Exam One Flashcards
(295 cards)
1
Q
Is the pediatric airway located high or low in the neck?
A
high
2
Q
Where does the epiglottis sit in the child airway?
A
behind soft palate
3
Q
What is the shape of the pediatric airway?
A
funnel
4
Q
What is the narrowest portion of the pediatric airway?
A
cricoid
5
Q
Is Choanal Atresia more common in female or male?
A
female
6
Q
Which membrane can persist during choanal atresia?
A
buccopharyngeal
7
Q
Which congenital happening anamoly can pyriform stenosis present with?
A
holoprosencephaly
8
Q
What type of tooth for Pyriform Stenosis?
A
central mega incisor
9
Q
What is the most COMMON source of nasal obstruction in kids? Does this self resolve?
A
Rhinitis of Infancy
yes
10
Q
What is the most common cause of (SUPRA-GLOTTIC) pediatric stridor? When does this resolve?
A
LARYNGO-malacia
by one year
11
Q
What structure needs to be evaluated for congenital bilateral vocal fold paralysis?
A
foramen magnum
12
Q
What malformation needs to be evaluated for congenital bilateral vocal fold paralysis?
A
chiari type one
13
Q
What is the most common neoplasm of the vocal FOLD of children? What age do these kids present?
A
recurrent respiratory papillomatosis
2-4 years
14
Q
What is the SECOND most common cause of stridor in infants?
A
bilateral vocal fold paralysis
15
Q
What is the third most common cause of stridor in infants? What causes it?
A
subglottic stenosis
iatrogenic
16
Q
What is the most common cause of subglottic stenosis?
A
iatrogenic
17
Q
Are Subglottic Hemangiomas more common in females or males?
A
female
18
Q
What is the most common neoplasm of the infant airway?
A
SUBGLOTTIC HEMANGIOMA
19
Q
Where else do hemangiomas manifest if a child had a subglottic hemangiomas?
A
cutaneous
20
Q
What else does tracheomalacia often present with?
A
TE fistula
21
Q
What are the two causes of external compression in infant trachea?
A
vascular rings
mediastinal mass
22
Q
What is the most common inhaled particle? What age range?
A
food
six months to two years
23
Q
What is the most common ingested particle?
A
coin
24
Q
Which virus causes croup?
A
Parainfluenza Type One
25
What is the most common neoplasm in kids?
hemangioma
26
Are most pediatric neck masses benign or malignant?
benign
27
Are most adult neck masses benign or malignant?
malignant
28
The majority of pediatric neck masses are what?
inflammatory
29
A posterior neck mass is behind what muscle?
SCM
30
What type of branchial cleft cyst is most common?
type two
31
A type two branchial cleft cyst is located between what two landmarks?
cricoid and SCM
32
Which two arches contribute to a Type Two Branchial Cleft Cyst?
second and third
33
A type One branchial clest cyst is close to what structure?
ear
34
Which two arches contribute to a Type One Branchial Cleft Cyst?
first and second
35
Which type of branchial cleft cyst can become intertwined with the facial nerve?
type one
36
A type Three branchial clest cyst arises most often in what sex? Where?
female
left neck
37
Which two arches contribute to a Type three Branchial Cleft Cyst?
third and fourth
38
Which two bacteria are the most common cause of Acute Bacterial Lymphadenitis?
S. aureus
Group A beta hemolytic strep
39
Which two antibiotics for an Atypical Mycobacterial neck mass?
azithromycin and ethambutol
40
Does a child with cat scratch disease present with mild or severe symptoms?
mild
41
How is cat scratch diagnosed?
serology
42
Which stain for cat scratch?
warthin starry silver
43
What type of EPITHELIUM for a congenital neck mass? Infection follows what?
respiratory
recent URI
44
Which bone during a thryoglossal duct cyst? Which part?
hyoid
central
45
Which triangle for a Plunging Ranula?
submental
46
What muscle for a Plunging Ranula?
mylohyoid
47
What gland for a Plunging Ranula?
Sublingual
48
What drug for hemangioma?
propranalol
49
Which two growths for an exit procedure?
teratoma
lymphatic malformation
50
What is the most common cause for a head and neck malignancy?
lymphoma
51
Over what age for a Lymphoma?
five
52
What neck malignancy under six?
neuroblastoma
53
What is the most common soft tissue malignancy in kids?
Rhabdomyosarcoma
54
A lymph node greater than what size in infants under the age of one is concerning?
1 cm
55
A lymph node greater than what size is concerning in a child over the age of ONE?
3cm
56
Does OME have effusion?
no
57
What percent of kids are diagnosed with OME by 9 months?
40%
58
What percent of kids are diagnosed with OME by Two years?
60%
59
Between how many months is the peak age for OME?
6-12 months
60
Which two Races of people are at the highest risk for OME?
native american and eskimo
61
Which two congenital disorders increase the chance of OME?
craniofacial
down syndrome craniosynastosis
62
Otitis media is considered universal in what population?
cleft palate
63
What type of infection can predispose to otitis media?
upper respiratory tract
64
Does OME have inflammation?
no
65
What is the key factor regarding long-term consequences of OME?
duration of disease
66
It is assumed that most cases of OME are caused by viral or bacteria?
viral
67
In descending order, what are the top three causes of bacterial infections of the ear?
S. pneumo
H. flu
moraxella catarrhalis
68
Which bacteria is increasing in the incidence of otitis media?
non-typeable H. flu
69
Which GI disease can cause a greater incidence of otitis media?
GERD
70
Which GI enzyme can be found in the middle ear during OME with GERD?
pepsin/pepsinogen
71
Does M. catarrhalis have a vaccine?
no
72
Which virus can cause otitis media?
Influenza A or B
73
What age is an absolute contraindication to observation?
6 months
74
A relative contraindication to OME observation occurs within how many days?
30
75
A relative contraindication to OME observation with bilateral otitis media under how many years?
two
76
What is the preferred drug for OME? What concentration? How many doses?
amoxicillin
90 mg/kg
two doses
77
Which antibiotic for severe otitis media?
amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
78
Which drug for otitis media with a penicillin allergy?
cephalosporin
79
Which drug for otitis media with a penicillin and cephalosporin allergy?
macrolide
80
First line antibiotic therapy is not considered if there is a relapse within how many days?
30
81
How many day course of antibiotic for a severe or young child case?
ten day
82
How many day course of antibiotic for a mild or child over age six case?
5-7 days
83
Which two drugs show no use for otitis media?
antihistamines
steroids
84
How many AOM infections for tubes?
three in six months
four in twelve months
85
What are the three causes of OME for tubes?
greater than four months
hearing loss/language delay
structural damages
86
Pain longer than how long may indicate not just a simple otitis media?
one week
87
Is foul smelling discharge from an ear an indicator of not just normal otitis media?
yes
88
Pain localized to what area may indicate not just simple otitis media?
retroorbital
89
Which nerve can become paralyzed during an severe bout of otitis media?
facial
90
Are anaerobics seen with acute otitis media? What infection are they seen with?
no
mastoiditis
91
Which otitis media bacteria is associated with meningitis?
strep pneumo
92
Which two organisms for Cholesteatoma?
pseudomonas and bacteroides
93
Sound is the what of acoustic energy?
perception
94
What is the ratio of hearing structures?
tympanic membrane to foot plate of stapes
95
What membrane in the ear for hearing? Tuned to?
basilar
different frequencies
96
What two things do the efferent signals of the organ of corti do?
fine tune and amplify
97
What does the efferent pathway create? What is another name for this?
cochlear microphone
cochlear microphone = otoacoustic emission
98
What is the gold standard for measuring hearing?
behavioral testing
99
What three things does adult behavioral testing measure?
hearing level for each frequency
speech repitition threshold
speech discrimination
100
What is the decibel range for normal hearing?
-10 to 25
101
What is the decibel range for mild hearing loss?
25 to 40
102
What is the decibel range for moderate hearing loss?
40 to 55
103
What is the decibel range for moderately severe hearing loss?
55 to 70
104
What is the decibel range for severe hearing loss?
70 to 90
105
What is the decibel range for profound hearing loss?
90 to 120
106
What does otoacoustic emission ENSURE?
cochlear function is intact
107
What doesnt otoacoustic emission measure?
hearing
108
Otoacoustic emissions have a very high rate of what?
false positive
109
Is ABR a measure of hearing?
no
110
What test is the gold standard for MIDDLE EAR status? What does this measure?
