Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

B&L Unit 4 > RHEUM REVIEW UNDERLINED TOPICS > Flashcards

RHEUM REVIEW UNDERLINED TOPICS Flashcards

1
Q

In which Rheumatologic disease does exercise pose NO risk, and may even be protective?

A

OA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In Early OA, what happens to the number of metalloproteases present in cartilage?

A

Increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Although OA is a non-inflammatory disease, which inflammatory mediators are involved?

A 
Prostaglandins
Adipokines
Nitric Oxide
IL-1
Compliment Activation.

Dont PANIC with OA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which Rheumatologic disease is characterized SYMMETRIC SYNOVITIS which can result in cartilage and bone destruction?

A

RA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the shared epitope (in antigen binding grove) commonly involved in certain suptypes of RA? Name those subtypes.

A

QKRAA

HLA-DR4
HLA-DR1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

QKRAA is commonly involved in subtypes HLA-DR_ and HLA-DR _ of _____________ disease

A

HLA-DR4
HLA-DR1

Rheumatoid Arth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Rheumatoid factor (RF), how can it become pathogenic?

A

It is usually an IgM directed at Fc portion of an IgG.

May become pathogenic when complexed with IgG (RF-IgG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the lymphocytes found in RA synovium?

A

CD4+ Tcells and TH17 cells
B-cells and plasma cells also present

NO PMNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of CD4+ memory T cells in RA synovium?

A

Modulation and amplification of local immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the basic pathophysiology of gout?

A

Deposition of Monosodium Urate (MSU) crystals due to MSU SUPERSATURATION of extracellular fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hyperuricemia my be caused by two mechanisms. Name them. Which is most common in gout?

A 
Over producers (10%) 
Under Excreters (90%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Uric acid is formed in the breakdown of __________

A

pURInes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What enzyme is responsible for oxidizing uric acid to allantoin in non-humans?

A

Uricase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Uric Acid overproducers usually inherit defects in ______ and ________ genes in an ___________ inheritance pattern.

A

PRPP synthetase
HGPRT

X-linked Recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In Uric Acid overproducers, which gene is associated with OVERACTIVITY of enzymes?

A

PRPP

lots of Purine metabolism; see the 3Ps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In Uric Acid overproducers, which gene is associated with a partial deficiency of an enzyme?

A

HGPRT

H could stand for HYPO activity maybe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing gout or crystal arthritis?

A

Arthrocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Proteins coating gout crystals modulate the immune response. Early on, crystals are covered by ________, which _________ (promotes or inihbits) phagocytosis.

A

Crystals are covered by IgG, promoting phagocytosis

19
Q

T/F Gout crystals are covered in IgG due to antigenic binding.

A

FALSE

Its due to charge interactions

20
Q

Proteins coating gout crystals modulate the immune response. Later on in the disease process, crystals are covered by ________, which _________ (promotes or inihbits) phagocytosis.

A

Apolipoprotien B, inhibits phagocytosis

21
Q

Which 3 findings are typical (according to the review) of a patient with Seronegative Spondyloarthritis?

A
  1. Sacroilitus and morning stiffness
  2. Enthesitis (swelling where tendons or ligaments insert into the bone)
  3. Inc Levels of TNF-alpha in synovium
22
Q

What percent of people that are HLA-B27 positive get ankylosing Spondyloarthritis?

A

2%

23
Q

What percent of people that are HLA-B27 positive and have a first degree relative with ankylosing Spondyloarthritis will get the disease?

A

20%

10 fold increase

24
Q

Which disease is characterized by asymmetric, oligoarticular (few joints), arthritis in the lower extremities?

A

Reactive Arthritis

25
Q

Reactive Arthritis is characterized by….

A

Asymetric, oligoarticular arthritis in the lower extremeties.

26
Q

What is the basic pathogenesis of Systemic Lupus Erythmatosis (SLE)?

A

Misdirected recognition of self as foreign. (autoimmune)

27
Q

Which Lymphocyte(s) is/are involved in SLE?

A

Both T and B cells.

28
Q

Antibody responses toward autoantigens in SLE are ___________ and require _________ (cell)

A

Antigen Driven

CD4+ T cells

This means that we make selective autoantigens in lupus.

29
Q

In SLE, loss of T-cell tolerance leads to…

A

peripheral autoreactive B-cell stimulation.

30
Q

Is SLE a monogenic or polygenic disease?

A

Poly

31
Q

Which Gene is MOST associated with SLE?

A

C4A

32
Q

Although it is not specific to SLE, 95% of patients with SLE are ANA (+/-)?

A

ANA+

Antinuclear antibody

33
Q

What are the targets of antibodies in lupus?

A

MULTIPLE NUCELAR ANTIGENS including:

  1. dsDNA
  2. Histones
  3. SSA, SSB, Smith and Ribonuclear Protein (non-DNA, non-histone antigens)
34
Q

Anti-phospholipid antibodies in SLE type II cause _________ of platelets

A

Clotting

— Even though they are referred to Lupus Anticoagulant

35
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Vasculitis?

A

Inflammation→ PAFs (platelet activating factors)→ ↑ VASCULAR PERMIABILITY→ Immune complex deposition.

Leads to palpable purpura

36
Q

Because vasculitis is thought to be T cell dependent-mediated endothelial cell injury, this suggests that that the mechanism is most likely ___________.

A

Antigen driven

37
Q

C-ANCA is generally associated with _______(protein) and ___________(disease)

A

Proteinase 3 (PR3)

GPA (Wegner’s disease or Granulomatosis with Polyangitis)

Remember that C’s affect your GPA

38
Q

P-ANCA is generally associated with _______(protein) and ___________(disease)

A

MPO

Microsopic polyangitis (MPA)

MPA and MPO for P-ANCA

39
Q

Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis are highly associated with

A

Interstitial Lung Disease (60%)

40
Q

Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis have Anti-aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. Where does this antibody target?

A

Cytoplasm

41
Q

Anti-Jo-1 = anti-__________-tRNA synthetase

A

histayl

42
Q

T/F Anti-synthetase antibodies are pathologic and myotoxic antibodies.

A

FALSE

They are neither pathologic nor myotoxic

43
Q

Polymyositis is associated with CD____ cells

A

CD8+

think of polymyositis and Dermatomyositis. D comes before P and 4 before 8

44
Q

Dermatomyositis is associated with CD____ cells

A

CD4+

(think of polymyositis and Dermatomyositis. D comes before P and 4 before 8)

B&L Unit 4 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions