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KINE 3200 > Revised KINE 3200 Final Set > Flashcards

Revised KINE 3200 Final Set Flashcards

1
Q

The _______ is moveable and immovable.

A

Vertebral column

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2
Q

There are ______ pairs of spinal nerves.

A

31

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3
Q

The ________ is the most complex part of the body other than CNS

A

Vertebral column

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4
Q

_______ are the anterior portion of the trunk.

A

Abdominal muscles

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5
Q

Many small intrinsic muscles act on ______, ______, & ______.

A

Body ; head; thorax

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6
Q

T/F: Many small intrinsic muscles are too deep to palpate.

A

True

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7
Q

How many articulating vertebrae are there?

A

24

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8
Q

Which vertebrae is moveable?

A

Articulating

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9
Q

Which vertebrae is immovable?

A

Fused

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10
Q

There are ________ articulating vertebrae.

A

24

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11
Q

There are ______ fused vertebrae.

A

9

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12
Q

How many cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

Cervical: 7
Thoracic: 12
Lumbar: 5

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13
Q

How many sacrum & coccyx vertebrae are there?

A

Sacrum: 5
Coccyx: 4

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14
Q

What are the first two vertebrae in the cervical region?

A

Atlas & axis

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15
Q

T/F: Shapes allow for extensive rotary movements of head to side, as well as forward & backward movement.

A

True

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16
Q

What is the anterior bony block in the vertebrae?

A

Body

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17
Q

The _____ process projects out laterally

A

Transverse

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18
Q

The ______ process projects posteriorly.

A

Spinous

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19
Q

What enables the vertebral column to absorb blows and shocks

A

Spinal curve

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20
Q

What are the 3 normal curves within the moveable spine and which way do they curve?

A

Cervical: posteriorly
Thoracic: anteriorly
Lumbar: posteriorly

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21
Q

What is the increased curving of thoracic spine outward in the sagittal plane.?

A

Kyphosis

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22
Q

What is the increased curving of the spine inward or forward in the sagittal plane?

A

Lordosis

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23
Q

What is the lateral curving of the spine?

A

Scoliosis

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24
Q

All ribs attach posteriorly to which vertebrae?

A. Cervical
B. Thoracic
C. Lumbar
D. All of the above

A

B.

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25
Q

How many pairs of ribs are there?

A

12

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26
Q

How many true ribs are there?

A

7

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27
Q

How many false ribs?

A

5

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28
Q

How many pairs of false attach indirectly to the sternum?

A

3

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29
Q

How many pairs of false ribs are floating ribs?

A

2

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30
Q

What 3 things compose the sternum?

A

Body
Xiphoid process
Manubrium

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31
Q

What are the 7 muscle attachments? (Mp, Tpos, Spos, S, C, Ic, Pc)

A
  • Mastoid Process
  • Transverse process of spine
  • Spinous process of spine
  • Sternum
  • Clavicle
  • Iliac crest
  • Pubic crest
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32
Q

What is the first joint? (Aj)

A

Atlantooccipital joint

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33
Q

The Atlantooccipital joint is formed by ________ of skill sitting on articular fossa of the _____ vertebra.

A

Occipital condyles ; 1st

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34
Q

T/F: Bony configuration allows flexion, extension, slight lateral flexion.

A

True

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35
Q

_______ vertebra sits on _______ vertebra.

A

Atlas ; axis

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36
Q

Most cervical rotation occurs where?

A

Atlantoaxial joint

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37
Q

T/F: Atlantooccipital is the most mobile joint of any two vertebrae.

A

False

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38
Q

Joints C2 to S1 are considered _______ symphysis joints. (Aa)

A

Amphiarthrodial

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39
Q

What are the two types of intervertebral disks?

A

Annulus fibrosus
Nucleus pulposus

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40
Q

Compressed elastic material allows ______ & ______. (C ; T)

A

Compression ; Torsion

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41
Q

T/F: Compressed elastic material becomes less resilient with age, injury or improper use of spine.

