reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

Puberty: initiated when the hypothalamus releases __________

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone(GnRH)

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2
Q

The release of Gonadotropin-releasing hormone(GnRH) triggers anterior pituitary to release _____and ____ which initiate the production of androgen and estrogen

A

FSH

LH

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3
Q

Male around ______ & Female around ______

A

12-14yrs old

9-12 yrs old

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4
Q

Are a group of hormones that play a role in male traits and reproductive activity. Both present in male and female. It is responsible for muscular development, physical growth, and increase in sebaceous gland secretions

A

Androgens

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5
Q

Androgens are produced by the ______, and the _______

A

adrenal cortex

testes or ovaries

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6
Q

In male, specific function of androgen is further development of _____, _______ , ______, _____, and _______. Also for the appearance of _____, _____, and ______, _______ enlargement , maturation of ________, and closure of growth in ______

A
testes
scrotum
penis
prostate
seminal vesicles
pubic
axillary
facial hair
laryngeal enlargement
spermatozoa
long bones
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7
Q

In female, ________ influences enlargement of labia majora and clitoris, formation of axillary and pubic hair termed as _______

A

testosterone

adrenarche

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8
Q

Estrogen is triggered at puberty of ____

A

FSH

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9
Q

Estrogen contains 3 compounds _____,

A

(Estrone or E1, Estradiol or E2, Estriol or E3)

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10
Q

Influences development of uterus, fallopian tubes and vagina; female fat distribution, hair patterns, breast development, and closure of long bones

A

Estrogen

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11
Q

Beginning of breast development

A

Thelarche

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12
Q

First menstrual period

A

Menarche

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13
Q
Arrange the typical pubertal changes of female in order.
Onset of Menstruation 
Growth of pubic hair 
Growth of axillary hair
Vaginal Secretions
Growth of Spurt
Breast Development
Increase in the transverse diameter of the pelvis
A
5
4
6
7
1
3
2
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14
Q
Arrange the typical pubertal changes of male in order
Penile growth
Growth of face, axillary, and pubic hair
Voice changes
Increase in weight
Growth of testes
Spermatogenesis (production of sperm)
Increase in height
A
5
3
4
1
2
7
6
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15
Q

Study of female reproductive organs

A

Gynecology

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16
Q

Study of male reproductive organs

A

Andrology

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17
Q

Rugated, skin-covered, muscular pouch suspended from the perineum. Support the testes and to help regulate the temperature of sperm

A

Scrotum

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18
Q

Two ovoid glands, 2 to 3 cm wide, that lie in the scrotum

A

Testes

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19
Q

Each testis is encased by a protective white fibrous capsule and is composed of several lobules, with each lobule containing _________ and a ________

A
interstitial cells (Leydig’s cells) 
seminiferous tubule
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20
Q

Are responsible for production of testosterone

A

Leydig’s cells

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21
Q

Responsible for release of androgen-binding protein which promotes sperm formation

A

FSH

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22
Q

LH responsible for release of _________

A

testosterone

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23
Q

Usually, the ______ is slightly larger and suspended slightly lower than the other

A

left testis

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24
Q

Penis
-composed of three cylindrical masses of _________ in the penis shaft: two termed the ________ , and a third termed the _________

A

erectile tissue
corpus cavernosa
corpus spongiosum

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25
Q

Is released by endothelium during sexual excitement which results in dilation of blood vessels and increase blood flow.

A

Nitric Oxide

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26
Q

Outlet for both the urinary and the reproductive tract

A

Penis

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27
Q

When the Nitric oxide is released, the _________ at the base of the penis then contracts, trapping both venous and arterial blood

A

ischiocavernosus muscle

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28
Q

Penile erection is stimulated by __________

A

parasympathetic nerve innervations

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29
Q

Bulging,sensitive ridge of tissue at the distal end of penis which is protected by Prepuce(retractable casing of skin)

A

Glans

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30
Q

Tightly coiled tube. Responsible for conducting sperm from the tubule to the vas deferens

A

Epididymis

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31
Q

Epididymis is ___ long

A

-Over 20ft long

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32
Q

Some sperm are stored in the epididymis, and a portion of the______ that will surround sperm at maturity

A

alkaline fluid

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33
Q

Semen, or seminal fluid that contains a ______ and _____, a form of protein

A

basic sugar

mucin

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34
Q

Is produced by the cells lining the epididymis

A

Semen or seminal fluid

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35
Q

It takes at least ______for them to travel the length of the epididymis and a total of _____ for them to reach maturity

A

12 to 20 days

64 days

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36
Q

Absence of sperm

A

aspermia

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37
Q

<20 million sperm/mL

A

oligospermia

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38
Q

Hollow tube surrounded by arteries and veins and protected by a thick fibrous coating

A

Vas deferense (Ductus deferens)

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39
Q

Vas deferens carries sperm from the epididymis through the _______ into the abdominal cavity, where it ends at the seminal vesicles and the ejaculatory ducts

A

inguinal canal

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40
Q

Sperm mature as they pass through the _______

A

vas deferens

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41
Q

The blood vessels and vas deferens together are referred to as the __________

A

spermatic cord

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42
Q

Sperm are still not mobile at this point (as they pass through the vas deferens, however, probably because of the _____________ produced at this level

A

fairly acidic medium of the semen

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43
Q

Varicosity of the internal spermatic vein

A

varicocele

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44
Q

Severing of the vas deferens to prevent passage of sperm

A

Vasectomy

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45
Q

Two convoluted pouches that lie along the lower portion of the posterior surface of the bladder and empty into the urethra by way of the ejaculatory ducts

A

Seminal Vesicles

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46
Q

Seminal Vesicles secrete a viscous alkaline liquid that has a ______, _____, and _______

A

high sugar
protein
prostaglandin content

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47
Q

Sperm become increasingly motile with this added fluid, because it surrounds them with nutrients and a more favorable pH

A

Secreted viscous alkaline liquid of seminal vesicle

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48
Q

The two _______ pass through the prostate gland and join the seminal vesicles to the urethra

A

Ejaculatory ducts

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49
Q
  • chestnut-sized gland that lies just below the bladder
  • The urethra passes through the center of it, like the hole in a doughnut
  • secretes a thin, alkaline fluid
  • alkaline fluid further protects sperm from being immobilized by the naturally low pH level of the urethra
A

Prostate Gland

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50
Q
  • Cowper’s glands
  • lie beside the prostate gland and empty via short ducts into the urethra
  • secrete an alkaline fluid that helps counteract the acid secretion of the urethra and ensure the safe passage of spermatozoa
A

Bulbourethral glands

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51
Q

Semen, therefore, is derived from the ______ (60%), the ______ (30%), the ______ (5%), and the _______ (5%).

A

prostate gland
seminal vesicles
epididymis
bulbourethral glands

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52
Q

Hollow tube leading from the base of the bladder, which, after passing through the prostate gland, continues to the outside through the shaft and glans of the penis

A

Urethra

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53
Q

Urethra is approximately _______ long

A

8 in (18 to 20 cm)

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54
Q

Urethra is lined with ____________

A

mucous membrane

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55
Q

Female External Structures- Female external genitalia. _____ which means covering

A

Vulva

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56
Q
  • pad of adipose tissure over the symphysis pubis
  • covered by a triangle of coarse, curly hairs
  • protects the junction of pubic bone from trauma
A

Mons Veneris

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57
Q
  • posterior to the mons veneris
  • two hairless folds of connective tissue
  • firm and full in childbearing age and atrophies on menopause
  • normally pink in color
  • internal surface is covered with mucous membrane and the external surface with skin
  • abundant with sebaceous glands
A

Labia Minora

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58
Q
  • two folds of adipose tissue covered by loose connective tissue and epithelium
  • lateral to the labia minora
  • covered with pubic hair
  • serve as protection for the external genitalia and distal urethra and vagina
  • fused ______ but separated ______
A

Labia Majora
anteriorly
posteriorly

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59
Q
  • flattened, smooth surface inside the labia

- urethra and vagina both arises on this organ

A

Vestibule

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60
Q
  • small (approximately 1 to 2 cm), rounded organ of erectile tissue at the forward junction of the labia minora
  • covered by prepuce
  • sensitive to touch and temperature and is the center for sexual arousal and orgasm
  • rich in arterial blood supply
A

Clitoris

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61
Q
  • lateral to the urinary meatus, one on each side
  • their ducts open into the urethra
  • help to lubricate the external genitalia during coitus
  • the alkaline pH of their secretions helps to improve sperm survival in the vagina
A

Skene’s glands (paraurethral glands)

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62
Q
  • lateral to the vaginal opening on both sides
  • their ducts open into the distal vagina
  • help to lubricate the external genitalia during coitus
  • the alkaline pH of their secretions helps to improve sperm survival in the vagina
A

Bartholin’s glands (vulvovaginal glands)

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63
Q
  • ridge of tissue formed by the posterior joining of the two labia minora and the labia majora
  • sometimes cut (episiotomy) during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening
A

Fourchette

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64
Q
  • posterior to fourchette
  • easily stretched during childbirth to allow for enlargement of the vagina and passage of the fetal head
  • Kegel’s exercise makes this organ flexible
A

Perineal muscle or the Perineal body

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65
Q
  • tough but elastic semicircle of tissue that covers the opening to the vagina in childhood
  • often torn during the first time of sexual intercourse
A

Hymen

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66
Q

Complete hymen that does not allow for passage of menstrual blood from the vagina or for sexual relations until it is surgically incised

A

Imperforate hymen

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67
Q

The blood supply of the external genitalia is mainly from the pudendal artery and a portion of the inferior rectus artery.

A

Vulvar Blood Supply

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68
Q

Venous return is through the ___________

A

pudendal vein

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69
Q

The anterior portion of the vulva derives its nerve supply from the ______ and ________ The posterior portions of the vulva and vagina are supplied by the _________.

A
ilioinguinal
genitofemoral nerves (L1 level).
pudendal nerve (S3 level)
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70
Q
  • approximately 4 cm long by 2 cm in diameter and approximately 1.5 cm thick, or the size and shape of almond
  • grayish white and appear pitted, or with minute indentations on the surface
  • located close to and on both sides of the uterus in the lower abdomen
A

Ovaries

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71
Q

Ovaries produce, mature, and discharge _______

A

ova (the egg cells)

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72
Q
  • produce estrogen and progesterone and initiate and regulate menstrual cycles
  • necessary for maturation and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics in females
  • held suspended and in close contact with the ends of the fallopian tubes by three strong supporting ligaments attached to the uterus or the pelvic wall
  • not covered by the peritoneum
A

ovaries

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73
Q

Principal divisions of ovaries:

  1. Protective layer of surface _______
  2. _________ , where the immature (primordial) oocytes mature into ova and large amounts of estrogen and progesterone are produced
  3. _________, which contains the nerves, blood vessels, lymphatic tissue, and some smooth muscle tissue
A

epithelium
Cortex
Central medulla

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74
Q

Division of Gametes (Reproductive cells)

  • At birth, each ovary contains approximately _______________, which formed during 5 mos of intrauterine life
  • __________ differ in other body cells in the number of chromosomes which contains only half the usual number of chromosomes
  • oocytes divide in _________ by mitosis which halt until puberty when meiosis occurs
  • in male, meiosis(reduction division) occurs just before the ________, while in female, in occurs just _________
A
2 million immature ova
reproductive cells
intrauterine life 
spermatozoa mature
before ovulation
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75
Q

Maturation of Oocytes

  • Each oocyte lies in the ovary surrounded by a protective sac, or thin layer of cells, called a _________
  • 5 and 7 million ova form in ____. The majority never develop beyond the primitive state and actually atrophy, so that by birth only 2 million are present.
  • By age ____, only approximately 500,000 are present in each ovary
  • by ____, there are approximately 300,000; and
  • by ____, none are left (all have either matured or atrophied). “The point at which no functioning oocytes remain in the ovaries” is one definition of menopause
A
primordial follicle
 utero
7 years
22 years
menopause
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76
Q
  • arise from each upper corner of the uterine body and extend outward and backward until each opens at its distal end, next to an ovary
  • approximately 10 cm long in a mature woman
  • Their function is to convey the ovum from the ovaries to the uterus and to provide a place for fertilization of the ovum by sperm
  • smooth, hollow tunnel
  • composed of mucous membrane with cilia, connective tissue and muscular layer(circular)
A

Fallopian Tubes

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77
Q

The mucus in fallopian tube contains _____, ______, and _____ which help in nourishment of the ovum

A

water
protein
salt

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78
Q

Four parts of a fallopian tube:

proximal to uterine wall, 1 cm in length and its lumen is about 1mm in diameter

A

Interstitial portion

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79
Q

Four parts of a fallopian tube:

extremely narrow, 2 cm in length, cut or sealed in tubal ligation

A

Isthmus

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80
Q

Four parts of a fallopian tube:

longest portion approx 5cm and this is where fertilization occurs

A

Ampulla

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81
Q

Four parts of a fallopian tube:
most distal, approx 2cm and is funnel shaped, the rim is covered by fimbria(small hairs) which help to guide ovum to fallopian tube

A

Infundibular

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82
Q
  • hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ
  • located in the lower pelvis, posterios to the urinary bladder, and anterior to the rectum
  • size of an olive in childhood
  • receives ovum from the fallopian tube, and site of implantation and nourishment, protection, and maturity of a growing fetus, and expel it from the woman’s body
A

Uterus

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83
Q

Uterus begins to increase at ________ up to _______

A

8yrs of age

17 yrs of age

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84
Q

Uterus us approx ____ long, ____ wide in upper part and ____ deep. ___ in nonpregnant state

In a woman who has a borne child, it is approx ___ long, ____ wide, ____ thick, and ____ in weight

A

5-7cm
5cm
2.5cm
60g

9cm
6cm
3cm
80g

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85
Q

Uterus is consist of _____, ____ and _____

A

body, isthmus, and cervix

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86
Q

Uppermost and forms bulk of the organ.

Enlarges during pregnancy

A

Body

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87
Q

Portion between the points of attachment of fallopian tubes. Can be palpated to determine uterine growth, measure contraction

A

Fundus

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88
Q

Short segment between the body and cervix, 1-2mm in length, enlarges during pregnancy, and most commonly cut during cesarean birth

A

Isthmus

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89
Q

Lowest portion, approx 1/3 of uterus size, approx 2-5cm long

-approx half of it lies above the vagine, and half of it extends into the vagina

A

Cervix

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90
Q

Central cavity

A
  • cervical canal
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91
Q

Opening of the canal at junction of cervix & isthmus

A

Internal cervical os

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92
Q

Opening of the canal at junction of distal opening to vagina, the level of ischial spines

A

External cervical os

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93
Q

Uterine and Cervical Coats

  • Important for menstrual function
  • shed when pregnancy does not occur as menstrual flow
A

Endometrium

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94
Q

Endometrium is formed by two layers of cells, ______ (not influenced by hormone) and inner _______(influenced by estrogen and progesterone)

A

basal layer

glandular layer

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95
Q

Mucous lining of the cervix, affected by hormones

  • secretes mucus to lubricate surface for sperm passing through cervix
  • when estrogen is at its peak, about ____ mucus is produced per day
A

Endocervix

700mL

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96
Q

The mucus secreted by the endocervix is ______

A

alkaline

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97
Q

Endocervix becomes plugged during ________ to keep ascending infections

A

pregnancy

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98
Q

Are not lined with mucous membrane but with stratified squamous epithelium and location for obtaining Papanicolaou smear

A

Lower surface of cervix

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99
Q
  • muscle layer
  • composed of fibers arranged in longitudinal, transverse, and oblique directions
  • provides extreme strength to the organ
A

Myometrium

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100
Q

Adds strength and support to the organ

A

Perineum-

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101
Q

Uterine blood supply

-large descending abdominal aorta divides to two _____, main divisions of these are the _______

A

iliac arteries

hypogastric arteries

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102
Q

Uterine nerve supply

The uterus is supplied by both ______ and _______

A

efferent (motor)

afferent (sensory) nerves

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103
Q

The efferent nerves that supply the uterus arise from the ___ through ____

A

T5

T10 spinal ganglia

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104
Q

The afferent nerves join the ______and enter the spinal column at ___and ____

A

hypogastric plexus

T11 T12

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105
Q
Uterine deviations (shape and position)
Oddly shaped “horns” in junction of the fallopian tubes
A

Bicornuate uterus

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106
Q
Uterine deviations (shape and position)
Fundus is tipped forward
A

Anteversion

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107
Q
Uterine deviations (shape and position)
Fundus is tipped back
A

Retroversion

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108
Q
Uterine deviations (shape and position)
Body of uterus is bent sharply forward at junction with cervix
A

Anteflexion

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109
Q
Uterine deviations (shape and position)
Body of uterus is bent sharply back just above the cervix
A

Retroflexion

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110
Q

Suspended in the pelvic cavity by several ligaments that also help support the bladder and is further supported by a combination of fascia and muscle

A

Uterine support

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111
Q

herniated bladder in anterior wall of vagina

A

Cystocele

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112
Q

herniated rectum in posterior wall of vagina

A

Rectocele

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113
Q

The anterior wall of the vagina is about _____ and posterior wall is around _____

A

7-6cm

8-9cm

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114
Q

The vagina has both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve innervations originating at the _____ to _______

A

S1

S3 levels

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115
Q

The mucus produced by the vaginal lining has a rich _____ which is broken down by the lactose-fermenting bacteria that frequent the vagina (Döderlein’s bacillus), and lactic acid is formed

A

glycogen content

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116
Q

Recesses at the side of the cervix. Anterior, posterior(place for pooling of semen), and lateral sides

A

Fornix

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117
Q

Breasts or mammary glands are located __________ and extends well into the axilla

A

anterior to the pectoral muscle

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118
Q

Milk glands of the breasts are divided by connective tissue partitions into approximately ______.

A

20 lobes

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119
Q

All of the glands in each lobe produce milk by ________ and deliver it to the nipple via a ________

A

acinar cells

lactiferous duct

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120
Q

A _____ is composed of smooth muscle that is capable of erection on manual or sucking stimulation

A

nipple

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121
Q

Acts to constrict milk gland cells and push milk forward into the ducts that lead to the nipple

A

Oxytocin

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122
Q

Areola: darkly pigmentation around nipples which contains many sebaceous glands, called ________

A

Montgomery’s tubercles

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123
Q

Although not a part of the female reproductive system but of the skeletal system, it is a very important body part of pregnant women.

A

Pelvis

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124
Q

A. Structure of Pelvis

Two os coxae/innominate bones made up of:

A

Ilium
Ischium
Pubes

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125
Q

Upper extended part; curved upper border is the _______.

A

Ilium

iliac crest

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126
Q

Under part; when sitting, the body rests on the ischial tuberosities; ______are important landmarks.

A

Ischium

ischial spines

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127
Q

Front part; join to form an articulation of the pelvis called the ________

A

Pubes

symphysis pubis.

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128
Q

Wedge-shaped, forms the back part of the pelvis. Consists of 5 fused vertebrae, the first having a prominent upper margin called the __________

A

Sacrum

sacral promontory.

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129
Q

Lowest part of the spine;

A

Coccyx

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130
Q

Degree of movement between sacrum and coccyx made possible by the third articulation of the pelvis called _________ which allows room for delivery of the fetal head.

A

sacroccygeal joint

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131
Q

B. Divisions – set apart by the _______, an imaginary line from the sacral promontory to the ilia on both sides to the superior portion of the symphysis pubis.

A

linea terminalis

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132
Q

Superior half formed by the ilia. Offers landmarks for pelvic measurements; supports the growing uterus during pregnancy; and directs the fetus into the true pelvis near the end of gestation.

A

False pelvis

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133
Q

Inferior half formed by the pubes in front, the iliac and the Ischia on the sides and the sacrum and coccyx behind.

A

True pelvis

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134
Q

The true pelvis is made up of three parts:

A

Inlet
Cavity
Outlet

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135
Q

Entranceway to the true pelvis. Its transverse diameter is wider than its anterosposteior diameter.

A

Inlet

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136
Q

The measurements of inlet
Transverse diameter = .
Anteroposterior diameter (AP) = .
Right and left oblique diameter = .

A

13.5 cm
11 cm
12.75 cm

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137
Q

Space between the inlet and the outlet. Contains the bladder and the rectum, with the uterus between them in an anteflexed position towards the bladder.

A

Cavity

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138
Q

Inferior portion of the pelvis, bounded on the back by the coccyx, on the sides by the ischial tuberosities and in front by the inferior aspect of the symphysis pubis and the pubic arch. Its _____ diameter is wider than its _______.

A

Outlet
AP
transverse diameter

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139
Q

“normal” female pelvis. Inlet is well rounded forward and back. Most ideal for childbirth.

A

Gynecoid

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140
Q

transverse diameter is narrow, AP diameter is lager than normal.

A

Anthropoid

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141
Q

inlet is oval, AP diameter is shallow

A

Platypelloid

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142
Q

“male” pelvis. Intel has a narrow, shallow posterior portion and pointed anterior portion.

A

Android

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143
Q

Distance between the middle points of the iliac crests. Average = ____.

A

Intercristal diameter

28 cm

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144
Q

Distance between the anterosuperior iliac spines. Average = _____.

A

Interspinous diameter

25 cm

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145
Q

Distance between the trochanters of the

femur. Average = _____

A

Intertrochanteric diameter

31 cm

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146
Q

Distance between the anterior aspect of the symphysis pubis and depression below L5. Average = ______

A

External conjugate/Baudelocque’s diameter

18-20cm

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147
Q

Suggestive only of pelvic size:

A

External

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148
Q

Give the actual diameters of the inlet and outlet

A

Internal

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149
Q

Distance between the sacral promontory and inferior margin of the symphysis pubis. Average = _____
Important measurement because it is the diameter of the pelvic inlet.
Average = ________.

A

Diagonal conjugate

  1. 5 cm.
  2. 5 – 11 cm
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150
Q

Transverse diameter of the pelvic outlet. Is measured at the level of the anus. Average = ____.

A

Bi-ischial diameter/tuberischii

11 cm

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151
Q

Episodic uterine bleeding in response to cyclic hormonal changes

A

Menstruation

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152
Q

Temporary cessation of menstrual flow.

A

Amenorrhea

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153
Q

Markedly diminished menstrual flow, nearing amenorrhea

A

Oligomenorrhea

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154
Q

Excessive bleeding during regular menstruation.

A

Menorrhagia

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155
Q

Bleeding at completely irregular intervals.

A

Metrorhagia

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156
Q

Frequent menstruation occurring at intervals of less than 3 weeks.

A

Polymenorrhea

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157
Q

Markedly diminished menstrual flow.

A

Oligomenorrhea

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158
Q

Physiology of Menstruation
Four body structures are involved in the physiology of the menstrual cycle: the _______, the ______, the _____, and the ______.

A

hypothalamus
pituitary gland
ovaries
uterus

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159
Q

Hormones which regulate cyclic activites - ____ and ____

A

FSH and LH

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160
Q

Effects of _____ in the body

-Inhibits production of FSH

A

estrogen

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161
Q

Effects of ______ in the body

-Inhibits production of LH

A

progesterone

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162
Q

-Stimulates growth of the ductile structures of the breasts.

A

estrogen

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163
Q

-Causes hypertrophy of the myometrium

A

estrogen

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164
Q

Effects of ______ in the body
-Increases body temperature after ovulation. Just before ovulation basal body temperature decreases slightly (because of low ______ level in the blood) and then increases slightly a day after ovulation (because of the presence of ________)

A

progesterone

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165
Q

Effects of ______ in the body

  • Increases endomentrial tortuosity
  • Increases endometrial secretions
  • Inhibits uterine motility
A

progesterone

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166
Q

Effects of ______ in the body
-Increases quantity and pH of cervical mucus, causing it to become thin and watery and can be stretched to a distance of ____cm. (Spinnbarkheit test of ovulation).

A

estrogen

10-13

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167
Q

Effects of ______ in the body

-Decreases muscle tone of gastrointestinal and urinary tracts

A

progesterone

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168
Q

Effects of ______ in the body

-Increases musculoskeletal motility

A

progesterone

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169
Q

Effects of ______ in the body

-Facilitates transport of the fertilized ovum through the Fallopian tubes

A

progesterone

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170
Q

Effects of ______ in the body

  • Decreases renal threshold of lactose and dextrose
  • Increases fibrinogen levels; decreases hemoglobin and hematocrit
A

progesterone

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171
Q

Sequential steps of the menstrual cycle
1. On the third day of the menstrual cycle, serum _____ is at its lowest. This low level serves as the stimulus for the hypothalamus to produce the ______.

A

estrogen level

Follicle-Stimulating Hormone Releasing Factor (FSHRF)

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172
Q

Sequential steps of the menstrual cycle
2. FSHRF is the one responsible for stimulating the _______ to produce the first of two hormones which regulate cyclic activities, the Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH).

A

Anterior Pituitary Gland (APG)

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173
Q

Sequential steps of the menstrual cycle
3. FSH, in turn, will stimulate the growth of an ________ inside a primordial follicle by stimulating production of _____ by the ovary.

A

immature oocytes

estrogen

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174
Q

Sequential steps of the menstrual cycle
3. Once estrogen is produced, the primordial follicle is now termed as ______, therefore, is the structure which contains high amounts of estrogen).

A

Graafian follicle (The Graafian follicle)

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175
Q

4.________ will cause the cells in the uterine endothelium to proliferate (grow very rapidly), thereby increasing its thickness to about eightfold. This particular phase in the uterine cycle, therefore, is called _______.

A

Estrogen in the Graafian follicle

proliferative phase

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176
Q

In view of the change from primordial to Graafian follicle, it is also called _____. Because of the predominance of estrogen, it is also called the _______. And since it comes right after the menstrual period, it is also called ________. And it is also called the ________.

A

follicular phase
estrogenic phase
postmenstrual phase
pre-ovulatory phase

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177
Q
  1. On the ____ of the menstrual cycle, there is now a very low level of _______ in the blood. This low serum level is the stimulus for the Hypothalamus to produce the _________
A

13th day
progesterone
Luteinzing Hormone Releasing Factor (LHRF).

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178
Q
  1. LHRF is responsible for stimulating the APG to produce the second hormone which regulates cyclic activity, the ________.
A

Luteininzing Hormone (LH)

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179
Q
  1. The LH, in turn, is responsible for stimulating the ovary to produce the second hormone produced by the ovaries, _______.
A

progesterone

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180
Q
  1. The increased amounts of both estrogen and progesterone push the _________ to the surface of the ovary until, on the following day (the 14 th day of the menstrual cycle)
A

new mature ovum

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181
Q

On the following day (the 14 th day of the menstrual cycle), the Graafian follicle ruptures and releases the mature ovum, a process called _______.

A

ovulation

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182
Q
  1. Once ovulation has taken place, the Graafian follicle, because it now contains increasing amounts of ______, giving it its yellowish appearance, is termed ______.
A

progesterone

Corpus Luteum

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183
Q

The structure which contains high amounts of progesterone is the

A

Corpus Luteum

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184
Q
  1. Progesterone causes the glands of the uterine endothelium to become corkscrew or twisted in appearance because of the increasing amount of ___________.
A

capillaries

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185
Q

________, therefore, is said to be the hormone designed to promote pregnancy because it makes the uterus nutritionally abundant with blood in order for the fertilized zygote to survive should conception take place, that is why this phase in the uterine cycle is what we call __________.

A

Progesterone

progestational phase

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186
Q

Progestational phase in the uterine cycle is also called _________ because it secretes the most important hormone in pregnancy.

A

secretory phase

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187
Q

In view of the change from Graafian follicle to corpus Luteum, it is called ______ . Because it occurs just after ovulation, it is also called the_______. And, it is also called the _____

A

luteal phase
post-ovulatory phase
pre-menstrual phase.

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188
Q
  1. Up until the _____ of the menstrual cycle, if the mature ovum is not fertilized by a sperm, the amounts of hormones in the corpus Luteum will start to decrease.
A

24 th day

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189
Q

The corpus Luteum turning white is now called the _______ and in 3-4 days, the thickened lining of the uterus produced by _____ starts to degenerate and slough off and capillaries rupture. And thus begins another _____.

A

corpus albicans
estrogen
menstrual period

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190
Q

When the ovary releases the mature ovum on the day of ovulation, sometimes a certain degree of pain in either the _______ is felt by the woman. This sensation is normal and termed ______.

A

right or left lower quadrants

mittelschmerz

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191
Q

The first 14 days of the menstrual cycle is a very ______ period. The last 14 days of the menstrual cycle is a ____ period

A

variable

fixed

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192
Q

Exactly _____ after ovulation, menstruation will occur (unless a pregnancy has taken place) because the ______ has only this length of life span .

A

2 weeks

corpus Luteum

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193
Q

In a 28-day cycle, ovulation takes place on the 14th day. In a 32-day cycle, ovulation takes place on the 18 thday. In a 26-day cycle, ovulation takes place on the 12 th day (Subtract ____ from the cycle).

A

14 days

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194
Q

Menstruation does not occur during pregnancy because _____ does not decrease in amount. Corpus ______continues to produce progesterone until the placenta takes over production of hormones by the_______of pregnancy.

A

progesterone
Luteum
8 th week

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195
Q

Menstruation can occur even _____ (as in women taking oral contraceptives). Ovulation can likewise occur even ______

A
without ovulation
without menstruation (as in lactating mothers).
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196
Q

Sexual Response Cycle

Occurs with physical and psychological stimulation

A

Excitement

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197
Q

Excitement

  • Vaginal _____ and ______ of genitalia
  • Penile erection due to ______
A

lubrication
vasocongestion
vasocongestion

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198
Q

Before orgasm

  • In woman, ______ is draw on forward and retracts under ______, ______ becomes congested and increased ____ elevation
  • Formation of orgasmic platform due to prominent _____
  • Generalized ______, ______, ______, ______ in the late plateau phase.
  • __________ with live spermatozoa
A
Plateau
clirotis
clitoral prepuce
lower part of the vagina
nipple
vasocongestion

muscle tension
hyperventilation
increased BP
tachycardia

Pre-ejaculatory phase

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199
Q

When body suddenly discharges accumulated sexual tension
shortest stage in sexual cycle
intense pleasure affecting the body
-vigorous contraction of muscles in the _____ and ____ from the area of congestion
- ______ in woman
-In men, contractions project semen into the ______ followed by ________ contractions

A
Orgasm
pelvic area expels blood 
fluid 
8-15 contractions (one every 0.8sec)
proximal urethra
three to seven propulsive ejaculatory
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200
Q

External and internal genitalia return to an unaroused state

A

Resolution

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201
Q

Only in males; the period during which no amount of stimulation can cause another erection. Not manifested in females because females are multi- orgasmic. This phase lengthens with age.

A

Refractory phase

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202
Q

Abstinence from sexual activity

A

Celibacy

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203
Q

Self-stimulation for erotic pleasure

A

Masturbation

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204
Q

Use of visual materials such as magazines or photographs for sexual arousals

A

Erotic stimulation

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205
Q

Sexual arousal resulting from the use of certain objects or situations

A

Fetishism

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206
Q

An individual who dresses to take on the role of the opposite sex

A

Transvestism

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207
Q

Obtaining sexual arousal by looking at other’s person’s body

A

Voyeurism

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208
Q

Involves inflicting pain (sadism) or receiveing pain (masochism)

A

Sadomasochism

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209
Q

Revealing one’s genitals in public

A

Exhibitionism

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210
Q

Individuals who are interested in sexual encounters with children

A

Pedophiles

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211
Q

PREGNANCY AND PRENATAL CARE

Definition: the union of the sperm and the mature ovum in the outer third or outer half of the Fallopian tube.

A

I. FERTILIZATION

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212
Q

Fertilization
General considerations
1. Normal amount of semen per ejaculation = ______

A

3-5 cc. = 1 teaspoon.

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213
Q

Fertilization

2. Number of sperms in an ejaculate = _____

A

120-150 million/cc

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214
Q

Fertilization
3. Mature ovum is capable of being fertilized for_______ after ovulation. Sperms are capable of fertilizing even for _____ after ejaculation.

A

12-24 hours

3-4 days

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215
Q

Fertilization

4. Normal life span of sperms = ______

A

7 days

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216
Q

Fertilization

5. Sperms, once deposited in the vagina, will generally reach the cervix within _____ after deposition.

A

90 seconds

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217
Q

Fertilization
6. Reproductive cells, during ______, divide by meiosis (haploid umber of daughter cells); therefore, they contain only 23 chromosomes (the rest of the body cells contain 46 chromosomes).

A

gametogenosis

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218
Q

Sperms have 22 autosomes and 1 X sex chromosome or 1 Y sex chromosome. The union of an X-carrying sperm and mature ovum results in a ______; the union of a Y-carrying sperm and a mature ovum results in a _____. Important: Only _____, therefore, determine the sex of their children.

A
baby girl (XX)
baby boy (XY)
fathers
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219
Q

II. IMPLANTATION
- Implementation after fertilization, the fertilization ovum or zygote stays in the ______ for 3 days, during which time rapid cell division (mitosis) is taking place.

A

Fallopian tube

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220
Q

II. IMPLANTATION

The developing cells are now called ______ and when there are already about 16 blastomeres, it is now termed a ____.

A

blastomere

morula

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221
Q

In this morula for, it will start to ravel (by ciliary action and peristaltic contractions of the Fallopian tube) to the
_____ where it will stay for another 3-4 days.

A

uterus

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222
Q

When there is already a cavity formed in the morula, it is now called a _____.

A

blastocyst

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223
Q

Fingerlike projections, called ______ (Table 4), form around the blastocyst

A

trophoblasts

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224
Q

Are the ones which will implant high on the anterior or posterior surface of the uterus. Thus, implantation, also called ______, takes place about a week after fertilization.

A

trophoblasts

nidation

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225
Q

II. IMPLANTATION
General Considerations:
1. Once implantation has taken place, the uterine endothelium is now termed _____.

A

decidua

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226
Q
  1. Occasionally, a small amount of vaginal spotting appears with implantation because capillaries are ruptured by the _________ = implantation bleeding. Implication: this should not be mistaken for the Last Menstrual Period (LMP)
A

implanting trophoblasts

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227
Q

III. STAGES OF HUMAN PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT
A. First 12-14 days = _____
B. From 15th day up to the 8th week = ____
C. From 8th week up to the time of birth = _____
D. Developing embryo or fetus and placental structures throughout pregnancy- _____

A

zygote
embryo
fetus
Conceptus

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228
Q

III. STAGES OF HUMAN PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT

The inner layer.

A

Cytotrophoblast

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229
Q

III. STAGES OF HUMAN PRENATAL DEVELOPMENT

The outer layer containing fingerlike projections called chorionic villi

A

Syncytiotrophoblast

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230
Q

Chorionic villi which differentiate into:

A

Langhan’s layer

Syncytial layer

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231
Q

believed to protect the fetus against Treponema Pallidum (etiologic agent of syphilis). Present only during the _________ of pregnancy.

A

Langhan’s layer

second trimester

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232
Q

gives rise to the fetal membranes:

A

Syncytial layer

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233
Q

Syncytial layer gives rise to the fetal membranes:

A

Amnion

Chorion

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234
Q

Inner membrane which gives rise to
Umbilical cord/funis
Amniotic fluid

A

Amnion

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235
Q

Contains two arteries and one vein, which are supported by the Wharton’s jelly.

A

Umbilical cord/funis

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236
Q
  • Clear, albuminous fluid in which the baby floats.
  • Begins to form at _______.
  • Approximates water in specific gravity ______and is neutral to slightly alkaline _____ Note: the higher the pH, the more alkaline; the lower the pH, the more acidic
A

Amniotic fluid
11-15 weeks gestation
(1.007-1.025)
(pH = 7.0-7.25).

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237
Q

-Near term is clear, colorless, containing little white specks of vernix caseosa and other solid particles.

A

Amniotic fluid

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238
Q

Amniotic fluid is produced at a rate of ____ in 24 hours and fetus swallows it at an equally rapid rate.

A

500 ml

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239
Q

By the 4th lunar month, _____ is added to the amount of amniotic fluid.

A

urine

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240
Q

Amniotic fluid, therefore, is derived chiefly from _________ and ________.

A

maternal serum

fetal urine

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241
Q

Is the excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid — the fluid that surrounds the baby in the uterus during pregnancy.

A

Polyhydramnios

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242
Q

Implication: a case of polyhydramnios (=more than ________ of amniotic fluid) stems from the inability of the fetus to swallow amniotic rapidly, as in tracheoesophageal fistula;

A

1500 ml

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243
Q
  • Amniotic fluid less than 500 ml

- is due to the inability of the kidneys to add urine to the amniotic fluid, as in congenital renal anomaly.

