Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Finals > Revision > Flashcards

Revision Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three parts of a health economic evaluation

A

Structure process outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Health needs assessment

A

epidemiological, comparative corporate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

healthcare economic efficacy

A

cost per natural unit gained

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

maxwell’s dimensions of quality

A

effectiveness, acceptability, efficiency, access, equity and relevance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

remission in crohns

A

Azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Post viral gastro-enteritis complication

A

lactose intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cushing’s test

A

overnight low dose dexamethasone test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

toddler, undigested food, normal centiles

A

Toddler’s diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rapid sequence induction muscle relaxant

A

Suxamethonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

primary post-partum haemorrhage most likely cause

A

atonic uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

atonic uterus tx

A

syntometrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Newborn hearing screening

A

otoacoustic emission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Skin cancer in immunosuppressed

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

known or suspected lung cancer next inv

A

contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest, liver and adrenals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Prophylaxis with abx for bites

A

A human bite that has drawn blood or broken the skin in a high-risk individual

A cat bite that has drawn blood or appears to be deep

A dog bite that has caused considerable tissue damage or is contaminated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pulsus parodoxus sign of?

A

cardiac tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drug before beta blocker in pheochromocytoma

A

Phenoxybenzamine or other non-selective alpha blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering skin disorder associated with coeliac disease. It is caused by deposition of IgA in the dermis.

Features
itchy, vesicular skin lesions on the extensor surfaces (e.g. elbows, knees, buttocks)

Diagnosis
skin biopsy: direct immunofluorescence shows deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis

Management
gluten-free diet
dapsone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Length of VTE prophylaxis following VT

A

provoked (e.g. recent surgery): 3 months

unprovoked: 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy diagnosis

A

Was muscle biopsy, now genetic testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

acute haemolytic reaction

A

fever, abdominal pain, tachycardia, tachypnoea and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Incontinence management

A

urge incontinence: bladder retraining

stress incontinence: pelvic floor muscle training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

urge incontinence management

A

Bladder retraining
Antimuscarinics such as oxybutynin
Mirabegron - beta 3 agonist if concerned about anticholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

stress incontinence

A

Pelvic floor muscle training
Surgery
Duloxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

nipple candidiasis

A

miconazole cream for the mother and nystatin suspension for the baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Statin monitoring

A

LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pityriasis versicolor

A

superficial cutaneous fungal infection
patches may be hypopigmented, pink or brown (hence versicolor)
ketoconazole shampoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

leptospirosis

A

rat urine. renal failure.

lower back pain, fever, myalgia, fatigue, jaundice and a subconjunctival haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

flushing (often earliest symptom)
diarrhoea
bronchospasm
hypotension
right heart valvular stenosis (left heart can be affected in bronchial carcinoid)
other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may also be secreted resulting in, for example, Cushing’s syndrome
pellagra can rarely develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour

30
Q

Carcinoid syndrome management

A

urinary 5-HIAA
plasma chromogranin A y

somatostatin analogues e.g. octreotide
diarrhoea: cyproheptadine may help

31
Q

Wilson’s disease test

A

Ceruloplasmin

32
Q

Leriche syndrome

A
  1. Claudication of the buttocks and thighs
  2. Atrophy of the musculature of the legs
  3. Impotence (due to paralysis of the L1 nerve)
33
Q

Beck’s triad

A

Pericarditis - hypotension, raised JVP, muffled ehart sounds

34
Q

Dressler’s syndrome

A

Post MI pericarditis

35
Q

Most common pericarditis

A

Coxsackievirus B

36
Q

Peripheral Arterial Disease features

A 
Pain
Pallor
Pulseless
Paralysis
Paraesthesia (abnormal sensation or “pins and needles”)
Perishing cold
37
Q

Compartment syndrome features

A

P – Pain “disproportionate” to the underlying injury, worsened by passive stretching of the muscles
P – Paresthesia
P – Pale
P – Pressure (high)
P – Paralysis (a late and worrying feature)

38
Q

Compartment syndrome test

A

Needle manometry

39
Q

Drug to avoid with lithium

A

NSAIDS

Diuretics

40
Q

Define status epilepticus

A

A seizure lasting 30 mins or more (although treat as status even if over 5 mins)

41
Q

Immediate bedside test for status epilepticus

A

BM

42
Q

A and E management of status epilepticus

A

Lorazepam IV

43
Q

Other anti-epileptics in status epilepticus

A

Phenytoin, Phenobarbitol or diazepam

44
Q

Seizure in alcoholic what treatment to give

A

Thiamine, and glucose if you can

45
Q

Causes of seizure

A 
Alcoholic withdrawal
Infection
Cancer
Brain haemorrhage
Febrile convulsions
Hyponatraemia
Epilepsy
46
Q

Addison’s treatment

A

Hydrocortisone, Glucose, Fluids - may need hyperkalaemia

47
Q

CAP with erythema multiforme organism

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

48
Q

Status epilepticus management in the community

A

Status Epilepticus Management:

Oh My Lord Phone the Anaesthetist
O - O2
M - Buccal Midazolam or Rectal Diazepam
L - IV Lorazepam
P - IV Phenytoin
A - Rapid induction of Anaesthesia
49
Q

double duct sign indicates?

A

Pancreatic cancer

50
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

Confusion, ataxia, nystagmus + ophthalmoplegia

51
Q

toxic multinodular goitre nuclear scintigraphy

A

patchy uptake

52
Q

Graves disease scintigraphy

A

diffuse enlargement of both thyroid lobes, with uniform uptake throughout

53
Q

most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

A

Graves disease

54
Q

psoas sign

A

positive in appendicitis

55
Q

Hyperacute transplant rejection mechanism

A

Hyperacute transplant rejection is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens

56
Q

life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection treatment

A

ORAL vancomycin and IV metronidazole

57
Q

Polycythaemia blood sign

A

isolated rise in haemoglobin

58
Q

Autonomic dysreflexia spinal cord level

A

T6 level and above

59
Q

C. difficile treatment if not responsive to vanc

A

oral fidaxomicin

60
Q

acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hour mx

A

thrombolysis AND thrombectomy

61
Q

Malignant hyperthermia treatment

A

IV dantrolene therapy

62
Q

Cause of pneumaturia

A

enterovesical fistula

63
Q

AAA surgical intervention criteria

A

Surgery is only indicated in those who are symptomatic, or asymptomatic with an AAA larger than 4cm which has grown by more than 1 cm in 1 year, or asymptomatic and 5.5 cm or larger. Surgery is also indicated for a ruptured AAA. He does not meet any of these criteria.

64
Q

Parsonage - Turner syndrome description

A

This is a peripheral neuropathy that may complicate viral illnesses and usually resolves spontaneously.

65
Q

Migraine tx

A

acute: triptan + NSAID or triptan + paracetamol
prophylaxis: topiramate or propranolol

66
Q

EGFR change referral guidelines

A

NICE guidelines suggest referring to a nephrologist from primary care if eGFR falls below 30 or progressively by > 15 in a year

67
Q

Essential tremor features

A

postural tremor: worse if arms outstretched

improved by alcohol and rest

most common cause of titubation (head tremor)

68
Q

Essential tremor tx

A

propranolol is first-line

primidone is sometimes used

69
Q

Bile-acid malabsorption tx

A

cholestyramine

70
Q

iliopsoas abscess presentation

A

Back pain, loin radiation, fevers

71
Q

Polymyositis common presentation

A

Raised CKs and malignancy

Finals (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions