Revision night Flashcards

1
Q

What is the equation for MABP?

A

diastolic + 1/3 (systolic-diastolic)

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2
Q

What do cardio-selective beta blockers target?

A

Beta 1 receptors in the heart

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3
Q

What do non-cardio-selective beta blockers target?

A

both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors so are contraindicated in asthmatics

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4
Q

How often do you check the patient’s pulse in CPR?

A

if the patient starts moving

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5
Q

How many units of alcohol are recommended per week for men and women?

A

14 units for both

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6
Q

What happens to resistance as vessel radius decreases?

A

resistance increases

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7
Q

What is the first line treatment for SVT?

A

Valsalva manoeuvre to increase vagal tone

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8
Q

What does a narrow tachycardia suggest?

A

supraventricular

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9
Q

If you are unsure whether a tachycardia is VT or SVT, what is the recommended treatment?

A

IV adenosine because it with have no affect in VT but will help SVT as it blocks AV node conduction by slowing the ventricles

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10
Q

What is the difference in treatment for VF and sustained VT?

A

VF: cardioversion always required

sustained VT: patient can be cardioverted with amiodarone

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11
Q

What is a common cardiac disease risk score?

A

QRISK2

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12
Q

What is the CHA2DS2-VASc score for?

A

anti-coagulation

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13
Q

What can beta blockers be used to treat?

A
  • hypertension
  • heart failure
  • arrhythmias
  • angina
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14
Q

How do organic nitrates work?

A

vasorelaxation
arterial dilation
increased coronary blood flow

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15
Q

What is furosemide?

A

a thiazide diuretic drug used to treat only the symptoms but won’t cure the disease

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16
Q

What is a continuous machine-like murmur indicative of?

A

patent ductus arteriosus

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17
Q

What is an ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the neck?

A

aortic stenosis

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18
Q

What is the main causative organism that IV drug users get with endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus

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19
Q

Which sided murmur is louder on inspiration and which is louder on expiration?

A

left sided is louder on expiration

right sided is louder on inspiration

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20
Q

Which type of diabetes is bad for your heart?

A

both type 1 and type 2

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21
Q

What is tertiary prevention of a disease?

A

reducing the incidence of chronic incapacity in those with symptomatic disease

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22
Q

What is primary prevention of a disease?

A

reducing the onset of disease

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23
Q

What is secondary prevention of a disease?

A

reducing the impact of disease that has already occured

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24
Q

Which side of the vertebral column does the azygous vein go?

A

it ascends to the SVC along the right side of the vertebral column

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25
Q

Which factors of the coagulation cascade does Warfarin block?

A

2,7,9,10

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26
Q

Which factors of the coagulation cascade does Heparin block?

A

2, 10a

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27
Q

Which factors of the coagulation cascade does LMWH block?

A

10a

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28
Q

What type of pulse is seen in shock?

A

fast but weak

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29
Q

What is included in the Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis
Right ventricular hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
Ventricular septal defect

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30
Q

What are two of the symptoms of AF?

A

SOB and palpitations

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31
Q

What condition gives delta waves on the ECG?

A

Wolf Parkinson White syndrome

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32
Q

What produces aldosterone?

A

angiotensin 2

33
Q

What do surgeons use to identify the great vessels in the cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

transverse pericardial sinus

34
Q

What does a low pansystolic murmur in a baby suggest?

A

ventricular septal defect

35
Q

What do you use to treat an arterial ulcer?

A

antiplatelet

36
Q

What do you use to treat a venous ulcer?

A

anticoagulant

37
Q

What is the most common congenital cardiac malformation?

A

ventricular septal defect

38
Q

Where do thiazide diuretics act?

A

distal tubule

39
Q

What coronary arteries are affected if there is ST elevation in leads 1-4?

A

LAD of LCA

40
Q

What murmur is pan systolic and radiates to the left axilla?

A

mitral regurgitation

41
Q

Where do loop diuretics act?

A

ascending loop of Henle

42
Q

When do you switch to a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone?

A

if potassium levels drop below 3.5

43
Q

What is the main cause of the spontaneous pace maker potential that occurs in phase 4?

A

sodium and potassium influx from the funny current

44
Q

What size does an aneurysm need to be to give EVAR?

A

mass greater than 5.5cm

45
Q

What length is a normal PR interval?

A

0.12-0.2s

46
Q

What is the length of a normal QRS?

A

less than 0.12s

47
Q

What leads will have ST elevation if there is an occlusion of the right coronary artery?

A

2,3 and aVF

48
Q

What is the feature on the ECG of third degree heart block?

A

no association between P waves and QRS complexes

49
Q

What appearance does an ECG have for atrial flutter?

A

saw tooth with no T wave

50
Q

What valve problem is most associated with rheumatic fever?

A

mitral stenosis

51
Q

What is the main side effect of calcium channel blockers?

A

ankle oedema

52
Q

What is a major side effect of statins?

A

myalgia

53
Q

What are the symptoms of digoxin poisoning?

A
seeing yellow
slurred speech
dizziness
confusion 
tachycardia
loss of appetite
54
Q

What was cardiomegaly due to?

A

left ventricular failure

55
Q

What are signs of back pressure into the venous system?

A

peripheral oedema
elevated JVP
ascites

56
Q

What is first line treatment for AF?

A

beta blocker

57
Q

What does SV equal?

A

EDV - ESV

58
Q

What is the dicrotic notch on a pressure cardiac cycle graph?

A

the little increase in pressure due to the closure of the aortic valves causing a vibration

59
Q

What is the minimum MAP needed to perfuse the organs?

A

60

60
Q

Where is ADH released?

A

posterior pituitary gland

61
Q

What is used to listen stenosis or regurgitation?

A
stenosis = bell
regurgitation = diaphragm
62
Q

What is the best test for murmurs and endocarditis?

A

TTE echo

63
Q

What is the blood test parameter for an MI?

A

Troponin

64
Q

What are the times for each little or big square on the ECG?

A
little = 0.04s
large = 0.2s
65
Q

What are some added symptoms for MI over angina?

A

nausea
sweating
vomiting

66
Q

What syndrome is getting pericarditis 6 weeks post-MI?

A

Dressler’s

67
Q

What is the mostly likely bug after dental surgery for endocarditis?

A

S. viridans

68
Q

What are the HACEK organisms for endocarditis?

A
Haemophilus
Aggregatibacter
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
69
Q

What are Osler’s nodes and Janeway lesions a sign of?

A

infective endocarditis

70
Q

What murmur has a slow rising pulse?

A

aortic stenosis

71
Q

What do rheumatoid fever and AF suggest?

A

mitral stenosis

72
Q

What are the main anticoagulant drugs?

A

Warfarin
Heparin
LMWH

73
Q

What are anticoagulant drugs used to treat?

A
  • DVT
  • post-op thrombosis
  • patients with artificial heart valves
  • AF
74
Q

What does Warfarin target?

A

factors 2,7,9 and 10 and binds to hepatic vitamin K reductase

75
Q

What does Heparin inhibit?

A

10a and 2a

76
Q

What does LMWH inhibit?

A

10a

77
Q

What are the most common antiplatelet drugs?

A

Aspirin
Clopidogrel
Tirofiban

78
Q

What are antiplatelets used to treat?

A

arterial thrombosis

79
Q

What do fibrinolytic drugs do?

A

open arteries in acute MI or stroke