A

Oligohydramnios

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244
Q

Amniotic fluid also known as __________,

A

bag of water (BOW)

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245
Q

Amniotic fluid serves the following purposes:

A

Protestion

Diagnosis

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246
Q

Shields the fetus against blows or pressures on the mother’s abdomen; against sudden changes in temperature because liquid changes temperature more slowly than air; and from infections

A

Protestion

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247
Q

As in amniocentesis; meconium-stained amniotic fluid means fetal distress

A

Diagnosis

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248
Q

Aids in descent of the fetus during active labor

A

Amniotic fluid

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249
Q

Is a procedure in which amniotic fluid is removed from the uterus for testing or treatment

A

amniocentesis

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250
Q

meconium-stained amniotic fluid means ________

A

fetal distress

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251
Q

Together with the deciduas basalis, gives rise to the placenta, which starts to form at 8th week gestation.

A

Chorion

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252
Q

Chorion develops into ____________ call cotyledons.

A

15-20 subdivisions

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253
Q

Respiratory system – exchange of gases takes place in the _______, not in the fetal lungs

A

Placenta

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254
Q

Renal system – waste products are being excreted through the ________

A

placenta

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255
Q

In pregnancy: it is the ______ which detoxifies the fetal waste products

A

mother’s liver

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256
Q

Gastrointestinal system nutrients pass to the fetus via the placenta by ________ through the placental tissues

A

diffusion

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257
Q

Placenta serves the following purposes:

Circulatory system – __________ is established by selective osmosis

A

feto-placental circulation

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258
Q

Placenta serves the following purposes:

Endocrine system – it produces the following important hormones (before 8 weeks gestation, the _________ is the one producing these hormones):

A

corpus luteum

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259
Q

Placenta serves the following purposes:

“orders” the corpus luteum to keep on producing estrogen and progesterone, that is why menstruation does not take place during pregnancy.

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)

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260
Q

– promotes growth of mammary glands necessary for lactation. Also has growth-stimulating properties

A

Human placental lactogen (HPL) or human chorionic somatomammotropin

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261
Q

– promotes growth of mammary glands necessary for lactation. Also has growth-stimulating properties

A

Human placental lactogen (HPL) or human chorionic somatomammotropin

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262
Q

Serves the following purposes:

Estrogen and Progesterone
Protective barrier – inhibits the passage of same bacteria and large molecules

A

Placenta

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263
Q

FETAL DEVELOPMENT
First Lunar Month
1. Germ layers differentiat by the _______: (in cases of multiple congenital anomalies, the structures that will be affected are those that arise out of the same germ layer).

A

2nd week

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264
Q

FETAL DEVELOPMENT
– develops into the lining of the GIT, the respiratory tract, tonsils, thyroid (for basal metabolism), parathyroid (for calcium metabolism), thymus gland (for development of immunity), bladder and urethra

A

Endoderm

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265
Q

FETAL DEVELOPMENT
– forms into the supporting structures of the body (connective tissues, cartilagem muscles and tendons); heart, circulatory system, blood cells, reproductive system, kidneys and ureters

A

Mesoderm

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266
Q

FETAL DEVELOPMENT
- responsible for the formation of the nervous system, the skin, hair and nails, and the mucous membrane of the anus and mouth.

A

Ectoderm

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267
Q

Fetal Development

2. _____________ appear by the second week.

A

Fetal membranes (amnion and chorion)

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268
Q

Fetal Development
3. ___________ very rapidly develops by the 3rd week. (Dizziness is said to be the earliest sign of pregnancy because as the fetal brain rapidly develops, _______ stores of the mother are depleted, thus causing hypoglycemia in the latter).

A

Nervous system

glucose

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269
Q

Fetal development

4. Fetal heart begins to form as early as the __________

A

16th day of life

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270
Q

“When does the fetal heart begin to beat?”, the answer is ________.

A

first lunar month

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271
Q

But to the question, “When can fetal heart tones to first heard?” the answer is __________

A

fifth month

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272
Q

Fetal Development

5. The ________ and __________ exist as a single tube until the 3rd week of life when they start to separate.

A

digestive

respiratory tracts

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273
Q

Fetal Development
Second Lunar Month
1. All vital organs are formed by the _______; placenta develops fully

A

8th week

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274
Q

Fetal development

2. Are formed by the 8th week. (To the question, “When is sex determined?” the answer is “At the time of conception”).

A

Sex organs (ovaries and testes)

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275
Q

Fetal Development

3. __________ are formed in the instestines by the 5th – 8th week.

A

Meconium (first stools)

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276
Q

Fetal development
Third Lunar Month
1. Kidneys are able to function – urine is formed by the ______.

A

12th week

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277
Q

What month in Fetal development does this happen Buds of milk teeth form

A

Third lunar Month

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278
Q

What month in Fetal development does the beginning bone ossification

A

Third Lunar Month

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279
Q

What month in Fetal development does the

fetus swallows amniotic fluid

A

Third Lunar Month

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280
Q

What month in Fetal development does the

Feto-placental circulation is established by selective osmosis; no direct exchange between fetal and maternal blood.

A

Third Lunar Month

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281
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Lanugo appears

.

A

Fourth Lunar Month

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282
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Buds of permanent teeth form.

A

Fourth Lunar Month

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283
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Heart beats maybe audible with fetoscope

A

Fourth Lunar Month

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284
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Vernix caseosa appears

A

Fifth Lunar Month

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285
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Lanugo covers entire body

A

Fifth Lunar Month

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286
Q

What month in Fetal development does the

Quickening (fetal movements) felt

A

Fifth Lunar Month

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287
Q

What month in Fetal development does the

Fetal heart beats very audible

A

Fifth Lunar Month

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288
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Skin markedly wrinkled

A

Sixth Lunar Month

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289
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Attains proportions of fullterm baby

A

Sixth Lunar Month

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290
Q

What month in Fetal development does the
alveoli begin to form (28th weeks of gestation is said to be the lower limit of prematurity because if baby is delivered at this time, will cry and breathe but usually dies)

A

Seventh Lunar Month

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291
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Fetus is viable

A

Eighth Lunar Month

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292
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Lanugo begins to disappear

A

Eight Lunar Month

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293
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Nails extend to ends of fingers

A

Eight Lunar Month

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294
Q

What month in Fetal development does the

Subcutaneous fat deposition begins

A

Eight Lunar Month

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295
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Lanugo and vernix disappear

A

Ninth Lunar Month

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296
Q

What month in Fetal development does the Amniotic fluid volume somewhat decreases

A

Ninth Lunar Month

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297
Q

What month in Fetal development does the – all characteristics of the normal newborn

A

Tenth Lunar Month

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298
Q

FOCUS OF FETAL DEVELOPMENT

Period of organogenesis

A

First trimester –

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299
Q

Period of continued fetal growth and development; rapid increase in fetal length

A

Second trimester

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300
Q

Period of most rapid growth and development because of rapid deposition of subcutaneous fat

A

Third trimester

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301
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
1. Circulatory/Cardiovascular
- Beginning the end of the first trimester there is a
Gradual increase of about ________ reaching its peak during the 6th month.

A

30% - 50% in the total cardiac volume,

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302
Q

The increase in the total cardiac volume causes a drop in _________ and _________ since the increase is only in the plasma volume = physiologic anemia of pregnancy.

A

hemoglobin

hematocrit values

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303
Q

Consequences of increased total cardiac volume are:

Easily fatigability and shortness of breath because of _____

A

increased workload of the heart

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304
Q

Consequences of increased total cardiac volume are:

Slight hypertrophy of the heart, causing it to be displaced to the ____, ______________

A

left

resulting in torsion on the great vessels (the aorta and pulmonary artery).

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305
Q

Consequences of increased total cardiac volume are:

Systolic murmurs are common due to _____________

A

lowered blood viscosity

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306
Q

Consequences of increased total cardiac volume are:

Nosebleeds may occur because of ___________ as pregnancy progresses.

A

marked congestion of the nasopharynx

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307
Q

Circulatory/Cardiovascular
Palpitations are due to:

____________ stimulation during the first half of pregnancy

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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308
Q

Circulatory/Cardiovascular
Palpitations are due to:
Increased pressure of uterus against the diaphragm during __________

A

Second half of pregnancy

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309
Q

Circulatory/Cardiovascular
- Because of poor circulation resulting from pressure of the gravid uterus on the ____________:
• __________ occurs. Management legs above hip level. Important: Edema of the lower extremities is normal during pregnancy; it is not a sign of toxemia
• _________ can also occur. Management:
o Use/wear support hose or elastic stockings to promote venous flow, thus preventing stasis in lower extremities
o Apply elastic bandage – start at the distal end of the extremity and work toward the trunk to avoid congestion and impaired circulation in the distal part; do not wrap toes so as to be able to determine adequacy of circulation (Principle behind bandaging: blod flow through tissues is decreased by applying excessive pressure on blood vessels)
o Avoid use of constricting garters, e.g., knee-high socks

A

blood vessels of the lower extremities
Edema of the lower extremities
Varicosities of the lower extremities

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310
Q

Important: ______________ is normal during pregnancy; it is not a sign of toxemia

A

Edema of the lower extremities

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311
Q

Management of varicosities of the lower extremities:
o Use/wear _____________ to promote venous flow, thus preventing stasis in lower extremities
o Apply ______ – start at the distal end of the extremity and work toward the trunk to avoid congestion and impaired circulation in the distal part; do not wrap ____ so as to be able to determine adequacy of circulation
o Avoid use of _______, e.g., knee-high sock

A

support hose or elastic stockings
elastic bandage
toes
constricting garters

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312
Q

Principle behind bandaging: blood flow through tissues is decreased by _______________)

A

applying excessive pressure on blood vessels

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313
Q

Circulatory/Cardiovascular
- Because of poor circulation in the blood vessels of the genitalia due to the pressure of the gravid uterus, ________ and ______ can occur.