A

True

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42
Q

What is the condition where the nucleus protrudes through the annulus from substantial weakening + compression. (Hnp)

A

Herniated nucleus pulposus (slipped disk)

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43
Q

________ puts pressure on spinal nerve root, causing pain, tingling, numbness and/or weakness in lower extremity. (P)

A

Protrusion

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44
Q

Most movement occurs in which two regions?

A

Cervical
Lumbar

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45
Q

Flexion of trunk =

A

Lumbar flexion

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46
Q

Flexion of head =

A

Cervical flexion

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47
Q

_________ rotates as a unit due to movement occurring in hip & lumbar spine

A

Pelvic girdle

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48
Q

Reduction is what?

A

Return to neutral

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49
Q

Cranial and cervical nerves innervate which muscles?

A

SCM & Splenius

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50
Q

What are the posterior spinal nerves?

A

Erector spinae group

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51
Q

Thoracic & lumbar nerves (RaTaOQl)

A

Rectus abominis
Transverse abdominis
Obliques
Quadratus lumborum

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52
Q

Origin and insertion of SCM (S,C, M)

A

O: sternum ; clavicle
I: mastoid

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53
Q

Origin and insertion of Splenius

A

O: cervical & thoracic vertebrae
I: Cervical vertebrae, mastoid process, occipital bone

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54
Q

What are the large & powerful muscles of the vertebral column?

A

Erector Spinae group

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55
Q

Origin and insertion Erector Spinae Group (R,Ic,Sp)

A

O: ribs, iliac crest, spinous process
I: ribs, spinous processes

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56
Q

What muscle is responsible for breathing during quiet rest?

A

Diaphragm

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57
Q

T/F: Abdominal wall muscles do not go from bone to bone.

A

true

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58
Q

Origin and insertion of Quadratus Lumborum muscle?

A

O: iliac crest
I: ribs and vertebrae

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59
Q

Origin and insertion Rectus abdominis

A

O: pubis
I: ribs and Xiphoid process

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60
Q

origin and insertion of external oblique abdominal muscle (r, i, p, ra)

A

O: ribs
I: ilium, pubis Rectus abdominis

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61
Q

Origin and insertion of Internal Oblique Abdominal muscles (il, i, r, la)

A

O: inguinal ligament, ilium
I: ribs, linea alba

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62
Q

Origin and insertion of TRANSVERSUS Abdominis muscle?

A

O: inguinal ligament, iliac crest, ribs
I: pubis, linea alba

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63
Q

Cervical flexion agonists

A

SCM

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64
Q

Cervical Extension Agonist

A

Erector Spinae
Splenius muscles

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65
Q

Cervical Lateral Flexion Agonists (SCM, Es, S)

A

SCM
Erector Spinae
Splenius

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66
Q

Cervical Rotation Agonists (SCM,Es,S)

A

SCM
Erector Spinae
Splenius

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67
Q

Lumbar Flexion Agonists (RaEoIo)

A

Rectus abdominis
External obliques
Internal obliques

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68
Q

Lumbar Extension Agonists (QlEs)

A

Quadratus lumborum
Erector Spinae

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69
Q

Lumbar Lateral Flexion Agonists (EsRaEoIoQl)

A

Erector Spinae
Rectus abdominis
External oblique
Internal obliques
Quadratus lumborum

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70
Q

Lumbar Rotation Agonists (EsEoIoQl)

A

Erector Spinae
External obliques
Internal obliques
Quadratus lumborum

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71
Q

The hip joint is reffered to as a ___________ joint.

A

Ball-and-socket

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72
Q

Head of _____ connects with _____ of pelvic girdle.

A

Gemur ; acetabulum

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73
Q

What is the longest bone in the body?

A

Femur

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74
Q

How is the pelvic girdle composed?

A

R & L pelvic bone join posteriorly by sacrum

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75
Q

What is the extension of the spinal column?

