RHEUM TREATMENT Flashcards

1
Q

OSTEOARTHRITIS

TX  no known cure, goals = relieve ___, minimize disability & disease progression, maintain QOL
- Conservative = ____ affected joint, brace or cane, stretching & strengthening exercise (low impact)
- Meds =
o Tylenol (for mild – moderate pain, not really 1st line bc high doses  hepatotoxicity)
o ______ (topical or oral) = more effective than Tylenol, but ↑ adverse effects (GI bleeding and renal toxicity) ***use when Tylenol doesn’t work and no CI
o _____ creams (Capsaicin or methylsalycylate/Bengay) or topical lidocaine patches
- _______r injection for temp relief  corticosteroids, hyaluronic acid (gel), PRP, placental tissue matrix (PTM)
o Costly!!! Small risk of infection or injection site reactions
- Consider ____ (total hip and knee replacement) if persistent pain, limited ADL’s, end-stage radiograph changes, med therapy fails  excellent functional & symptomatic improvement

A
PAIN 
rest
NSAIDs
topical
intra-articular
surgery
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2
Q

GOUT

TREATMENT
ACUTE MANAGEMENT (ATTACKS)
- ______ (classically), ____, corticosteroids (oral taper, intra-articular where it is injected into joint, or IM)
o MOA of colchicine: disrupts innate inflammatory cascade, stabilizes tubulin
o SE of colchicine: VERY NARROW THERAPETIC WINDOW (pts can OD on this), diarrhea, GI distress, interacts with many meds
- Supportive: off-loading, ___
CHRONIC MANAGEMENT
1. Urate lowering therapy (ULT): __________ inhibitors (allopurinol or febuxostat), probenecid, or biologic uricase enzyme
Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (_____ or febuxostat)
o MOA of XOIs: inhibits xanthine oxidase enzyme thereby decreasing the production of uric acid; shifts serum urate balance towards elimination from the body
o SE of XOIs: generally well tolerated, some GI upset at higher doses, rare hypersensitivity reaction (DRESS), mobilization flare
o Allopurinol IS SAFE in CKD  just start at lower dose and go up slower
_______
o Used to augment allopurinol or if pt cannot tolerate allopurinol
2. Flare prophylaxis for at least 3-6 months after starting ULT: ______, ______ low-dose prednisone (like 5 mg)
***When you start someone on allopurinol (urate lowering therapy), you need to give them something every day for 3-6 months for flare prophylaxis (colchicine or low dose naproxen typically  if pt has CKD, VERY low dose prednisone)

A
COLCHICINE, NSAIDS
ice
xanthine oxidase
allopurinol
probenecid
colchicine, nsaids
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3
Q

PSEUDOGOUT

TREATMENT
ACUTE FLARES: _____ (by mouth or joint injection), colchicine, ____
PROPHYLAXIS: colchicine or _____
**No CPP lowering therapy in existence

A

STEROIDS, NSAIDS

NSAIDs

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4
Q

RA

TREATMENT
1) Early referral to rheumatology clinic
2) Start conventional _____ therapy ASAP +/- ____ bridge therapy (to slow disease progression)
o NON-BIO DMARDs: _____, ______ (Plaquenil), Sulfasalazine, Leflunomide
o BIO DMARDs: _____, IL6 inhib, anti-B cell antibody, T-cell co-stimulation inhibitor, IL1 inhib
 Used after inadequate response to methotrexate alone
o Start corticosteroids at low/moderate doses
3) Treat-to-Target: monitor response, visits every 1-3 months, if no response  escalate therapy
4) Low-threshold to add additional DMARDs including biologics
5) Augmentative measures include:
o PO _____(for immediate symptom control – DO NOT MODIFY DISEASE, only improve pain/fxn)
o Local intra-articular steroids
o PT/OT, exercise
o Surgery: joint replacement surgery, joint fusion, tendon reconstruction

A
DMARD, PREDNISONE
METHOTREXATE
HYDROXYCHLOROQUINE
TNF INHIBITOR
NSAIDs
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5
Q

RA

METHOTREXATE: 1st line non-biological ______ (immunomodulator) – subq or oral (1x/week dose)
- MOA: 1) Alters enzymatic adenosine signaling between immune cells which disrupts cytokine production AND 2) inhibits dihydrofolate reductase thereby interfering with the formation of DNA, RNA and proteins (folate antagonist)
- INDICATIONS: ____ DMARD in most pts (good for ____ disease or high disease activity)
- CONTRAINDICATIONS: ______ (teratogenic)
- ADVERSE EFFECTS: nausea, _____ distress, diarrhea, fatigue, ____ loss, ____ ulcers/stomatitis, slightly ↑ risk of infections
o LIVER: ↑ liver ____/worsening of chronic liver disease, fulminant hepatic fibrosis/cirrhosis (rare)
o LUNG: Hypersensitivity ______
o MARROW: bone marrow suppression  _____ , macrocytosis, aplastic anemia (rare)
- MONITORING: Obtain baseline ____, CBC, ____ function, and ____ panel  then monitor CBC, AST/ALT, _____ throughout therapy