Typanometry
compliance of tympanic membrane
111
What is abnormal in conductive hearing loss?
amplification of signal
112
What is the most common cause of pediatric conductive hearing loss? Less common?
middle ear effusion
auricular atresia
113
What is the most common cause of adult conductive hearing loss? Less common?
long standing chronic ear disease
otosclerosis
114
What is the most common cause of pediatric sensorineural hearing loss? Less common?
congenital
hereditary and late onset
115
What is the most common cause of adult sensorineural hearing loss? Less common?
presbycusis
acoustic neuroma
116
What can decrease speech discrimination?
increased amplification
117
What does BAHA allow for?
direct stimulation of cochlea
118
Is rhinitis more caused by bacteria or virus? What is the cause of secondary infection?
virus
bacterial infection after virus
119
Purulent discharge for more than how many days suggests bacterial rhinitis?
five days
120
What is the cause of rhinosinusitis is kids under four?
adenoiditis
121
What pharynx pathology can cause recurrent need of ear tubes?
adenoids
122
Which imaging modality has no role in sinusitis?
plain film Xray
123
Which imaging modality has A role in sinusitis?
CT w/o contrast
124
Do clear secretions get antibiotics?
no
125
Can anaerobes cause sinusitus?
yes
126
How many days of ABX for bacterial sinusitis?
ten
127
What three conditions predispose to Polypoid Corditis?
smokers/talkative/acid reflux
128
What is key for vocal cord dysfunction?
correct diagnosis
129
What kind of exercises for vocal cord dysfunction?
speech therapy
130
What are the two treatments for Bells Palsy?
HIGH dose steroids
AND
anti-virals
131
What type of testing IS WARRANTED during Bells Palsy?
audiometric
132
What virus is associated with Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?
herpes zoster
133
Is full recovery from Ramsay Hunt Syndrome likely?
no
134
Is the hearing loss of Acoustic Schwannoma reversible or irreversible?
irreversible
135
What is another name for Glomus tumor?
paragangliomas
136
How does a Glomus Tumor present?
pulsatile tinnitus
137
Which turbinate can obstruct airflow the most?
inferior turbinate
138
What is more common, anterior or posterior epistaxis?
anterior
139
Kesselbechs plexus is located along which septum?
anterior
140
Is Kesselbechs plexus located anterior or posterior?
anterior
141
Which vessels feed the nose?
external and internal carotid
142
Which drug for nasal vestibulitis?
Bactroban
143
Is silver nitrate a good choice for active rapid bleeding?
no
144
How long is packing left in?
three days
145
Who removes nose packing?
ENT
146
Antibiotics for the coverage of what during nose packing?
staph
147
Which is more severe, anterior or posterior epistaxis?
posterior
148
Which artery can be ligated for POSTERIOR epistaxis?
anterior ethmoidal
149
Does males or females get Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma?
males
150
What imaging modality for the sinuses?
CT
151
What imaging modality for the brain?
MRI
152
What kind of metaplasia for Nasal Vestibulitis?
squamous
153
Which turbinate is involved in Rhinitis Medicamentosa?
inferior
154
What preceedes sinusitis?
rhinitis
155
Does Chronic Rhinosinusitis have an increased white count?
no
156
It is rare for an adult to have an ear infection w/o what other concurrent infection?
sinus infection
157
Inflammation in the nose may lead to inflammation in what other area?
upper airway
158
What is the main antibiotic for sinusitis?
amoxicillin-clavulanate
159
What are the two nasal decongestants?
phenylephrine and oxymetazoline
160
What process drives the formation of vocal cord polyps?
inflammation
161
Two drugs for Traumatic Granuloma?
steroids and PPIs
162
What definitevly treats a traumatic granuloma?
surgery
163
What causes vocal cord nodules?
reflux
164
Is laryngeal cancer very or not very treatable?
very
165
Does laryngeal cancer metastisize early or late?
late
166
What is the presentation of laryngeal cancer?
smokers with new onset hoarseness
167
Does reflux laryngitis often or not often have signs of heartburn?
not often
168
Does laryngomalacia have a relationship with reflux?
yes
169
Which two months does LAryngomalacia present?
first to second
170
What is the rate of incidence of Bells Palsy in comparing men to women?
equal
171
What is the narrowest portion the facial nerve traverses?
internal genu
172
What imaging for Bells Palsy?
MRI
173
What can happen to the eye during Bells Palsy?
corneal abrasion
174
According to Griffith, are most neck masses in the young adult benign or malignant? What is the top age of this group?
benign
40
175
Where does masses in the Upper Jugular area come from?
nasopharynx
176
Where does masses in the Lower Jugular area come from?
mediastinum
177
Where two areas do submandibular masses come from?
anterior two thirds of tongue
floor of mouth
178
Where do masses in the submental area come from?