A

varicosities of the vulva

rectum

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314
Q

Circulatory/Cardiovascular

Management: _______ with hips elevated on pillow and _________.

A

side-lying position

modified knee-chest position

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315
Q

Circulatory/Cardiovascular
- There is increased level of circulating _______, that is why pregnant women are normally safeguarded against undue bleeding. However, this also predisposes them to formation of ___________.

A
fibrogen
blood clots (thrombi)
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316
Q

The implication is that pregnant women should not be massaged since __________ and cause ________.

A

blood clots can be released

thromboembolism

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317
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
2. Gastrointestinal changes
- Morning sickness – nausea and vomiting during the first trimester is due to increased ___________. It may also be due to increased ______ or even to ______.

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
acidity
emotional factors

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318
Q

Management morning sickness: Eat ____or ____ 30 minutes before arising in the morning (or ___, ________, _____ and _____ in the diet).

A
dry toast 
crackers 
dry
high carbohydrate
low fat
low spices
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319
Q

Excessive nausea and vomiting which persists beyond 3 months; results in dehydration, starvation and acidosis.

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

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320
Q

Management of Hyperemesis gravidarum : _______ in 24 hours is the priority treatment; complete bed rest is also important.

A

D 10NSS 300 ml

321
Q

Constipation and flatulence are due to ____________, thus slowing peristalsis and gastric emptying time. May also be due to increased _____ during pregnancy.

A

displacement of the stomach and intestines

progesterone

322
Q

Constipation and flatulence management:

• Increase _____ and ______ in the diet

A

fluids

roughage

323
Q

Constipation and flatulence management:
• Establish regular ________
• Increase ______
• Avoid _______
• Avoid harsh laxatives like ______; stool softeners, e.g. _____, are better
• _______ should not be taken because it interferes with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

A
elimination time
exercise
enemas
Dulcolax
Colace
Mineral oil
324
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
2. Gastrointestinal changes
- _______ are due to pressure of enlarged uterus.

A

Hemorrhoids

325
Q

Management of hemorrhoids: _____ with witch hazel or Epsom salts.

A

cold compress

326
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
2. Gastrointestinal changes
- ________, especially during the last trimester, is due to _______ which decreases gastric motility, thereby causing ___________ which lead to ________ contents through the cardiac sphincter into the esophagus, causing irritation.

A

Heartburn
increased progesterone
reverse peristaltic waves
regurgitation of stomach

327
Q
Management of heartburn:
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ before meals
•	Avoid \_\_\_, \_\_\_\_foods
•	Sips of \_\_\_\_\_ at frequent intervals
•	Small, frequent meals taken \_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Bend at the \_\_\_\_\_, not at the waist
•	Take \_\_\_\_ (e.g. milk of Magnesia) but never sodium bicarbonate (e.g. Alka Seltzer or baking soda) because it promotes \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Pats or butter
fried, fatty 
milk 
slowly
knees
antacids
fluid retention
328
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
3. Respiratory changes – ___________
-Causes
• Increased oxygen consumption and production of carbon dioxide during the first trimester.
• Increased uterine size causes diaphragm to be pushed or displaced, thus crowding the chest cavity.
- Management: Lateral expansion of the chest to compensate for shortness of breath increases oxygen supply and vital lung capacity.

A

shortness of breath

329
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
3. Respiratory changes causes
• Increased oxygen consumption and production of carbon dioxide during the _________.

A

first trimester

330
Q

Respiratory changes causes increased _______ causes diaphragm to be pushed or displaced, thus crowding the chest cavity.

A

uterine size

331
Q

Management of Respiratory changes: _______ of the chest to compensate for shortness of breath increases oxygen supply and vital lung capacity.

A

Lateral expansion

332
Q

The only sign in pregnancy seen during the first trimester disappears during the second and reappears during the third trimester.

A

Urinary frequency

333
Q

The urinary frequency in early in pregnancy is due to increased__________ and to the ____________;

A

blood supply to the kidneys

uterus rising out of the pelvic cavity

334
Q

The urinary frequency in the last trimester is due to __________ on the bladder, especially with lightning (descent of the fetus into the pelvic brim).

A

pressure of enlarged uterus

335
Q
  • Decreased renal threshold for sugar due to increased production of ___________ which cause lactose and dextrose to spill into the urine; also an effect of the increased _______.
A

glucocorticoids

progesterone

336
Q

It would be difficult to diagnose diabetes in pregnancy based on the urine sample alone because a pregnant women have __________.)

A

sugar in their urine

337
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
5. Muscoloskeletal changes
- Because of the pregnant woman’s attempt to change her center of gravity, she makes ambulation easier by standing more straight and taller, resulting in a ____________

A

lordotic position (“pride of pregnancy”)

338
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
5. Muscoloskeletal changes
- Due to increased production of the _________ , pelvic bones become more supple and movable, increasing the incidence of accidental falls due to the _______.

A

hormone relaxin

wobbly gait

339
Q

Because of the increased incidence of accidental falls due to wobbly gait. Advise use of low-heeled shoes after the _______

A

first trimester

340
Q
  1. Muscoloskeletal changes
    - Leg cramps
    Causes:
    • Increased pressure of ______on lower extremities
    • F______
    • C_____
    • M____ __________
    • Low _____, high _____ intake
A
gravid uterus 
fatigue
chills
Muscle tenseness
calcium
phosphorus
341
Q

Management of Frequent Leg cramps
rest periods with ______
• Wear _____, more comfortable clothing
• Increase ______ (calcium tablets and diet)
• Do not massage – blood clots can cause ______.
• Most effective treatment: _____ of the affected leg and ______ the foot.

A
feet elevated
warm
calcium intake 
embolism
Press knee 
dorsiflex
342
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
A. Systemic Changes
6. Temperature – slight ______________ due to increased progesterone, but the body adapts after the ____ month

A

increase in basal temperature

4th

343
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Endocrine changes
    - Addition of the placenta as an endocrine organ, producing large amounts of ____, ____, ______ and ________.
A

HCG
HPL
estrogen
progesterone

344
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Endocrine changes
    - Moderate enlargement of the _______ due to hyperplasia of the glandular tissues and increased vascularity. Could also be due to increased _________ to as much as +25% because of the metabolic activity of the products of conception.
A

thyroid gland

basal metabolic rate

345
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Endocrine changes
    - Increased size of the parathyroid, probably to satisfy the increased need of the ________.
A

fetus for calcium

346
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Endocrine changes
    - Increased size and activity of the adrenal cortex, thus increasing the amount of circulating ______, ______ and _____, all of which affect carbohydrate and fat metabolism, causing ________.
A

cortiso
aldosterone
ADH
hyperglycemia

347
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Endocrine changes
    - Gradual increase in ________ but the body’s sensitivity to insulin is ______during pregnancy.
A

insulin production

decreased

348
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Weight
    - During the first trimester, weight gain of ______ is normal
A

1.5-3 lbs

349
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Weight
    - On 2nd and 3rd trimesters, weight gain of _______ per trimester is recommended.
A

10-11 lbs.

350
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Weight
    - Total allowable weight gain during entire period of pregnancy, therefore, is _________.
A

20-25 pounds (10-12 kgs)

351
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY

  1. Weight
    - ______of weight gain is more important than the _______ of weight gained.
A

Pattern

amount

352
Q
Fetus	\_\_\_\_
Placenta	\_\_\_\_.
Amniotic fluid	\_\_\_\_.
Increased weight of uterus	\_\_\_\_.
Increased weight of the breasts	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Weight of additional fluid	\_\_\_\_.
Fat and fluid accumulation	\_\_\_\_\_.
Characteristics of pregnancy TotaL \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
7lbs.
1 lb
1 ½ lbs
2 lbs
1/1 – 3 lbs
2 lbs
4-6 lbs
20-25 lbs
353
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
9. Emotional responses
____________. The fetus is an unidentified concept with great future implications but without tangible evidence of reality. Some degree of rejection, disbelief, even depression. (Implication: when giving health teachings, emphasize the _________).

A

First trimester

bodily changes in pregnancy

354
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
9. Emotional responses
________: fetus is perceived as a separate entity. Fantasizes appearance of the baby.

A

Second trimester

355
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
9. Emotional responses
________: has personal identification with a real baby about to be born and realistic plans for future childcare responsibilities. Best time to talk about layette and infant feeding method. Fear of death, though is prominent (To allay fears, let pregnant woman listen to the__________.)

A

Third trimester

fetal heart sounds

356
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
1. Uterus
- Weight increases to about 1000 grams at full term; due to increase in the amount of _____ and ________.
- Change in shape from pear-like to _____ ; enormous change in consistency of __________

A

fibrous
elastic tissues
ovoid
lower uterine segment

357
Q

Enormous change in consistency of lower uterine segment causes extreme softening, known as ________ , seen at about the _____

A

Hegar’s sign

6th week

358
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
1. Uterus
- Mucous plugs in the cervix, called _______, are produced to seal out bacteria.
- Cervix becomes more vascular and edematous, resembling the consistency of an earlobe, known as _________.