***OTHER = take daily folic acid supplement to prevent side effects

A
DMARD
initial, severe
pregnancy
abdominal, hair, oral
enzymes
pneumonitis
cytopenia
LFTs, renal, hepatitis
BUN/Cr
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6
Q

RA

HYDROXYCHLOROQUINE (Plaquenil) = mild non-biologic DMARD (used more in ___) – oral
- MOA: poorly understood; anti-malarial
- INDICATIONS: ___ disease or id dx is uncertain
o Can be used in combo with ___ and sulfasalazine = TRIPLE THERAPY
- CONTRAINDICATIONS: none
- ADVERSE EFFECTS: nausea & )_____ rash
o VERY RARE = ↑ risk of _____ retinopathy: abnormal deposition of Plaquenil in photoreceptor layer resulting in _____ visual loss (risk is dose & duration dependent, hardly get before 0-5 yrs on drug)
- MONITORING: baseline exam and ____ screening annually

***OTHER = safe in pregnancy

A
LUPUS
MILD
MTX
photosensitive
bulls eye
permanent
opthalmic
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7
Q

RA

TNF INHIBITORS = biologic DMARD – subq every 1-2 wks or IV infusion every 4-8 wks
 Etanercept (Enbrel), Infliximab (Remicade), Adalimumab (Humira), Golimumab (Simponi), Certolizumab pegol (Cimzia) ***all work, choice dpeedns on pt and insurance
- MOA: Monoclonal antibodies which inhibit TNF resulting in downstream reduction in cytokine signaling
- INDICATIONS: used when _____ doesn’t work (biologics are not first line therapy)
- CONTRAINDICATIONS: ___, Class III-IV ____ failure, untreated ___ infection
o Prior to starting therapy MUST r/o TB with PPD or QuantiFERON +/- CXR
o Also do HEP B/C panel
- SIDE EFFECTS: injection site reactions, _____ reactions
- ADVERSE EFFECTS: ↑ risk of _____, ↑ risk of skin ____ & hematologic malignancy, new onset __, hepatitis or ___ reactivation

A

METHOTREXATE
MS, HEART FAILURE, TB
INFUSION
infections, cancer, MS, tb

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8
Q

FIBROMYALGIA

TX  _______ = PCP, pain management, psychiatrists, psych

  • Adjunctive= exercise (low impact aerobics = swimming, walking, biking), optimize sleep, tx underlying psych/mood disorders
  • FDA approved: Amitriptyline (___), Cymbalta or Savella (___), or Lyrica (acts on voltage dep. Ca channels; esp helpful for sleep sxs)
A

care team

TCA, SNRI

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9
Q

SLE

TREATMENT
PHARMACOLOGIC MANAGEMENT
- ______ (Plaquenil)  anchor drug for all, reduces disease flares
o Decreases mortality and flares
o Get yearly eye exam
- _______  used to control flares of systemic disease
- _________ (Mycophenolate Mofetil/CellCept or Cyclophosphamide/Cytoxan or Azathioprine)  used when resistant to corticosteroids or with CNS or renal involvement
***Cyclophosphamide is good for lupus nephritis (major complication of SLE)
- _____ (Belimumab)  acts on B-cells; designed for SLE; usually reserved for dz unresponsive to corticosteroids or other immunosuppressive agents
NON-PHARMACOLOGIC
- Minor joint pain = rest/NSAIDs
- Sun protection
- STOP _____!!!
- Family planning (better to conceive in low activity state)

A
HYDROXYCHLOROQUINE
CORTICOSTEROIDS
IMMUNOSUPPRESSANTS
BENLYSTA
smoking
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10
Q

SCLERODERMA

TREATMENT
- No disease modifying agents
- Eat ___, frequent meals
- Symptomatic treatment:
o GERD: ___
o Raynaud’s symptoms: _____(nifedipine, amlodipine), PDE-5 inhibitors (sildenafil), topical nitroglycerine for active skin ulcers
o Severe systemic disease: ________ (conventional and biologic)
o Scleroderma-renal crisis: EMERGENCY  tx with ____ inhibitors
 Avoid ____  thought to contribute to renal crisis
 Avoid ___  can induce/worsen vasospasm
o Prognosis:
 lcSSc usually follows more indolent course
 dcSSc associated with higher morbidity and mortality

A
SMALL
PPIs
CCBs
immunomodulators
ACE
steroids, beta blockers
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11
Q

POLYMYOSITIS

TREATMENT

  • 1ST LINE: high-dose ____
  • ________ (Methotrexate, CellCept, Azathioprine), Rituximab, IVIG can be used if resistant
A