Lip
179
According to Griffith, what is the empirical treatment for a new onset neck mass?
two weeks of broad spectrum ABX
180
According to Griffith, what is the standard of diagnosis for a neck mass?
fine needle aspiration
181
Any conditions with symptoms of what disease always get an FNA?
lymphoma
182
How many passes for an FNA?
four
183
According to Griffith, what does CT distinguish regarding neck masses?
cystic vs. solid
184
According to Griffith, what neck mass doesnt get contrast during a CT scan?
thyroid
185
According to Griffith, radionucleotide scanning is used for identifying masses in which two areas?
salivary and thyroid
186
What is the most common type of carcninoma in adult head and neck masses?
squamous cell
187
According to Griffith, what is the most common neck mass?
thyroid
188
Are thyroid masses more often malignant in children or adults?
children
189
Are thyroid masses more common in males or females?
males
190
According to Griffith, is lymphoma more common in younger or older poeple?
younger
191
Do lipomas affect the young or the old more often?
old
192
What two vessels is a Type Two Branchial Cleft Cyst most often located between?
internal and external carotid
193
According to Griffith, which Type of branchial cleft cyst involves the facial nerve?
Type One
194
According to Griffith, branchial Cleft Cysts present often after which type of infection?
upper respiratory infection
195
According to Griffith, which resolves spontaneously, hemangiomas or lymphangiomas?
hemangioma
196
According to Griffith, how are lymphangiomas treated?
surgical excision
197
What is the most common type of head and neck cancer?
squamous cell
198
What percent of Erythroplakia progress into carcinoma?
20-30%
199
What has to be present for ABX for Acute Pharyngitis?
positive culture
200
What bacteria is the most common agent of tonsilitis?
Group A beta-hemolytic strep
201
According to Griffith, which antibiotic for tonsillitis? How long?
penicillin
5-10 days
202
What type of rash for mono?
macular
203
Where in the oral cavity does mono present a rash?
junction or hard and soft palate
204
What drug for mono?
prednisone
205
Mono can cause what nerve dysfunction?
GBS
206
According to Griffith, an infection of the tonsil can precede what severe infection?
peritonsillar abscess
207
Where can a peritonsillar abscess refer pain?
EAR
208
According to Griffith, what infection can cause trismus?
peritonsillar abscess
209
According to Griffith, palpation can differentiate a peritonsillar abscess from what?
cellulitis
210
According to Griffith, are throat cultures effective for a peritonsillar abscess?
no
211
According to Griffith, what two things are needed to treat a peritonsillar abscess?
incision and drainage
212
Does peritonsillar cellulitis have pus? Does abscess?
cellulitis = no pus
abscess = pus
213
What does a Retropharyngeal Abscess span?
entire length of neck
214
Do people hold their neck stiff during a peritonsillar abscess or retropharyngeal abscess?
retropharyngeal abscess
215
Do people have NUCHAL RIGIDITY during a peritonsillar abscess or retropharyngeal abscess?
retropharyngeal abscess
216
Do people have voice changes more often during a peritonsillar abscess or retropharyngeal abscess?
peritonsillar
217
What is the most common post-operative complication following tonsillectomy?
bleeding
218
Which vessel could lacerate leading to severe outcomes following tonsilectomy?
internal carotid
219
What canal does otoconia establish themselves in during BPPV?
posterior
220
Is vertigo made better or worsened by head movement during vestibular neuritis?
worsened
221
After what type of infection can vestibular neuritis present?
respiratory infection
222
Does vestibular neuritis have acute or slowed onset?
acute
223
Does vestibular neuritis increase when looking toward healthy or non-healthy ear?
healthy
224
What is the triad of Menieres Disease?
tinnitus
vertigo
hearing loss
225
Is meniere's episodic or non-episodic?
episodic
226
What diet for Meniere's?
low sodium
227
What drugs for Meniere's?
diuretics
228
What causes a Perilymphatic Fistula?
trauma
229
What is the main cause of central vertigo?
infarct
230
What type of nystagmus is present during central vertigo?
vertical
231
According to Griffith, which two vessels can contribute to a central vertigo?
PICA or vertebral
232
Can MS produce dizziness?
yes
233
Is the vertigo in MS constant or does it change?
changes
234
What type of nystagmus is present during peripheral vertigo?
horizontal
235
Does central or peripheral vertigo last longer?
peripheral
236
Does peripheral or central nystagmus close their eyes?
central
237
Does vertigo need lab testing?
no
238
Which groups of drug are the best for suppressing Acute Vertigo?
benzo
239
What two things does the high epiglottis allow children to do?
eat ad breath
obligate nasal breathers
240
Does laryngomalacia spontaneously resolve?
yes
241
What is fibromatosis coli?
fibroma in SCM
242
What are the two landmarks for a Branchial Cleft Cyst?
cricoid
anterior to SCM
243
Which bacteria is increasing in the incidence of otitis media?
non-typeable H. flu
244
Can blood flow through the lacrimal duct?
yes
245
Which nasal ointment for Nasal Vestibulitis?
Mupirocin
246
What is the treatment of vocal cord nodules?
voice hygiene and NOT SURGICAL
247
What is the treatment for childhood dysphonia?
reflux control
248
Rotation of the neck aids in examination of which neck triangle?
posterior
249
Greater than what size of growth above the supraclavicular area requires FNA?
3 cm
250
What two areas of the head and neck is MRI a better imaging modality for?
upper neck
base of skull
251
What two TISSUES can radionucleotide scanning differentiate? Two locations?
salivary and thyroid
glandular vs. non-glandular
252
What meatus do the lacrimal ducts drain into?
inferior
253
At what anatomical level of the airway is Subglottic Stenosis?
cricoid
254
How does Subglottic Hemangioma present?
biphasic stridor by six months
255
What is another name for a Type Three Branchial Cleft Cyst?
Pyriform Sinus Fistula
256
Does Cat Scratch spontaneously resolve?
yes
257
What type of cyst does a dermoid cyst often get confused with?
thyroglossal duct cyst
258
What percent of pediatric neck masses are Lymphomas?
50%
259
Which turbinate runs the length of the nose?
inferior
260
Which procedure to get a patient off afrin?
Turbinoplasty
261
What does long term afrin use do to the nose?
rebound vasodilation
262
How are vocal polyps treated?
surgery
263
Are vocal cord nodules unilateral or bilateral?
bilateral
264
Are vocal cord polyps unilateral or bilateral?
unilateral
265
What causes Childhood Dysphonia?
reflux
266
Are acoustic neuromas more often unilateral or bilateral?
unilateral
267
Are acoustic neuromas more often hereditary or non-hereditary?
non-hereditary
268
Do thyroid masses more often present in males or females during adulthood?
females
269
What is the preferred diagnostic MODALITY for a head ad neck mass that may involve a vascular tumor?
MRI
270
Which two diagnostic imaging modalities for a carotid tumor?
CT or angiogram
271
According to Griffith, where do Schwannomas most often present in the head and neck?
angle of mandible
272
According to Griffith, what is the most common congenital neck mass?
thyroglossal duct cyst
273
Does the utricle contain perilymph or endolymph?
endolymph
274
Which structure represents the inner surface of the cricoid?
subglottis
275
Where does Croup cause obstruction?
most of airway
276
What is the most common cause of acute onset lateral neck mass?
acute viral lymphadenitis
277
According to Young, what is needed before excision of a thyroglossal duct cyst?
confirmation of thyroid tissue
278
According to Young, a mass with fever/night sweats in kids will most often arise in what triangle?
posterior triangle
279
According to Young, what needs to be overcome regarding hearing?
impedance
280
What is the only device that can measure the sensory experience of hearing?
audiogram
281
What can hearing loss not be described as?
percentage loss
282
Are the majorities of anosmia idiopathic?
yes
283
What drug can treat Rhinitis Medicamentosa?
nasal steroids
284
What is the imaging modality for an Acoustic Neuroma?
MRI with gadolinium
285
Which mass of the head and neck with get a full body CT?
lymphoma
286
According to Griffith, what is the preferred diagnostic test for a salivary gland tumor?
open excisioal biopsy
287
Which blood abnormality can a hemangioma present with?
thrombocytopenia
288
Which two viruses are associated with long-term vestibular neuritis?
measles and mumps
289
Is a perilymphatic fistula self-limiting?
yes
290
What is the most deadly nasal structure?
choanal atresia
291
What is the most common cause pediatric stridor?
laryngomalacia
292
Relieved with crying, where is the lesion?
nose
293
Do vocal cord papillomas more often occur as a single or multiple lesions in kids?
single = adults
multiple = kids
294
Which direction are carotid body tumors NOT movable?
vertical
295
Angular chelitis is associated with what?
candidiasis