A

Sacrum

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76
Q

What 3 things is the pelvic bone composed of?

A

Ilium: 2/5
Ischium: 2/5
Pubis: 1/5

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77
Q

What seven bony landmarks makeup the pelvic girdle?

A

ASIS
AIIS
Iliac crest
Pubis
Sacrum
Coccyx
Ischium tuberosity

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78
Q

What are the 4 bony landmarks of the femur?

A

Head
Greater trochanter
Lesser trochanter
Linea aspera

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79
Q

Body movements typically involve ______ and _______.

A

Hip joint ; pelvic girdle

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80
Q

What joint is found anteriorly of the pelvic girdle?

A

Pubis symphysis

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81
Q

What joint(s) is found posteriorly of the pelvic girdle?

A

Sacroiliac joints

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82
Q

What is the 2nd most mobile joint?

A

Acetabulofemoral

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83
Q

Femoral head inserts into ________.

A

Acetabulum

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84
Q

Iliofemoral (Y) ligament does what? (Ph)

A

Prevents hyperextension

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85
Q

Pubofemoral ligament does what? (Lea)

A

Limits extension & abduction

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86
Q

Ischiofemoral ligament does what? (Lir)

A

Limits internal rotation

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87
Q

Abnormal or excessive forward rotation of a structure.

A

Anteversion

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88
Q

Abnormal or excessive backward rotation of a structure

A

Retroversion

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89
Q

The pelvic girlde moves within ______ planes for a total of ______ movements

A

3 ; 6

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90
Q

Anterior pelvic rotation =

A

Clockwise movement of pelvis

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91
Q

Posterior pelvic rotation

A

Left pelvis moves inferiorly

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92
Q

Left lateral pelvic rotation =

A

Iliac crest tilts forward

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93
Q

Right lateral pelvic rotation =

A

Right pelvis moves inferiorly

94
Q

Left transverse pelvic rotation =

A

Counterclockwise movement of pelvis

95
Q

Right transverse pelvic rotation =

A

Iliac crest tilts backward

96
Q

Movement of femur straight anteriorly toward pelvis

A

Hip flexion

97
Q

Movement of the femur straight posteriorly away from pelvis

A

Hip extension

98
Q

Movement of femur laterally to side away from midline

A

Hip abduction

99
Q

Movement of femur medially toward midline

A

HIp adduction

100
Q

Rotary movement of femur laterally around longitudinal axis away from midline

A

Hip external rotation

101
Q

Rotary movement of femur medially around longitudinal axis toward midline

A

HIp internal rotation

102
Q

Movement in femur in a diagonal plane way from midline of body

A

Hip diagonal abduction

103
Q

Movement of femur in a diagonal plane toward midline of body

A

Hip diagonal adduction

104
Q

Movement of femur in a horizontal or transverse plane away from pelvis

A

Hip horizontal abduction

105
Q

Movement of femur in a horizontal or transverse plane toward pelviis

A

Hip horizontal adduction

106
Q

Hip and pelvic girdle muscles are innervated from ________ and _______ plexi

A

Lumbar ; sacral

107
Q

T/F: At the hips, there are 7 two-joint muscles that have one action at hip and another at knee

A

True

108
Q

Muscle motions depend on what 2 things?

A

Direction of movement
Position of body

109
Q

What divides the thigh into 3 compartments?

A

intermuscular septa

110
Q

Origin & insertion of the iliopsoas muscle

A

O: ilium, vertebrae
I: femur

111
Q

Origin and insertion of Rectus femoris

A

O: ilium
I: patella

112
Q

Origin & insertion of Sartorius muscle

A

O: ilium
I: tibia

113
Q

What is the longest muscle in the body?

A

Sartorius

114
Q

Origin & insertion of the pectineus muscle

A

O: pubis
I: femur

115
Q

Origin & insertion of the adductor muscles

A

O: pubis
I: femur

116
Q

Origin and insertion of Gracilis muscle

A

O: pubis
I: tibia

117
Q

Origin and insertion of Semitendinosus muscle

A

O: ischium
I: tibia

118
Q

Origin and insertion of Semimembranosus muscle.

