetime history of a dysthymic disorder, more than 1.5 years of chronic fatigue, less than 16 years of formal education, age exceeding 38 years at presentation, receiving disability or belonging to a self-help group.

37
Q

What are the usual signs and symptoms of granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) ?

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA , formerly Wegener’s granulomatosis), was initially recognized due to nasal or oral inflammation with ulceration and crusting, pulmonary infiltrates or nodules, abnormal urinary sediment with red cell casts with acute glomerulonephritis, and granulomatous inflammation with capillaritis on biopsy. ANCA Testing typically shows antibodies to proteinase 3 (C-ANCA). Antibodies to myeloperoxidase are more typical of microscopic polyangiitis wherein biopsies usually show capillaritis without the granulomas. Both patterns are pauci-immune.

38
Q

What is Erdheim-Chester disease?

A

Erdheim-Chester disease, a.k.a. polyostotic sclerosing histiocytosis is characterized by lipid laden macrophages, multinucleate giant cells, and inflammations in the bone marrow with generalized sclerosis of long bones. Biopsy showing CD68+ CDC1a- cells is typical.

39
Q

What is the average degree of osteoarthritis by age and severity expected during the examination of healthy adults?

A

60% of the population has radiographic evidence of osteoarthritis by age 65 of which 60% are symptomatic. The joints most commonly affected by osteoarthritis include the cervical and lumbar spine, first carpel metacarpal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, distal interphalangeal joint, hip, knee, subtalar joint, first metacarpophalangeal joint. Severity is judged on the degree of joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, marginal osteophytosis, and subchondral cysts.

40
Q

What is the usual initial treatment for polymyositis, and dermatomyositis?

A

Initial treatment of polymyositis, dermatomyositis, and inclusion body myositis are similar. A course of prednisone at 1 mg per kilogram (Max 80 mg) daily for six weeks followed by reduction (10 mg per week until 40 mg daily, then 5 milligrams per week until 20 mg daily, 2.5 mg per week until 10 mg daily, then 1 mg every two weeks until 5 mg daily). Responders may be off treatment by one year. Azathioprine at 2.5 mg per kilogram or methotrexate at 25 mg per week is usually used along with low-dose prednisone (5 to 15 mg daily).

41
Q

What is unique about the histopathology of IgG4RD?

A

There is Mark infiltration by plasma cells and lymphocytes with storiform fibrosis (spoke wheel distribution).Biopsy showing increase in IgG4 plasma cells are specific.

42
Q

What treatments work for IgG4RD?

A

Prednisone at 0.5 mg per kilogram for months with additional methotrexate, azathioprine, mycophenolate, or rituximab if necessary. There are no randomized controlled trials.

43
Q

What is the role of abdominal CT examination in inflammatory bowel disease?

A

On CT scanning of the abdomen, ulcerative colitis usually shows less wall thickness and little evidence of right-sided colonic involvement, mesenteric fibrofatty proliferation, and abscess formation. Barium studies are useful for diagnostic purposes, and CT scanning is best for discovering extra intestinal complications.

44
Q

How strict is a gluten-free diet in celiac disease?

A

Gluten should be limited to 10 – 50 mg per day (25 g slice of bread contains 1600 mg of gluten). Gluten-free products contain less than 20 ppm and are safe to eat in quantity.

45
Q

What antibody tests are helpful in diagnosing celiac disease?

A

IgA anti-tTG (tissue transglutaminase) antibodies occur in over 95%, IgG in over 90% similar to IgG antibodies to deamminated gliadin peptides (IgG DGP). All tests are very specific.

46
Q

What are the symptoms of celiac disease?

A

Frequent symptoms include chronic diarrhea and weight loss, double distention, iron deficiency, aphthous stomatitis, recurrent abdominal pain, short stature, high aminotransferase levels, chronic fatigue, and reduced bone density. Unusual symptoms include dermatitis herpetiformis, gluten ataxia. Untreated disease may develop splenic dysfunction, osteoporosis, neurologic disorders, infertility or recurrent abortion, ulcerative jejunoileitis, T-cell lymphoma and adenocarcinoma.

47
Q

What medical conditions are associated with celiac disease?