STEROIDS

IMMUNOMODULATORS

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12
Q

DERMATOMYOSITIS

TREATMENT
- 1ST LINE: high-dose ____
- _______ (Methotrexate, CellCept, Azathioprine), Rituximab, IVIG can be used if resistant
- Limit ___ exposure in dermatomyositis
o Skin involvement may respond to __________

A

STEROIDS
IMMUNOMODULATORS
SUN
HYDROXYCHLOROQUINE

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13
Q

PSORIATIC ARTHRITIS

TREATMENT

  • Mild: ____ = 1st line initial therapy
  • Severe (ex. > 5 joints, severe damage on radiographs, no response to NSAIDs): _________ (or other DMARDs like sulfasalazine or anti-malarials)
  • ________ (etanercept, infliximab, golumumab, and certolizumab) if methotrexate is unsuccessful
A

NSAIDs
methotrexate
TNF INHBIITORS

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14
Q

ANKLOSING SPONDYLITIS

TREATMENT
- 1st line: _____(Naproxen, Celebrex, Indomethacin, Mobic)
- 2nd line: _____ (if no response to NSAIDs)
o TNF inhibitors = Enbrel, Humira, Remicade
o ____ inhibitors = Cosentyx, Taltz
- Adjunctive treatments: encourage exercise, PT/OT if needed, long-term injury prevention

A

NSAIDS
BIOLOGICS
IL-17

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15
Q

REACTIVE ARTHRITIS

TREATMENT

  • 1st line/TOC: _____
  • Refractory cases: steroids, cs_____(methotrexate, sulfasalazine), biologics
  • Only treat with ___ if infection is active (otherwise no indication)
A

NSAIDS
DMARDS
ABX

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16
Q

SEPTIC ARTHRITIS

TREATMENT
• General support: ____, antipyretics and joint splinting for first few days.
• Patients should be admitted to the hospital
• Ortho consult for possible surgical intervention
• Definitive care: ___ antibiotics for initial 1-2 wks followed by oral antibiotics for 3-4 wks.
o Start with broad spectrum abx, then narrow based on culture results
 ___ + ____ generation cephalosporin

A

ANALGESICS
IV
VANCO, 3RD

17
Q

GONOCOCCAL ARTHRITIS

TREATMENT
• Hospital admission
• IV _____ 7-14 days

A

CEFTRIAXONE

18
Q

LYME DISEASE

TREATMENT
• Treatment early with antibiotics helps prevent some of the sequelae
• ______ 100 mg PO BID x 21 days

A

DOXYCYCLINE

19
Q

OSTEOMYELITIS

TREATMENT
• Prolonged course of antibiotics
o ___ 750 mg BID for 6-8 weeks
o ____ added when Staph suspected
• Surgical drainage and debridement considered
• Remove any hardware
• _____ of the extremity for 3 to 4 weeks

A

CIPRO
RIFAMPIN
SURGICAL
IMMOBILIZATION

20
Q

BECHETS

_______

A

CORTICOSTEROIDS

21
Q

POLYMYALGIA RHEUMATICA

_________

A

PREDNISONE

22
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS

MEDS

  • 1st line: ______ (oral or IV)
  • 2nd line: ______/____ (subQ injection)
  • 3rd line: _______-related protein analog biologics (Tymlos, Forteo) and sclerostin inhibitor (Evenity)
  • Augmentative therapies: vitamin _ supplementation, increased dietary calcium intake or supplements, strength-building exercise (weightbearing exercise), surgical management for fractures
A

BISPHOSPHONATES
DENOSUMAB/PROLIA
PTH HORMONE
D

23
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS

1st LINE: Bisphosphonates (oral or IV)

  • Oral: Alendronate (Fosamax), Ibandronate (Boniva), Risedronate (Actonel)
  • IV: Zoledronic Acid (Reclast)
  • MOA: anti-resorptive; decrease activity of osteoclasts (so decreases breakdown of bone) **take on empty stomach and remain upright
  • SIDE EFFECTS: __intolerance, _____, ___esophagitis, arthralgia, reclast-flu (IV only), ___of the jaw (ONJ), atypical femoral fracture
  • TREATMENT DURATION: reservoir of drug builds up after years, consider drug holiday after 3-5 years
A

GI, HEARTBURN, PILL

OSTEONECROSIS

24
Q

OSTEOPOROSIS

2nd LINE: Denosumab/Prolia (subQ injection)

  • MOA: RANKL inhibitor
  • SIDE EFFECTS: _____, ___ atypical fracture
A

HYPOCALCEMIA, ONJ

25
Q

PAGET’S

TREATMENT
- Oral or IV ______ prevent progression of disease
- _____ for pain control
- _____ Intervention for compressive spine lesions
o Pagetic bone = high bleeding risk
- GOOD prognosis (very responsive to therapy if treated promptly)
o 1% of Pagetic lesions become osteosarcoma

A

BISPHOSPHONATES
ANALGESICS
SURGICAL