A

operculum

Goodell’s sign

359
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
2. Vagina
- Increased vascularity causes change in color from light pink to _____ or ______ as ________.

A

deep purple
violet known
Chadwick’s sign

360
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
2. Vagina
-To prevent confusion as to pregnancy signs, arrange the body parts from “out to in” and the different signs alphabetically. Thus:
Vagina – ________
Cervix – ________
Uterus – ________
- Due to increased estrogen, activity of the epithelial cell increases, thus increasing amount of vaginal discharges called leucorrhea. As long as the discharges are not excessive, green/yellow in color, foul-smelling or irritatingly itchy, it is normal. Management: maintain or increase cleanliness by taking twice daily shower baths using cool water.
- The pH of the vagina changes from normally acidic (because of the presence of Dederlein bacillie) to alkaline (because of increased estrogen). Alkaline vaginal environment is supposed to protect against bacterial infection; however, there are two microorganisms which thrive in an alkaline environment.

A

Chadwick’s sign
Goodell’s sign
Hegar’s sign

361
Q

Softening of womb (uterus) due to its increased blood supply, perceptible on gentle finger pressure on the neck (cervix). This is one of the confirmatory signs of pregnancy and is usually obvious by the 16th week.

An indication of pregnancy detectable between the 6th and 12th weeks: used before modern urine tests for pregnancy were available. If the fingers of one hand are inserted into the vagina and those of the other are placed over the pelvic cavity, the lower part of the uterus feels very soft compared with the body of the uterus above and the cervix below.

A

Hegar’s sign

362
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
Vagina
- Due to increased ______, activity of the epithelial cell increases, thus increasing amount of vaginal discharges called ______.

A

estrogen

leucorrhea

363
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
The discharges are not excessive, green/yellow in color, foul-smelling or irritatingly itchy, it is ______. Management: maintain or increase cleanliness by taking ______ shower baths using cool water.

A

normal

twice daily

364
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
- The pH of the vagina changes from normally acidic (because of the presence of ________) to alkaline (because of increased ______).

A

Dederlein bacillie

estrogen

365
Q

________ vaginal environment is supposed to protect against bacterial infection;

A

Alkaline

366
Q

There are two microorganisms which thrive in an alkaline environment.

A

Trichomonas, a protozoa or flagellate

Candida albicans, a fungus or yeast

367
Q

Trichomonas, a protozoa or flagellate. The condition is called ____________.

A

trichomonas vaginalis or trichomonas vaginitis or trichomoniasis

368
Q

Signs and symptoms of Trichomoniasis
o _____, _____-colored, irritatingly itchy, foul-smelling discharges
o _______ and ______ due to irritation from the discharges

A

Frothy
cream
Vulvar edema
hyperemia

369
Q

Management of Trichomoniasis

______ for 10 days p.o. or _______ of trichomonicidal compounds. (e.g., Tricofuron, Vagisec or Devegan).

A

Flagyl

vaginal suppositories

370
Q

Management of Trichomoniasis
o Is ________ during the first trimester
o Treat male partner also with ____.
o Avoid ______ when taking Flagyl – can cause ________ – like reactions: vomiting, flushed face and abdominal cramps.
o ______ a minor side effect – no need to discontinue the drug.
o Acidic vaginal douche (____. white vinegar in ______ of water or _____ white vinegar in ______ of water) to counteract alkaline – preferred environment of the protozoa.
o Avoid ______ to prevent reinfection

A
carcinogenic
Flagyl
alcoholic drinks, Antabuse
Dark brown urine
1 tbsp, 1 quart
15 ml., 1000 ml.
intercourse
371
Q

Candida albicans, a fungus or yeast. The condition is called ________.

A

Moniliasis or Candidiasis

372
Q

Fungus also thrives in an environment rich in _______ (that is why it is common among _________) and in those on ____ or _______ when acidic environment is altered.

A

carbohydrates
poorly-controlled diabetics
steroid or antibiotic therapy

373
Q

Is seen as oral thrush in the newborn when transmitted during delivery through the birth canal of the infected mother.

A

Moniliasis

374
Q

Symptoms of Moniliasis
o White, patchy, cheese-like particles that adhere to ________
o Irritatingly itchy and foul-smelling __________

A

vaginal walls

vaginal discharges

375
Q

Management of Moniliasis
o _________. or ____________ twice a day for 15 days
o _________ to vagina (use panty shields to prevent staining of clothes or underwear)
o Correct _____
o Avoid ________
o _____ vaginal douche

A
Mycostatin/Nystatin p.o
vaginal  suppositories/peccaries (100,000 U) 
Gentian violet swab
diabetes
intercourse
Acidic
376
Q
NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
3. Abdominal Wall
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ increase uterine size results in rupture and atrophy of connective tissue layers, seen as pink or reddish streaks (gently rubbing oil on the skin helps prevent \_\_\_\_\_\_)
- \_\_\_\_\_\_ pushed out
A

Striae gravidarum
diastasis
Umbilicus

377
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
4. Skin
_______ brown line running from umbilicus to symphais pubis

A

Linea nigra

378
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
4. Skin
_________ – extra pigmentation on cheeks and across the nose due to increased production of melanocytes by the _________

A

Melasma or chloasma

pituitary gland

379
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
4. Skin
- ________unduly activated

A

Sweat glands

380
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
5. Breasts – all changes due to increased ______

A

estrogen

381
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
5. Breasts
- Increase in size due to hyperplasia of ______ and ________.

A

mammary alveoli

fat deposits

382
Q
NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
5. Breasts 
- Feeling of \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_ sensation in the breasts
- \_\_\_\_\_ more erect.
A

fullness
tingling
Nipples

383
Q

For mothers who intend to breastfeed, advise:
Nipple _______
Drying nipples with ______ to help toughen the nipples.
Not to use _______ as this can cause drying which could lead to sore nipples.
- _______ become bigger and more protruberant
- ______ becomes darker and diameter increases
- Skin surrounding ______ turns dark
-By the fourth month, a thin, watery, high protein fluid, called ______, is formed. It is the precursor of breast milk.

A
rolling
rough towel
soap or alcohol
Montgomery glands
Areola
areolae
colostrums
384
Q

NORMAL ADAPTATIONS IN PREGNANCY
B. Local Changes
6. Ovaries – ______whatsoever since ovulation does not take place during pregnancy. Progesterone and estrogen are being produced by the ______.

A

no activity

placenta

385
Q

Signs of Pregnancy

First Trimester Presumptive (5)

A
Amenorrhea
Morning sickness
Breast changes
Urinary frequency
Enlarging uterus
386
Q

Signs of Pregnancy

First Trimester Probable (5)

A
Chadwick’s sign
Goodell’s sign
Hegar’s sign
Positive HCG
Elevation of BBT
387
Q

Signs of Pregnancy

First Trimester Positive

A

Ultrasound evidence

388
Q

Signs of Pregnancy

Second Trimester Presumptive

A

Quickening
Skin pigmentation (chloasma and linea nigra)
Striae gravidarum

389
Q

Signs of Pregnancy

Second Trimester Probable

A

Enlarged abdomen
Braxton Hicks
Ballottement

390
Q

Signs of Pregnancy

Second Trimester Positive

A

Fetal heart tones
Fetal movements felt by examiner
Fetal outline on x-ray

391
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
A. The provision of ______ is the primary factor in the improvement of maternal and infant morbidity and mortality statistics. To ensure the success of the prenatal care programs, it should be remembered that the patient’s understanding of the modalities of care is basic to cooperative action

A

prenatal care

392
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT

B. The duration of a normal pregnancy is _______ , or _____.

A

266-280 days

38-42 weeks (average is 40 weeks), or 9 calendar months or 10 lunar months

393
Q

Any baby, therefore, who is born before the 38th week of gestation is called ____ and a baby born after the 42nd week of gestation is said to be ______.

A

pre-term

post-term

394
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
C. Diagnosis of Pregnancy. Urine examination – ______________ in the urine is the basis for pregnancy tests. It is present from the ____ day through the ____ day, reaching a peak level on the ____ day.

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
40th
100th
60th

395
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
C. Diagnosis of Pregnancy.
HCG, therefore, is most correct _____ after the last menstrual period (LMP). If more than 1 hour would lapse before being tested, _____ specimen because HCG is unstable under room temperature.

A

6 weeks

refrigerate

396
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
C. Diagnosis of Pregnancy.
_______ are no longer done. ______________ are widely used at present because results are obtained faster and do not involve the sacrifice of an animal. E.g., Gravindex, Pregnex, Prognosticon.

A
Biological tests (e.g., frog tests)
Immunodiagnostic tests (antigen-antibody reaction)
397
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT

D. Components of a Prenatal Visit

A
  1. History-taking
  2. Assessment
  3. Important Estimates
  4. Health Teachings
398
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
D. Components of a Prenatal Visit
1. History-taking

A

Personal data

Obstetrical data

399
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
D. Components of a Prenatal Visit
1. History-taking
- _______ – patient’s name, age, address, civil status, (an unwed pregnancy is a risk pregnancy) and family history (With whom does she live? Are there familial diseases that could possibly affect the pregnancy?)

