Revision - HUS, Wilm's Tumour, FebCon & Epilepsy Flashcards

1
Q

Give 3 causes of HUS

A

1) E. coli 0157

2) Pneumococcal infection

3) HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What triad of features is seen in HUS?

A

1) Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

2) AKI

3) Thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What increases the risk of HUS in gastroenteritis?

A

Use of antibiotics & antimotility agents (e.g. loperamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes thrombocytopenia in HUS?

A

The formation of blood clots consumes platelets, leading to thrombocytopenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is typically the first symptom of HUS?

A

Diarrhoea that turns bloody within 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Features of HUS?

A
  • bloody diarrhoea
  • abdo pain
  • jaundice
  • pallor
  • fever
  • lethargy
  • oliguria
  • haematuria
  • HTN
  • bruising
  • confusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Management of HUS?

A

MEDICAL EMERGENCY!

Admit and treat:
1) Hypovolaemia e.g. IV fluids
2) HTN
3) Severe anaemia e.g. blood transfusion
4) Severe renal failure e.g. haemodialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which type of PKD usually affects adults and which affects children?

A

Autosomal dominant - adults

Autosomal recessive - presents in neonates and is usually picked up on antenatal scans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does ARPKD present?

A

1) Oligohydramnios

2) Cystic enlargement of the renal collecting ducts

3) Pulmonary hypoplasia

4) Potter syndrome

5) Congenital liver fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Potter syndrome?

What is it caused by?

A

A group of findings associated with a lack of amniotic fluid and kidney failure in an unborn infant.

Cause –> oligohydramnios

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the features of Potter syndrome?

A

Characterised by dysmorphic features such as underdeveloped ear cartilage, low set ears, a flat nasal bridge and abnormalities of the skeleton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What age does Wilm’s tumour typically affect?

A

<5 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common presenting feature of a Wilm’s tumour?

A

Abdo mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are Wilms’ tumours unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral (95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common site of metastases of a Wilm’s tumour?

A

Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the criteria for a very urgent referral (for an appointment within 48 hours) in regard to Wilms’ tumour?

A

1) palpable abdo mass

2) an unexplained enlarged abdominal organ

3) unexplained visible haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the initial investigation in Wilms’ tumour?

A

US of abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Management of Wilms’ tumour?

A

1) Nephrectomy: surgical excision of the tumour along with the affected kidney

2) Adjuvant treatment: chemo or radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Incomplete immunisation against which 2 pathogens are a risk factor for CNS infection?

A

1) HiB

2) Strep. pneumoniae

20
Q

When is a urine culture indicated in a febcon?

A

1) Complex seizure

or

2) <18m old

21
Q

When should parents call an ambulance for a febrile seizure?

A

Lasts >5 mins

22
Q

When should urgent referral for assessment by a paediatrician be made for a febrile seizure?

A

1) First presentation of febrile convulsion

2) Diagnostic uncertainty

3) Aged <18 months; signs of CNS infection may be more subtle in these children

4) Antibiotics have recently been taken, due to potential masking of symptoms of meningitis

23
Q

1st & 2nd line mx of focal seizures?

A

1st –> lamotrigine or levetiracetam

2nd –> carbamazepine

24
Q

What features are seen in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

(3)

A

1) generalised seizures, typically after waking/sleep deprivation

2) daytime absences

3) myoclonic seizures (may develop before generalised seizure)

25
Q

When may myoclonic seizures occur in JME?

A

Just before generalised seizure occurs

26
Q

What 2 medications does management of infantile spasms involve?

A

1) Prednisolone/ACTH

2) Vigabatrin

27
Q

What is Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

Features?

EEG finding?

A

Multiple seizure types.

Features:
- atypical absences, falls, jerks
- 90% moderate-severe mental handicap

EEG –> slow spike

28
Q

Which epilepsy syndrome may a keto diet be beneficial in?

A

Lennox-Gastaut

29
Q

What is benign rolandic epilepsy?

Features?

A

Most common in childhood, more common in males.

Features: paraesthesia (e.g. unilateral face), usually on waking up.

30
Q

What epileptic syndrome may atonic seizures be indicative of?

A

Lennox Gastaut

31
Q

When should an EEG be performed?

A

Perform an EEG after the second simple tonic-clonic seizure.

Children are allowed one simple seizure before being investigated for epilepsy.

32
Q

Notable side effects of carbamazepine?

A

1) agranulocytosis

2) aplastic anaemia

3) P450 inducer

33
Q

What is agranulocytosis?

A

Severe form of neutropenia

34
Q

What is aplastic anaemia?

A

Pancytopenia of the peripheral blood (i.e., significant decreases in the numbers of RBCs, WBCs and platelets)

35
Q

Notable side effects of phenytoin?

A

1) folate & vitamin D deficiency

2) megaloblastic anaemia (folate def)

3) osteomalacia (vit D def)

36
Q

Notable side effects of lamotrigine?

A

1) SJS

2) Leukopenia

37
Q

Notable side effects of ethosuximide?

A

1) night terrors

2) rashes

38
Q

What are breath holding spells often divided into?

A

1) cyanotic breath holding spells

2) reflex anoxic seizures (i.e. pallid breath holding spells)

39
Q

When do reflex anoxic seizures occur?

A

When the child is startled (vagus nerve sends strong signals to heart that cause it to stop beating)

40
Q

When do cyanotic breath holding spells occur?

A

When the child is really upset, worked up and crying.

After letting out a long cry they stop breathing, become cyanotic and lose consciousness.

Within a minute they regain consciousness and start breathing.

41
Q

What condition have breath holding spells been linked with?

A

Iron deficiency anaemia

42
Q

What is the most common cause of 1ary headache in children?

A

Migraine without aura

43
Q

From what age can sumatriptan be used in the acute management of migraine?

A

≥12 y/o –> nasal spray

Note - ORAL triptans are not currently licensed in people < 18 years

44
Q

What are the 3 options for migraine prophylaxis in adukts?

A

1) propanolol

2) amitriptyline

3) topiramate

45
Q

Features of an abdominal migraine?

A

Central abdo pain >1 hour

46
Q
A