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Specialty Medicine > Derm > Flashcards

Derm Flashcards

1
Q

Is Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis cell poor?

A

yes

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2
Q

How many biopsies?

A

two

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3
Q

What is more common, BP or PV?

A

BP

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4
Q

What is the age range for BP?

A

60-80

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5
Q

Which two specific antigens for BP?

A

180 and 230

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6
Q

Does BP appear quickly or over time?

A

over time

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7
Q

Which two immune proteins deposit during BP?

A

IgG and C3

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8
Q

Systemic or topical steroids for BULLOUS Pemphigoid?

A

systemic

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9
Q

Does antibody titer correlate during episodes of BP?

A

yes

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10
Q

Does pemphigoid gestationis attack oral mucosa?

A

no

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11
Q

Systemic or topical steroids for Pemphigoid Gestationis?

A

systemic

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12
Q

What specific structure does Pemphigoid Gestationis hit?

A

umbilicus

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13
Q

Does PUPP hit the umbilcus?

A

no

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14
Q

Where does PUPP appear?

A

abdominal striae

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15
Q

Is dermatitis herpetiformis itchy?

A

yes

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16
Q

Which two areas does dermatitis herpetiformis attack?

A

elbows and knees

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17
Q

Which immune cell is involved with dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

neutrophil

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18
Q

Which drug can be used to treat DH?

A

dapsone

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19
Q

What part of the body does LABD most commonly affect?

A

trunk

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20
Q

Does LABD attack the mucus membranes?

A

yes

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21
Q

What drug can cause LABD?

A

vancomycin

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22
Q

Genes for what disease can predispose to PCT?

A

hemochromatosis

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23
Q

Which three non-Genetic factors can cause PCT?

A

ethanol

estrogens

chronic Hep. C

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24
Q

What part of the body does PCT most commonly affect?

A

hands

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25
Q

Superficial blood vessels with circumferential IgG deposition is indicative of what disease?

A

PCT

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26
Q

What drug can be used to treat PCT?

A

chloroquine

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27
Q

What are two other names for Pseudoporphyria?

A

drug induced porphyria

bullous dermatosis of dialysis

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28
Q

What causes Bullous Diabeticorum?

A

weakness of basement membrane

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29
Q

Which isotypes of desmoglein for PV?

A

one and three

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30
Q

Which two immune proteins deposit during PV?

A

C3 and IgG

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31
Q

Which protein acorrding to Abbott, is cleaved during impetigo and SSSS?

A

desmoglein-1

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32
Q

Where does a friction blister occur?

A

below stratum corneum

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33
Q

What protein is dysfunctional during Hailey-Hailey disease?

A

calcium pump

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34
Q

What two areas does Hailey-Hailey present?

A

groin and axillae

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35
Q

Two treatments for Hailey-Hailey?

A

tetracyclines and steroids

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36
Q

What protein is dysfunctional during Dariers disease?

A

calcium pump

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37
Q

What causes Grovers Disease?

A

sweating and heat

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38
Q

What type of patients does Grovers Disease occur?

A

bedridden

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39
Q

What gene is mutated during Gorlin Disease? What signaling molecule is involved? Chromosome involved?

A

PTCH

Sonic hedgehog

chromosome nine

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40
Q

How does Gorlin Disease present?

A

multiple BCCs

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41
Q

What is a Marjolin’s Ulcer?

A

SCC in a previous burn

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42
Q

Which cancer can coarse along nerves?

A

SCC

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43
Q

Which two HPV isotypes are associated with Anogenital Verrucous Carcinoma?

A

six and eleven

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44
Q

What type of -plasia for Actinic Keratosis?

A

Dysplasia

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45
Q

What builds up during Actinic Keratosis?

A

excessive keratin

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46
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Xeroderma Pigmentosum?

A

AR

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47
Q

What cells give rise to a Merkel Cell Carcinoma?

A

neural crest

or neuroectoderm

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48
Q

What female tumor can metastisize to the skin?

A

breast

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49
Q

What is another name for Lymphangiosarcoma?

A

Stewart-Treves

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50
Q

Do angiosarcomas have good or poor prognosis?

A

poor

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51
Q

Whats another name for a skin tag?

A

Fibroepithelial Polyp

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52
Q

Which two cysts are full of keratin?

A

dermoid cyst

Trichilemmal Cyst

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53
Q

When does a Dermoid Cyst present?

A

birth

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54
Q

Where does a Dermoid Cyst present?

A

lateral aspect of eyelid

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55
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Steatocystoma?

A

autosomal dominant

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56
Q

What is a Trichilemmoma called? Associated with what disease?

A

benign hair follicle tumor

Cowden

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57
Q

What gene for Cowden Syndrome?

A

PTEN

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58
Q

Cowdens Syndrome present with malignancies in which two areas?

A

breast and thyroid

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59
Q

Birt-Hoge-Dube presents with tumors in which two organs?

A

lung and renal

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60
Q

What can sebaceous hyperplasia be confused with?

A

BCC

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61
Q

What disease can a Sebaceous Adenoma be associated with?

A

Muir-Torre Syndrome

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62
Q

What syndrome is Muir-Torre Syndrome associated with?

A

HNPCC

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63
Q

Which two diseases are Xanthogranuloma associated with?

A

CML and neurofibromatosis

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64
Q

What is a Xanthogranuloma also called?

A

Juvenile Xanthoma

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65
Q

Which LCH is most aggressive?

A

Letterer-Siwe

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66
Q

What are the three presentations of Hand-Schuler-Christian?

A

lytic skull lesion

diabetes insipidus

proptosis

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67
Q

Which CD molecule is LCH associated with?

A

CD1a

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68
Q

Are Schwannomas encapsulated?

A

yes

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69
Q

Schwannoma has what PROMINENT structure?

A

blood vessels

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70
Q

Are neurofibromas encapsulated?

A

no

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71
Q

What is superficial fibromatosis of the foot called?

A

Ledderhose Disease

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72
Q

What are the two flat lesions?

A

macule and patch

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73
Q

What is the size of a macule?

A

less than one cm

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74
Q

What is the size of a patch?

A

greater than one cm

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75
Q

What are the four raised lesions?

A

papule

nodule

tumor

plaque

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76
Q

What is the size of a papule?

A

less than one cm

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77
Q

What is the size of a nodule?

A

more than one cm

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78
Q

What is the size of a tumor?

A

greater than 2cm

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79
Q

What is flat topped?

A

plaque

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80
Q

What are the two clear fluid containing lesions?

A

vesicles and bulla

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81
Q

What is the size of a vesicle?

A

less than one cm

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82
Q

What is the size of a pustule?

A

greater than one cm

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83
Q

What fluid containing lesion has pus?

A

pustule

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84
Q

What skin disease does M. furfur cause?

A

Tinea versicolor

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85
Q

What rxn does 14-alpha-demethylase catalyze?

A

lanosterol to ergosterol

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86
Q

What enzyme does terbinafine inhibit?

A

squalene epoxidase

87
Q

What is the number one cause of death in Lupus?

A

cardiovascular

88
Q

After what age are nevi unlikely to appear?

A

fifty

89
Q

What cells are implicated in Halo Nevus?

A

T-lymphocytes

90
Q

What is another name for Benign Juvenile Melanoma?

A

Spitz Nevus

91
Q

Which nevus is sensitive to catecholamines?

A

Nevus anemicus

92
Q

What lamp for tuberous sclerosis?

A

Woods

93
Q

Pityriasis alba is seen in children with what?

A

atopy

94
Q

What UV is absorbed by window glass?

A

UVB

95
Q

What makes Polymorphous Light Eruption better?

A

chronic sun exposure

96
Q

Which lesion is seen during a Salmon patch?

A

macule

97
Q

What is another name for Mongolian Spots?

A

Dermal Melanocytosis

98
Q

Which lesion is seen during a Mongolian Spot?

A

macule

99
Q

Are Mongolian Spots more seen in darker or lighter skinned individuals?

A

darker

100
Q

Preauricular abnormalities are associated with what?

A

hearing loss

101
Q

Which disease presents with macules 2-3cm in diameter with a central vesicle or pustule?

A

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

102
Q

What two areas are not affected by Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum?

A

palms and soles

103
Q

Which disease similar to Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum presents but affects palms and soles?

A

Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis

104
Q

Soap or no soap for acne?

A

no soap

105
Q

Has resistance develop to Benzoyl Peroxide?

A

no

106
Q

Can topical antibiotics be used as monotherapy?

A

no

107
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Sturge Weber?

A

sporadic

108
Q

How does Sturge Weber present in the brain?