A

O: ischium
I: tibia

119
Q

Origin and insertion of Biceps femoris muscle

A

O: ischium, femur
I: tibia, fibula

120
Q

Origin and insertion Gluteus Maximus muscle

A

O: ilium, sacrum, coccyx
I: femur

121
Q

Origin and insertion of Gluteus medius muscle

A

O: ilium
I: femur

122
Q

Origin and insertion of gluteus minimus muscle

A

O: ilium
I: femur

123
Q

Origin and insertion of Tensor Fasciae latae muscle

A

O: ilium
I: tibia

124
Q

Hip Flexion Agonists (IRfPSTfl)

A
  • Iliopsoas
  • Rectus femoris
  • Pectineus
  • Sartorius
  • Tensor fasciae latae
125
Q

Hip Extension Agonists (GmBfSS)

A
  • Gluteus Maximus
  • Biceps femoris
  • Semitendinosus
  • Semimembranosus
126
Q

Hip Abduction Agonissts (GmGmGmTfl)

A
  • Gluteus Maximus
  • Gluteus Medius
  • Gluteus Minimus
  • Tensor fasciae latae
127
Q

Hip Adduction Agonists (AbAlAmG)

A
  • Adductor brevis
  • Adductor longus
  • Adductor magnus
  • Tensor fasciae latae
128
Q

Hip Internal Rotation (GmGmTfl)

A
  • Gluteus minimus
  • Gluteus medius
  • Tensor fasciae latae
129
Q

Hip External Rotation (GmSder)

A
  • Gluteus Maximus
  • Six deep external rotators
130
Q

What is the largest diarthrodial joint in the body?

A

Knee joint

131
Q

Which bone bears most of the body weight?

A

Tibia

132
Q

T/F: The fibula has articulation with femur and patella

A

False

133
Q

What are the 3 bones of the knee joint?

A

Patella
Femur
Tibia

134
Q

The patella improves angle of pull, resulting in greater ______

A

MA (mechanical advantage

135
Q

What are the key bony landmarks of the knee joint? (TtMfcLfc)

A

Tibial tuberosity
Medial & lateral femoral condyles

136
Q

The tibiofemoral joint is also known as the _______. (Kjp)

A

Knee joint proper

137
Q

Femoral condyles articulate on _______

A

Tibial condyles

138
Q

The patella and femur articulate to form the ________.

A

Patellofemoral joint

139
Q

Menisci form what between bones?

A

Cushion

140
Q

Which bone are the menisci attached to?

A

Tibia

141
Q

T/F: Menisci enhance stability and have a thick outside border that tears down to thin inside border

A

True

142
Q

Which menisci is the largest?

A

Medial

143
Q

Which menisci receives lateral femoral condyle?

A

Lateral

144
Q

What supplies the knee joint with synovial fluid and is referred to as the “capsule of the knee”?

A

Synovial cavity

145
Q

What is the posterior to patellar tendon?

A

Infrapatellar fat pad

146
Q

How many bursae are there in and around the knee?

A

Greater than 10

147
Q

What absorbs shock or reduces friction?

A

Bursae

148
Q

What ligaments cross within knee between tibia and femur?

A

ACL & PCL

149
Q

Which ligament stabilizes femur?

A

ACL

150
Q

Which ligament stabilizes the tibia?

A

PCL

151
Q

What is one of the most common serious injuries to knee and most common in females?

A

ACL Injuries

152
Q

What ligament in the knee joint is commonly injured in contact sports?

A

MCL

153
Q

Which ligament provides medial stability by preventing knee from being abducted

A

MCL

154
Q

Bending backward, as in knee hyperextension

A

Recurvatum

155
Q

Outward angulation of the distal segment of a bone or joint, as in knock-knees

A

Valgus

156
Q

Inward angulation of the distal segment of a bone or joint, as in bowlegs

A

Varus

157
Q

Knee extension in anatomical position is at what degrees?