A

Other conditions associated with celiac disease include type I diabetes (3 – 16%), Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (5%), autoimmune liver disease, Down’ s syndrome (5%), IgA nephropathy, Turner’s syndrome (3%),

48
Q

What MHC restriction is typical of celiac disease?

A

MHC HLA–DQ2 haplotype occurs in 90% versus 33% in the general population. Another 5% have HLA-DQ8, with the remaining having at least one DQ2 gene. At least 39 non-HLA loci dealing with inflammatory and immune response are also involved.

49
Q

What are some common amyloid types?

A

Aβ, Beta amyloid, forms in Alzheimer’s disease, AA from SAA in Rheumatoid Arthritis, ACal-calcitonin in medullary cell carcinoma, Aβ2M Beta-2 microglobulin in dialysis related amyloidosis, and alpha-synuclein in Parkinson’s disease.

50
Q

What combination treatment of hepatitis C has over 80% efficacy after 12 weeks?

A

Combination treatment with sofosbuvir, peginterferon, and ribavirin for 12 weeks with 89% effecacy, fewer expected drug interactions, no need for decisions about response guided therapy, and absent mutations. Replacing sofosbuvir with simeprevir takes 24 weeks.

51
Q

What assessment is needed prior to hepatitis C treatment?

A

Prior to treatment, patients with hepatitis C need to be assessed for cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma, esophageal and gastric varices. Progression to cirrhosis is higher if immunosuppressed, alcohol ingestion, schistosomiasis, hepatitis B, HIV, and male sex,

52
Q

What are some extra hepatic complications of hepatitis C?

A

Extrahepatic complications of hepatitis C include mixed cryoglobulinemia, Sjogren’s syndrome, thrombocytopenia, liken planus, porphyria cutaneous tartare, insulin resistance, diabetes mellitus, diabetic neuropathy, autoimmune thyroiditis, B-cell lymphoproliferative disorder. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, cardiomyopathy, central nervous system involvement can occur.

53
Q

What sort of virus is hepatitis C?

A

Hepatitis C virus is a small, enveloped, single-stranded, positive-sense RNA virus of the Hepacivirus genus in the family flaviviridae. There are seven known genotypes with type I being most common in in the US, South America, and Europe.

54
Q

How is hepatitis C spread?

A

Hepatitis C exposure is high in intravenous drug abuse, intrauterine device users, and those with tattoos. The rest from a needlestick from a known carrier is 1.8%. Improper sterilization of medical and dental equipment in Egypt has led to the highest prevalence worldwide.

55
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease?

A

A definite diagnosis of calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease requires typical crystals in the joint fluid as well as appropriate cartilage calcifications seen on x-ray. Only one feature results in a probable diagnosis. Fibrocartilage is more commonly affected so that x-rays of the knees, symphysis pubis, and wrists help to define definite disease. Other suggested features include erosive damage with hook formation, and extensive patellofemoral change.

56
Q

What neurological changes occurring Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Neurological problems include peripheral neuropathy, brain and spinal cord involvement, fatigue and fibromyalgia, depression and personality disorders.

57
Q

What pregnancy complications occur in Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Pregnancy complications includeneonatal lupus and congenital heart block.

58
Q

Why does pravastatin (Pravachol) have a lower risk than average of causing myopathy?

A

The incidence of myopathy is 2%. The cytochrome CYP3a4 enzyme is relatively resistant to alteration by other medication compared with P-450. It is more hydrophilic and the lipophilic statins have more CNS side effects.

59
Q

What rare diseases cause arthritis?

A

The following conditions are rare and are considered unlikely: rheumatic fever, chronic infectious arthritis, subacute bacterial endocarditis, tuberculous arthritis, fungal arthritis, and Whipple’s disease.

60
Q

How does Trophorema whipplei cause disease?

A

Trophorema whipplei infection is a common cause of diarrhea in children and a very rare cause of systemic illness in adults. Trophorema whipplei causes Whipple’s disease by producing an overwhelming intracellular disseminated bacterial infection within macrophages. Gram staining reveals the organisms and PAS staining reveals carbohydrate deposits characteristic of the disease. The process is more akin to leprosy in terms of bacterial load and tempo.

61
Q

What are the musculoskeletal and neurologic manifestations of Whipple’s disease?