A

Meningeal hemangiomas

109
Q

Do Meningeal hemangiomas affect the contralateral or ipsilateral side during Sturge Weber?

A

ipsilateral

110
Q

How big do Cafe-Au-Lait spots need to be in prepubertal kids?

A

> 5mm

111
Q

How big do Cafe-Au-Lait spots need to be in postpubertal kids?

A

> 15mm

112
Q

What two cranial manifestations occur during Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

hydrocephalus

seizures

113
Q

No sunscreen for babies under what age?

A

six months

114
Q

What SPF rating for a kid older than six months?

A

above 15

115
Q

According to Volker, which topical drug can reduce photodamage?

A

topical tretinoins

116
Q

Seborrheic Dermatitis can present with what other disease?

A

Parkinsons

117
Q

What is another name for Neurodermatitis?

A

Lichen Simplex Chronicus

118
Q

What are the three drugs for scabies?

A

permethrin and malathion or ivermectin

119
Q

Can Actinic Keratosis resolve?

A

yes

120
Q

What is more common, BCC or SCC?

A

BCC

121
Q

Can dermatomyositis cause calcinosis?

A

yes

122
Q

Can sun exposure exacerbate dermatomyositis?

A

yes

123
Q

According to Oshea, which four drugs can cause cutaneous lupus?

A

HCTZ

CCBs

ACEIs

terbinafine

124
Q

According to Oshea, what is localized scleroderma called?

A

Morphea

125
Q

A ‘Lilac Ring’ is indicative of what disease?

A

Morphea

126
Q

What are the two presentations of Sweet’s Syndrome?

A

tender, erythematous plaques and macules

neutrophil invasion

127
Q

What disease associated with diabetes can present looking like ringworm?

A

Granuloma annulare

128
Q

Is Psoriatic Arthritis seronegative or seropositive?

A

negative

129
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Peutz Jegher?

A

autosomal dominant

130
Q

What is the mode of inheritance for Osler-Webb-Rendu?

A

autosomal dominant

131
Q

Where do exanthems appear?

A

skin

132
Q

Where do enanthems appear?

A

mucus membranes

133
Q

Where does the rash of measles begin?

A

head

134
Q

What is another name for exanthem subitum?

A

roseola

135
Q

Where does HFM start?

A

mouth

136
Q

What other dermatological abnormality is Pityriasis Rosea mistaken for?

A

ringworm

137
Q

What type of wart might shaving cause?

A

flat

138
Q

What bacteria causes Erythrasma?

A

Cornyebacterium

139
Q

What type of infection does erythmasma mimmic?

A

fungal

140
Q

What are the two treatments for Erythmasma?

A

benzoyl peroxide and erythromycin

141
Q

What is Ecthyma?

A

ulcerated impetigo

142
Q

Does ecthyma have lymphadenopathy?

A

no

143
Q

What ointment for impetigo?

A

mupirocin

144
Q

What structure does a carbuncle extend into?

A

subQ fat

145
Q

What is an infection of anapocrine sweat gland called?

A

Hidradenitis suppartiva

146
Q

Does cellulitis have a poor or well defined border?

A

poor

147
Q

Which bacteria for a human bite?

A

Eikenella corrodens

148
Q

Does Erysipelas have a poor or well defined border?

A

well

149
Q

What is another name for Tinea Pedis?

A

athletes foot

150
Q

What does KOH dissolve?

A

keratinocytes

151
Q

What is another name for ringworm?

A

tinea corporis

152
Q

What is another name for jock itch?

A

tinea cruris

153
Q

What is aother name for scalp ringworm?

A

tinea capitis

154
Q

What is the drug of choice for Tinea Capitis?

A

oral griseofulvin

155
Q

What disease does Malassezia furfur cause?

A

tinea versicolor

156
Q

What causes candidal paronychia?

A

chronic exposure to water

157
Q

Which bug causes RMSF?

A

Rickettsia ricketsii

158
Q

What organisms transmits RMSF?

A

Dermacentor

159
Q

Do adults with Atopic Dermatitis have a rash on their flexur or extensor surfaces?

A

flexor

160
Q

What percent of kids with AD have more than one symptom of atopy?

A

50-80%

161
Q

What is Samter’s Triad?

A

aspirin

asthma

atopy

162
Q

What protein links atopy and asthma?