A

0*

158
Q

Bending or decreasing angle between femur & leg, characterized by heel moving heel moving toward buttocks

A

Flexion

159
Q

Straightening or increasing angle between femur & leg

A

Extension

160
Q

Rotary movement of leg laterally away from midline

A

External rotation

161
Q

Rotary movement of leg medially toward midline

A

Internal rotation

162
Q

Where does the central line of pull occur?

A

ASIS to patella

163
Q

Line of pull of patella occurs where?

A

Patella to tibial tuberosity

164
Q

Which gender typically have greater Q angles due to wider pelvis

A

Females

165
Q

Origin and insertion of Rectus Femoris Muscle

A

O: ilium
I: patella

166
Q

Origin and insertion of Vastus Lateralis Muscle

A

O: femur
I: patella

167
Q

Origin and insertion of Vastus Intermedius Muscle

A

O: femur
I: patella

168
Q

Origin and insertion of Vastus Medialis Muscle?

A

O: femur
I: patella

169
Q

Origin and insertion of Semimembranosus Muscle

A

O: ischium
I: tibia

170
Q

Origin and insertion of Semitendinosus Muscle

A

O: ischium
I: tibia

171
Q

Origin and insertion of Biceps Femoris Muscle

A

O: ischium, femur
I: tibia, fibula

172
Q

Origin and insertion of Popliteus Muscle

A

O: femur
I: tibia

173
Q

Knee Extension Agonists (RfVlViVm)

A
  • Rectus femoris
  • Vastus lateralis
  • Vastus intermedius
  • Vastus medialis
174
Q

Knee Flexion Agonists (BfSS)

A
  • Biceps femoris
  • Semitendinosus
  • Semimembranosus
175
Q

Knee Internal Rotation Agonists (SSP)

A
  • Semitendinosus
  • Semimembranosus
  • Popliteus
176
Q

Knee External Rotation Agonists (Bf)

A

Biceps Femoris

177
Q

How many bones are in the ankle and foot joint?

A

26

178
Q

How many large muscles are in the ankle and foot joint?

A

19

179
Q

There are more than _____ ligaments in the ankle and foot joint.

A

100

180
Q

What are the two main functions of the ankle and foot joint? (SP)

A
  • Support
  • Propulsion
181
Q

The swing phase consist of ____% of walking & _____% of Running.

A

40 ; 60

182
Q

T/F: The tibia and fibula are apart of the ankle and foot joint.

A

True

183
Q

How many tarsal, metatarsals, and phalanges are there?

A

Tarsal: 7
Metatarsals: 5
Phalanges: 5

184
Q

What are the tarsal bones? (CTNCMcIcLc)

A
  • Calcaneus
  • Talus
  • Navicular
  • Cuboid
  • Medial cuneiform
  • Intermediate cuneiform
  • Lateral cuneiform
185
Q

Each toe has 3 phalanxes except for which toe?

A

1st

186
Q

What are the 7 bony landmarks of the ankle and foot joint? (Dmt,Dmf,Tp,Fdl,Fhl,T,Bom)

A
  • Distal malleoli tibia
  • Distal malleoli fibula
  • Tibialis posterior
  • Flexor digitorum
  • Flexor hallucis longus
  • Tarsals
  • Base of metatarsals
187
Q

What joint is joined at both proximal and distal joints

A

Tibiofibular joints

188
Q

What is the anatomical name of the ankle joint?

A

Talocrural joint

189
Q

What joints are classified as gliding or Arthrodial and have a combined movement of 20-30 of inversion and 5-15 of eversion? (ST)

A

Subtalar & Transverse

190
Q

What are the joints between the 7 bones of the foot?

A

Intertarsal joints

191
Q

What is maintained by ligaments in the foot and ankle?

A

Foot arches

192
Q

What arch helps with shock absorption?

A

Medial longitudinal arch

193
Q

Which arch aids in balance?

