REVISION Flashcards

1
Q

What is a maturity model in Operational Risk Management?

A

A tool used to assess the performance of risk management frameworks on a 4-5 point scale (e.g. “beginner” to “expert”)

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2
Q

What does ORM stand for?

A

Operational Risk Management

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3
Q

What is the main challenge faced by risk managers when implementing ORM?

A

Risk managers often struggle to prove the value of their work and gain acceptance within the business

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4
Q

What is the recommended approach for firms new to non-financial risk management?

A

Focus on top risks first before deploying an ORM framework across all departments

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5
Q

What are the three key business benefits of effective Operational Risk Management?

A

Improved business stability, improved profitability, and increased productivity

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6
Q

What metric can measure business stability in Operational Risk Management?

A

Peer comparisons of tail risk losses, count of large incidents, P&L volatility, or share price volatility

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7
Q

What is more effective than regulatory compliance in motivating businesses to adopt risk management?

A

Demonstrating the tangible value of risk management through business benefits

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8
Q

How long does it typically take for a firm to reach an operational risk steady state?

A

Several years, as it’s a long-term process

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9
Q

What is one of the “golden rules” for risk managers to be effective?

A

Being accepted by the business to gain access to information, risks and incidents

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10
Q

What types of areas should be prioritized when identifying high-risk areas in a firm?

A

Areas with high money flows and transaction volumes, such as back-office operations, IT, and finance functions

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11
Q

When should a firm implement IT ORM solutions?

A

Only after reaching ORM maturity and ensuring it integrates with existing systems

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12
Q

What is Project Risk Management?

A

The process of identifying

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13
Q

What is a common cause of project failures?

A

Invalid business case, insufficient quality attention, undefined outcomes, or lack of stakeholder communication

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14
Q

At what stage should the risk function become involved in project management?

A

Initial stage before project kick-off to act as a gatekeeper

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15
Q

What are path dependencies in project management?

A

Dependencies where a project relies on deliverables from another project which can compound delays if the deliverables are late

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16
Q

What is a key distinguishing feature of mature organizations regarding project completion?

A

Systematic debriefing and maintaining a database of lessons learned from project evaluations

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17
Q

What are the three main categories of information that project reporting focuses on?

A

Time, budget, and quality of deliverables

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18
Q

What is a key risk indicator (KRI) for IT projects that serves as a crucial control?

A

Reduced time or resources for testing

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19
Q

What are the three aspects of information security that risks can threaten?

A

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data

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20
Q

What percentage of data leaks are insider-related according to the McAfee 2017 study?

A

43% of data leaks are insider-related with half being unintentional

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21
Q

What are the four quadrants of the risk taxonomy for information security?

A

Internal data theft, external data theft, internal data loss, external data loss

22
Q

How are information assets typically categorized in an information security context?

A

Highly confidential, confidential, internal, or public

23
Q

What technique is used to model rare events like data breaches?

A

Fault trees or Bayesian networks through scenario analysis

24
Q

What type of simulation is used to estimate loss distributions in cyber scenarios?

A

Monte Carlo simulations

25
What factors are considered when calculating the impact of a data breach?
Time to detection, data volume affected, data value, and post-event mitigation
26
What are behavioral controls in information security?
Controls that address human behaviors when handling information, such as awareness campaigns and rules of conduct
27
What are technical controls in information security?
Controls related to technical aspects of systems for prevention or detection, such as firewalls, encryption, and passwords
28
What standard is widely recognized for information security management?
ISO/IEC 27001:2013
29
What tool is recommended for evaluating information security risks based on questionnaire results?
Risk and Control Self-Assessments (RCSA)
30
Why is a risk-based approach to protection recommended in information security?
Because protecting all information fully is too costly; firms should prioritize based on asset value
31
What is the purpose of a risk management framework in ORM?
To systematically identify
32
What is the relationship between ORM and business strategy?
ORM should align with and support business objectives while protecting the organization from unacceptable risks
33
How do key risk indicators (KRIs) differ from key performance indicators (KPIs)?
KRIs are forward-looking measures that indicate potential risk exposure while KPIs measure past performance
34
What is risk appetite in the context of ORM?
The level of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives
35
What is the role of scenario analysis in ORM?
To identify potential risk events and assess their impact and likelihood through structured analysis
36
What is the purpose of risk and control self-assessment (RCSA)?
To enable business units to identify and assess their own risks and control effectiveness
37
What is operational resilience?
The ability of an organization to adapt to disruptions while maintaining business operations and safeguarding people and assets
38
What is the difference between inherent risk and residual risk?
Inherent risk is the level of risk before controls are applied; residual risk is what remains after controls
39
What is the three lines of defense model in risk management?
First line: business units; Second line: risk management function; Third line: internal audit
40
How does enterprise risk management (ERM) relate to ORM?
ORM is a component of ERM that specifically focuses on operational risks rather than all organizational risks
41
What is a risk register in ORM?
A documented inventory of identified risks including their assessment and treatment plans
42
What is the purpose of heat maps in risk assessment?
To visually represent risks based on their likelihood and impact for easier prioritization
43
What is the difference between qualitative and quantitative risk assessment?
Qualitative uses subjective ratings while quantitative uses numerical values and statistical methods
44
What is the role of key control indicators (KCIs) in ORM?
To measure the performance and effectiveness of risk controls
45
What is business impact analysis (BIA) in the context of ORM?
A process to determine the potential effects of disruption to critical business functions
46
What is risk transfer as a risk treatment strategy?
Moving the impact of a risk to another party through insurance
47
What role does corporate governance play in ORM?
It provides oversight and accountability for the ORM framework and ensures alignment with organizational objectives
48
What is the relationship between incident management and ORM?
Incident management is a key component of ORM that deals with responding to and learning from risk events
49
What is meant by risk culture in an organization?
The shared values
50
What is the value of conducting post-incident reviews in ORM?
To identify root causes