Rheum/Ortho Flashcards

1
Q

A strain is damage to what structure?

A

muscle

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2
Q

A sprain is damage to what structure?

A

ligamentous

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3
Q

Is the Bear Hug the most sensitive of specific for subscapularis?

A

sensitive

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4
Q

What causes Mallet Finger? Tx?

A

extensor tendon injury at DIP

splint for six weeks

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5
Q

What causes Jersey Finger?

A

FDP tendon injury

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6
Q

What causes Volar Plate Injury? Tx?

A

forceful hyperextension

splint at 45 degrees

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7
Q

What structure is damaged during Skiers Thumb?

A

Ulnar collateral ligament

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8
Q

Where does Snapping Hip Syndrome cause pain?

A

posterior to trochanter

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9
Q

What muscle can hypertrophy during Patello-Femoral Syndrome? Atrophy?

A

hypertrophy = vastus lateralis

atrophy = vastus medialis

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10
Q

What are the two locations of woven bone in children?

A

fetal skeleton and growth plate

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11
Q

Which two genes for Osteogenesis Imperfecta are inherited as Autosomal Dominant?

A

alpha-one

alpha-two

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12
Q

What form of Osteogenesis Imperfecta is lethal?

A

type two

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13
Q

What tooth component is absent during Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

dentin

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14
Q

What type of bone for osteoporosis?

A

trabecular

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15
Q

There are fewer types of what structure during osteoporosis?

A

spicules

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16
Q

What Acid-Base abnormality is present during Renal Osteodystrophy?

A

metabolic acidosis

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17
Q

Which two metals deposit during Renal Osteodystrophy?

A

iron and aluminum

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18
Q

Which type osteoclast is present during Pagets Disease?

A

very large osteoclasts

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19
Q

What specific part of the bone can bleed during Scurvy?

A

subperiosteal bleeding

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20
Q

What are the three progressions of Callus Formation?

A

Pro-Callus

fibrocartilaginous callus

osseus callus

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21
Q

Which type of abscess for Osteomyelitis? What may persist?

A

Brodie Abscess

viable organisms

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22
Q

What is sequestrum?

A

residual necrotic bone

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23
Q

Aspirin relieves the pain of what type of bone tumor?

A

osteoid osteoma

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24
Q

Does aspirin relieve the pain of osteoblastoma?

A

no

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25
Q

20% of Osteosarcoma have mets go where?

A

lungs

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26
Q

What type of cell must be found for diagnosis for Osteosarcoma?

A

osteoid

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27
Q

Where do Chondromas arise on the bone?

A

Metaphysis

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28
Q

What is the disease for multiple Chondromas?

A

Ollier’s Disease

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29
Q

What age does a chondroma affect? Where?

A

20-40

hands and feet

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30
Q

What are the two locations of a chondrosarcoma?

A

pelvis

axial skeleton

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31
Q

Homer Wright Rosettes are indicative of what bone tumor?

A

Ewing

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32
Q

What chromosome is the EWS gene on?

A

2

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33
Q

What CD molecule could a Ewing Sarcoma carry?

A

CD99

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34
Q

What kind of bone is present during Fibrous Dysplasia?

A

Woven

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35
Q

What is another name for Giant Cell Tumor of Bone?

A

Osteoclastoma

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36
Q

What are movable joints called?

A

Diarthrosis

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37
Q

Which joint does Rheumatoid Arthritis not affect?

A

DIP

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38
Q

What changes faster, CRP or ESR?

A

CRP

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39
Q

Do RF levels correlate with disease activity?

A

no

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40
Q

Should RF be used as a screen?

A

no

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41
Q

Do anti-dsDNA levels fluctuate with disease activity of lupus?

A

yes

42
Q

Anti-ribonucleoproteins correspond to what disease?

A

mixed connective tissue

43
Q

What is the autoantibody during Diffuse Systemic Sclerosis?

A

anti-SCL-70

Topoisomerase one

44
Q

Hyperuricemia is diagnosed above how many milligrams in the blood?

A

seven

45
Q

Does Psoriatic arthritis affect the DIP or PIP?

A

DIP

46
Q

What structure undergoes hyperplasia during Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?

A

synovial joint

47
Q

How many joints does Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis need to affect?

A

five

48
Q

A child with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis that has a positive ANA requires what exam?

A

ophthalmology

49
Q

Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis needs to be diagnosed before what age?

A

sixteen

50
Q

How long does Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis need to last?

A

more than six weeks

51
Q

Which drug is used to treat Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?

A

NSAIDs

52
Q

What structure does Enthesitis type of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis affect?

A

attachment of a muscle or ligament to bone

53
Q

Neonatal Lupus requires what device?

A

pacemaker

54
Q

What can HSP cause in the GI tract?

A

intusussecption

55
Q

What is the treatment for HSP?

A

steroids

56
Q

Avoid what two types of agents for HUS?

A

anti-motility

anti-biotics

57
Q

How much Vitamin D per day?

A

800-1,000 units

58
Q

What does Denosumab bind?

A

RANK-L

59
Q

What is the PTH analogue?

A

Teriparatide

60
Q

Accordind to ROnkar, how many joints need to be affected for Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

at least three

61
Q

According to ROnkar, DMARDs are usually used in comobination with what other drug?

A

methotrexate

62
Q

What process occurs during Fibromyalgia?

A

central sensitization

63
Q

What event can precede the pain of fibromyalia?

A

sleep disorder

64
Q

According to Ronkar, narcotics for fibromyalgia?

A

no

65
Q

According to Ronkar, NSAIDs for fibromyalgia?

A

no

66
Q

According to Ronkar, steroids for fibromyalgia?

A

no

67
Q

Does Polymyalgia Rheumatica respond quickly or slowly to steroids?

A

quickly

68
Q

ANA positive indicates what type of JIA? What percent?

A

oligo

80%

69
Q

Which parts of the bone do vessels and nerves arise from?

A

periosteum

70
Q

Callus formation follows what structure of bone?

A

periosteum

71
Q

According to Benzoni, what fluid may prevent healing?

A

synovial

72
Q

According to Benzoni, what is the treatment for a broken scapula?

A

sling

73
Q

Check for what if pt had seizure?

A

posterior shoulder dislocation

74
Q

Does a wrist dislocation occur more often on a flexed or extended wrist?

A

flexed

75
Q

Where do hip bursitis refer pain?

A

lateral hip

76
Q

Which interleukin is involved in PDB?

A

IL-6

77
Q

What is the rim of reactive bone around a Brodie abscess called?

A

Involucrum

78
Q

Where does a chondrosarcoma arise on a bone?

A

metaphysis

79
Q

According to Metts, is an RF test needed for JIA?

A

no

80
Q

Anybody with what type of fracture has a diagnosis of osteoporosis?

A

fragility

81
Q

Do sites change or stay the same for PDB?

A

stay same

82
Q

What percent of kids get Uveitis during JIA? What type of arthritis?

A

uveitis = 40%

Oligoarthritis

83
Q

Get a patients uric acid level below what value?

A

six

84
Q

Which two populations is a T-score not used?

A

men

women less than 50

85
Q

All men over what age should get a bone scan?

A

70

86
Q

Men and women between what age range should get a bone scan if risk factors are present?

A

50-70

87
Q

What virus for PDB?

A

paramyxovirus

88
Q

Which sex is affected by an osteoid osteoma?

A

male

89
Q

Where do osteoblastomas arise?

A

vertebrae

90
Q

What differentiates PNET from Ewing?

A

PNET is differentiated

91
Q

Is Ewing differentiated or undifferentiated?

A

undifferentiated

92
Q

Which tumor is described as Chinese Characters?

A

fibrous dysplasia

93
Q

How many mg’s of calcium per day?

A

1,200 mg

94
Q

Are trabeculae laid down with or against bone stress?

A

with

95
Q

What is another name for trabecular bone?

A

Lamellar

96
Q

Does Type One Osteogenesis Imperfecta have deformities?

A

no

97
Q

What two sites do osteomas occur?

A

skull and face

98
Q

Are osteomas malignant?

A

no

99
Q

What is the histology of osteoblastoma versus an osteoid osteoma?

A

identical

100
Q

Codmans triangle is indicative of what bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

101
Q

Lifting of Periosteum is indicative of what bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

102
Q

What type of mutation for fibrous dysplasia?

A

somatic