A

Lateral longitudinal arch

194
Q

What arch adapts foot to the ground?

A

Transverse arch

195
Q

What injury of the ankle and foot joint is the most common?

A

Ankle sprain

196
Q

What is injury is a common painful condition involving inflammation of plantar fascia?

A

Plantar fasciitis

197
Q

Movement of top of ankle & foot toward anterior tibia

A

Dorsiflexion

198
Q

Movement of ankle & foot away from anterior tibia

A

Plantar flexion

199
Q

Turning ankle and foot outward

A

Eversion

200
Q

Turning ankle & foot inward

A

Inversion

201
Q

Movement of toes toward plantar surface of foot

A

Toe flexion

202
Q

Movement of toes away from plantar surface of foot

A

Toe extension

203
Q

Combination of ankle & Dorsiflexion, Subtalar eversion & forefoot abduction

A

Pronation

204
Q

Combination of ankle plantar flexion, Subtalar inversion & forefoot adduction

A

Supination

205
Q

The ankle and foot joints are innervated by the ______ nerve.

A

Sciatic

206
Q

The lower leg has how many compartments?

A

4

207
Q

What muscle(s) is/are located in the Anterior compartment?

A

Dorsiflexors

208
Q

What muscle(s) is/are located in the Lateral compartment?

A

Evertors

209
Q

What muscle(s) is/are located in the Superficial posterior compartment?

A

Plantar flexors

210
Q

What muscle(s) is/are located in the Deep posterior compartment?

A

Plantar flexor & invertors

211
Q

What is the common term describing painful leg condition often associated with running activities?

A

Shin splints

212
Q

Origin and insertion of Gastrocnemius muscle (F;C)

A

O: femur
I: calcaneus

213
Q

Origin and insertion of Plantaris muscle (F;C)

A

O: femur
I: calcaneus

214
Q

Origin and insertion of Soleus muscle (Ft;A)

A

O: fibula and tibia
I: Achilles’ tendon

215
Q

Origin and insertion of Fibularis Longus Muscle (F;Uof)

A

O: fibula
I: undersurface of foot

216
Q

Origin and insertion of Fibularis Brevis Muscle (F;5m)

A

O: fibula
I: 5th metatarsal

217
Q

Origin and insertion of Fibularis Tertius Muscle

A

O: fibula
I: 5th metatarsal

218
Q

Origin and insertion of Extensor Digitorum Longus

A

O: tibia and fibula
I: 4 lesser toes

219
Q

Origin and insertion of Extensor Hallucis longus muscle

A

O: fibula
I: great toe

220
Q

Origin and insertion of Tibialis Anterior Muscle

A

O: tibia
I: 1st metatarsal

221
Q

Origin and insertion of Tibialis Posterior

A

O: interosseus membrane of tibia and fibula
I: inferior surface of mid-foot

222
Q

Origin and insertion of Flexor Digitorum Longus

A

O: tibia
I: 4 lesser toes

223
Q

Origin and insertion of Flexor Hallucis Longus

A

O: fibula
I: great toe

224
Q

Ankle Dorsiflexion Agonists (TaEdlFt)

A
  • Tibialis Anterior
  • Extensor digitorum
  • Fibularis tertius
225
Q

Ankle Plantar Flexion Agonists (GSP)

A
  • Gastrocnemius
  • Soleus
  • Plantaris
226
Q

Inversion Agonists (TaTp)

A

Tibialis anterior
Tibialis posterior

227
Q

Eversion Agonists (FlFbFtEdl)

A
  • Fibularis longus
  • Fibularis brevis
  • Fibularis tertius
  • Externsor digitorum longus
228
Q

Toe Flexion Agonists (FhlFdl)

A

Flexor hallucis longus
Flexor digitorum longus

229
Q

Toe Extension Agonists (EhlEdl)

A

Extensor hallucis longus
Extensor digitorum longus

230
Q
A

KINE 3200 (3 decks)

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