A

Filaggrin

163
Q

Is the swelling of angioedema in the epidermis or dermis?

A

dermis

164
Q

Is urticaria in the epidermis or dermis?

A

epidermis

165
Q

What is a scratch that leads to a wheal in the arm called?

A

Dermatographism

166
Q

Does urticaria get allergy testing?

A

no

167
Q

According to Patestas, what layer of the skin do Langerhans Cells reside?

A

stratum spinosum

168
Q

According to Patestas, what layer of the skin do Merkel Cells reside?

A

basale

169
Q

According to Patestas, is the number of melanocytes the same for all races?

A

yes

170
Q

According to Patestas, which layer of skin contains lipid?

A

stratum granulosum

171
Q

Which embryonic layer does the dermis arise from?

A

mesoderm

172
Q

According to Patestas, which structure is responsible for the formation of fingerprints?

A

dermal ridges

173
Q

What type of collagen is found in the dermis ?

A

three

174
Q

What does LABD stand for?

A

Linear IgA Bullous Dermatosis

175
Q

A ‘Cluster of Jewels’ corresponds to what disease?

A

LABD

176
Q

What two populations is PV more common in?

A

jewish and mediterranean

177
Q

Does PV have eruptions in multiple stages or the same age?

A

multiple

178
Q

Does BP arise on normal or erythematous skin?

A

erythematous

179
Q

Does PV arise on normal or erythematous skin?

A

normal

180
Q

Is Loss of Staining positive or negative for Muir torre Syndrome?

A

loss = positive

181
Q

What syndrome are Cylindromas associated with?

A

Brooke Spiegler

182
Q

‘Jigsaw’ pattern refers to what growth?

A

cylindroma

183
Q

What usually happens to a Juvenile Xanthogranuloma?

A

spontaneously regress

184
Q

Is a plexiform neurofibroma pathogonomic for NF1?

A

yes

185
Q

Do patients in anaphylaxis have skin lesions?

A

no

186
Q

Acute urticaria should resolve within how many weeks?

A

six

187
Q

What enzyme is deficient during Hereditary Angioedema?

A

C1 Esterase Inhibitor

188
Q

Do patiets with Hereditary Angioedema respond to anaphylaxis treatment?

A

no

189
Q

According to Benzoni, what is the Tx for stasis dermatitis?

A

high potentcy steroids

190
Q

According to Benzoni, can venous ulcers be treated with antibiotics?

A

no

191
Q

Is Hailey-Hailey in a younger or older population?

A

older

192
Q

Is Darier disease in a younger or older population?

A

younger

193
Q

What are the two treatments of Grover Disease?

A

steroids and phototherapy

194
Q

‘Pleomorphic’ cells on biopsy are indicative of what pathology?

A

atypical fibroxanthoma

195
Q

Where does a pilomatrixoma arise?

A

cheek

196
Q

Secondary tumors can arise from which benign skin growth?

A

Nevus sebaceous

197
Q

What is the only xanthoma with normal serum lipid levels?

A

Disseminated

198
Q

Ground Glass Histiocytes are indicative of what type of benign skin lesion?

A

reticulohistiocytoma

199
Q

According to Abbot, are schwannomas associated with NF?

A

no

200
Q

Which type of Schwannoma is associated with prominent cells?

A

A

201
Q

Which type of Schwannoma is associated with a myxoid matrix?

A

B

202
Q

What is an erosion?

A

loss of epidermis

203
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

loss of dermis and epidermis

204
Q

Atypical mole syndrome puts one at risk for which disease?

A

melanoma

205
Q

Is a compound nevus raised?

A

yes

206
Q

What can arise from a blue nevus?

A

melanoma

207
Q

What is it called if older people have sun damage and then develop white spots?

A

Idiopathic Guttate Hypomelanosis

208
Q

What are lentigo called in older patients?

A

liver spots

209
Q

Which skin condition can a heat source cause?

A

erythema ab igne

210
Q

Which sex is affected more by Polymorphous Light Exposure?

A

womens

211
Q

Is Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum need to be followed or benign?

A

benign

212
Q

Which is present at birth, ETN or Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis?

A

TNPM

213
Q

Which autoimmune skin condition is made better by the sun?

A

psoriatic arthritis

214
Q

What gene for Muir-Torre?

A

MSH2

Specialty Medicine (3 decks)

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