A

Neurologic involvement in Whipple’s disease usually presents as dysarthria, myoclonus, or oculomasticatory myorhythmia. Musculoskeletal involvement usually starts as arthralgia progressing to intermittent tenderness and effusions then persistent arthritis over eight years.

62
Q

When should the diagnosis of Whipple’s disease be a serious consideration?

A

Whipple’s disease should be considered in cases of joint pain with weight loss, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. Rare additional presentations include culture negative endocarditis, multiple sclerosis, maladsorption, and hypopituitarism.

63
Q

What are the symptoms of fluoroquinolone induced musculoskeletal toxicity?

A

Side effects include cardiac arrhythmias, aggravation of muscle weakness, tendon rupture, and myositis. Symptoms of tendinopathy can appear from 2 hours to 6 months after fluoroquinolone ingestion. Achilles tendinitis is the most common form, but common extensor origin the lateral elbow, subscapularis, biceps brachii, brachioradialis, adductor longus, quadriceps, and patellar tendons are at risk.

64
Q

How does levofloxacin damage connective tissue ?

A

Fluoroquinolone associated tendon disorders induced changes similar to overuse tendinitis including abnormal fiber structure, for cellularity, fibrotic areas, and increase extracellular matrix. Ultrasonic imaging shows thickening and hypoechogenicity. There is decrease in collagen synthesis and increase in matrix-degrading activity. Fluoroquinolones chelate calcium,, zinc, and aluminum cations which may interfere with integrins as well as cell signaling. Caspase 3 Is activated with apoptosis seen by EM. Reactive oxygen species production is increased. They block K+ ion channels, and topoisomerase. Levofloxacin damaged cartilage shows upregulation of TNFRS12a, prostaglandin-endoperoxide synthase (PTGS2), plasminogen activator, urokinase receptor (Plaur), and matrix metalloproteinase 3.

65
Q

Who is at risk to develop fluoroquinolone induced musculoskeletal toxicity?

A

Damage increases with higher loads across cartilage. Risk is higher if elderly, and concurrent use of gluceocorticoids. Achilles rupture occus in 17/100,00. Prescription event monitoring gives an incidence of 2.4/10,000 for tendinitis, and 1.2/10,000 or tendon rupture. Relative risk was 3.2 if greater than 60 and 20 if over 80 years of age, increasing to 6.2 in patients over 60 taking glucocorticoids. Incidence is affected by dose but not duration of treatment. Fluoroquinolone treatment results in Achilles tendon rupture in 1/6000 patients, 1/1638 if over 60, and 1/979 if taking glucocorticoids.

66
Q

How do you treat fluoroquinolone induced musculoskeletal toxicity?

A

Aside from stopping the fluoroquinolone, giving magnesium, antioxidants-mitochondrial targeted form of ubiquinone (MitoQ), and avoiding high tension across muscle, tendon, and joint are recommended.

67
Q

Is retinal vein thrombosis a sign of temporal arteritis?

A

Temporal arteritis is associated with amaurosis fugax in 26% with central retinal artery occlusion, branch retinal artery occlusion, and non-arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy. 5% of central retinal vein occlusion is related to amurosis fugax, but not temporal arteritis.

68
Q

What cytokines are produced by granulomas?

A

Granulomatous inflammation usually shows a Th1 mediated response with increased production of TNF, INF gamma, IL-2, IL-8, IL 10, IL-12, IL-18, IL-23, and TGF beta.

69
Q

What RNA expression is increased within sarcoid granulomas?

A

Sarcoid granulomas show RNA expression for IL-6, MCP-1 (monocyte chemotactic protein 1, CCL2, Cox-2, INF gamma, T-bet, IRF-1 (interferon regulatory factor 1), IP-10 (interferon gamma induced protein 10, CXCL10), Nox2 (subunit of NADPH oxidase), but not beta actin, IL-13, IL-33.

70
Q
A
71
Q

What syndrome results from failure of phosphorylation of a protein necessary for actin polymerization?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich protein needs GTP induced phosphorylation in order to help activate actin polymerization. The resulting syndrome of actin polymerization failure causes microthrombocytopenia, eczema, and recurrent infections.