A

Personal data

400
Q
THE PRENATAL VISIT
D. Components of a Prenatal Visit
1. History-taking
- \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Gravida .
•	Para 
•	TPAL score
•	Past pregnancies
•	Present pregnancy
•	Medical data
A

Obstetrical data

401
Q

number of pregnancies a woman has had.

A

• Gravida

402
Q

number of viable pregnancies, regardless of number and outcome

A

• Para

403
Q

number of full term babies (T, premature (P) babies, abortion (A), living children (L)

A

• TPAL score

404
Q

Past pregnancies (4) Questions

A

o Method of delivery – normal spontaneous vaginal? Caesarion section (CS)? Indication for past CS?
o Where – At home? In the hospital?
o Risks involved – Prematurity? Toxemia?

405
Q

Present Pregnancy Question

A

o Chief concern – is there nausea and vomiting?

406
Q

Present Pregnancy Danger signals

A
o	Vaginal bleeding, no matter how slight
o	Swelling of face and fingers
o	Severe, continuous headache
o	Dimness or blurring vision
o	Flashes of light or dots before eyes
o	Pain in the abdomen
o	Persistent vomiting
o	Chills and fever
o	Sudden escape of fluids from the vagina
o	Absence of fetal heart sounds after they have been initially auscultated n the 4th or 5th month
407
Q

THE PRENATAL VISIT
D. Components of a Prenatal Visit
2. Assessment

A
Physical examination
Leopold’s maneuvers
Vital signs
Blood studies
Urine examinations
408
Q

Review of systems is indicated, including inspection of the _____ because they are common foci of infection.

A

Physical examination

teeth

409
Q

Pelvic examination (Cardinal rule: _________ first)

A

Empty the bladder

410
Q

Pelvic examination
• Internal exam (IE) to determine ______, ______, and ______
• _______ – fetus will bounce when lower uterine segment is tapped sharply (on 5th month of pregnancy)
• ___________ – cytological examination to diagnose cervical carcinoma.

A

Hegar’s, Chadwick’s and Goodell’s
Ballotement
Papanicolau (Pap smear)

411
Q
Pelvic examination
Classification of findings
o	Class 1 – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-
o	Class 2 – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	Class 3 – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	Class 4 – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	Class 5 – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

absence of a typical or abnormal cells (normal)
atypical/abnormal cytology but no evidence of malignancy
cytology suggestive of malignancy
cytology strongly suggestive of malignancy
conclusive for malignancy

412
Q

Pelvic examination
Clinical stages that reflect localization or spread of malignant cervical changes.
o Stage 1 – _________
o Stage 2 – _________
o Stage 3 – _________
o Stage 4 – _________. But since X-rays are teratogenic, the procedure can be done only _____ before Estimated Date of Confinement

A
  • CA confined to the cervix
  • CA extends beyond the cervix into the vagina but not into the pelvic wall or lower 1/3 of the vagina
  • Metastasis to the pelvic wall
  • Metastasis beyond pelvic wall into the bladder and rectum disproportion (CPD or Cephalopelvic Disproportion).
    2 weeks
413
Q

are a common and systematic way to determine the position of a fetus inside the woman’s uterus

A
  • Leopold’s maneuvers
414
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers

Purposes (3)

A
  • To determine presentation, position, and gratitude
  • Estimate fetal size
  • Locate fetal parts
415
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers
Preparatory steps
• Palpate with warm hands; cold hands cause _____________
• Use palms, not _____
• Position patient on _____ with knees flexed slightly (_____ position) so as to relax __________.
• Apply gentle but _________

A
abdominal muscles to contract
fingertips
supine 
dorsal recumbent
abdominal muscles
firm motions
416
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers
Procedure
• First maneuver: Facing head part of pregnant woman, palpate for fetal part found in the _____ to determine _____ (a hard, smooth, ballotable mass at the fundus means the fetus is in ________

A

fundus
presentation
breech presentation

417
Q

Is when the fetus is lying longitudinally and its buttocks, foot or feet are presenting instead of its head

A

Breech presentation

418
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers
Procedure
• Second maneuver: Palpate sides of the uterus to determine the _________ (best place to hear fetal heart tones) and _______

A

location of fetal back

small fetal parts

419
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers
Procedure
• Third maneuver: Grasp lower portion off abdomen just above the symphysis pubis to find out ____________.

A

degree of engagement

420
Q

Leopold’s maneuvers
Procedure
• Fourth maneuver: Facing the feet part of the patient, press fingers downward on both sides of the uterus above the inguinal ligaments to determine ___________

A

attitude (degree of flexion of fetal head)

421
Q

Temperature, pulse and respiratory rates are important especially during the initial prenatal visit. More important, however, are the weight and blood pressure as baseline data to determine any significant increases.

A

Vital signs

422
Q
  • Blood studies (3)
A
  • Blood Typing
  • Complete blood count, including Hgb and Hct, to determine anemia
  • Serological tests (VDRL and Kahn Wasserman) to diagnose for syphilis
423
Q
  • Urine examinations

Any sign of albumin in the urine should be reported immediately because it is a sign of ________

A

toxemia

424
Q
  • Urine examinations

• _________ to determine albuminuria.

A

Heat and acetic acid test

425
Q
  • Urine examinations

• _________ for glycosuria,

A

Benedict’s test

426
Q
  • Urine examinations

a sign of possible gestational diabetes.

A

glycosuria,

427
Q

Urine should be collected ________- to avoid false positive results. Should not be more than +1 sugar.

A

before breakfast

428
Q

• Determination of pyura. ________ has been found to be a common cause of premature delivery.

A

Urinary tract infection

429
Q
  1. Important Estimates
    -Age of Gestation (AOG)
    • – calculation of expected date of confinement (EDC). Count back three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) then add 7 days. Substitute number for month for easy computation. E.g., LMP is September 6
    September is the 9th month of the year – 3 = 6 (June)
    Add 7 days to 6 = 13
    EDC – June 13
A

Nagele’s Rule

430
Q
  1. Important Estimates
    -Age of Gestation (AOG)
    • – determine age of gestation by measuring from the fundus to the symphysis pubis (in cm.) then divide by 4 = AOG in months. E.G., fundic height of 16 cm. divided by 4 = 4 months AOG = 16 weeks AOG
A

McDonald’s Method

431
Q
  1. Important Estimates
    -Age of Gestation (AOG)
    • – estimate AOG by the relative position of the uterus in the abdominal cavity
A

Bartholomew’s Rule

432
Q

Bartholomew’s Rule
o By the _________, the fundus is palpable slightly above the symphysis pubis
o On the _________, the fundus is at the level of the umbilicus
o On the ________, the fundus is below the xiphoid process

A

3rd lunar month
5th lunar month
9th lunar month

433
Q
  1. Important Estimates
    -Age of Gestation (AOG)
    – determines the length of the fetus in centimeters.
A

Haase’s Rule

434
Q

Haase’s Rule
o During the ____________, square the number of the month (E.g., first lunar month: 1 x 1 = 1 cm.)
o During the _________, multiply the month by 5 (E.g., 6th lunar month: 6 x 5 = 30 cm)

A

first half of pregnancy

second half of pregnancy

435
Q
  1. Important Estimates
    -Age of Gestation (AOG)
    – estimates the weight of the fetus in grams. Formula: fundic height in ___.
    – n x k
    “k” is a constant, it is always ___
    “n” is = ___ (if fetus is engaged)
    = ___(if fetus is not yet engaged)
A
Johnson’ss Rule 
cm
155
12
11
436
Q
  1. Health Teachings

most important aspect

A

Nutrition

437
Q

Women who need special attention (5)

A
  • Pregnant teenagers
  • Extremes in weighing scale – low prepregnant weight and the obese
  • Low income women
  • Successive pregnancies
  • Vegetarians – although with high vitamin intake, are low in proteins and minerals because there are many essential amino acids that can be found only in animal sources
438
Q

Nutritional assessment is based on taking a _________

A

diet history first

439
Q

Diet history (3)

A
  • Food preferences/eating habits
  • Cultural/religious influences
  • Educational/occupational level
440
Q
  • Computation of caloric equivalents
    • Carbohydrates ___
    • Proteins ___
    • Fats ___
A

x 4
x 4
x 9

441
Q

Food sources
• ______ – meat, fish, eggs, milk, poultry, cheese, beans, mongo
• ______ – eggs, carrots, squash, all green and leafy vegetables
• ______ – fish, liver, eggs, milk, (Caution: excess Vit. D during pregnancy can lead to ______)
• _______ – green leafy vegetables, fish
• _______ – tomatoes, guava, papaya
• _______ – especially needed to prevent megaloblastic anemia, abruption placenta and prematurity because, together with iron, is needed for __________. E.g., asparagus
• _____ – food rich in protein
• _____ – milk, cheese
• _____
o Especially important during the last trimester when the pregnant woman is going to transfer her stores from herself to her fetus so that the baby has enough stores during the first three months of life when all he takes is milk (which is deficient in of this).

A
Protein-rich foods
Vitamin A 
Vitamin D, fetal cardiac problems
Vitamin E
Vitamin C
Folic acid, hemoglobin formation
Vitamin B
Calcium/phosphorus
Iron
442
Q

Iron has very ___________; only ___ of iron intake can be absorbed by the body. Thus, for optimum absorpotion, give _______.

A

low absorpotion rate
10%
Vitamin C

443
Q

Iron should be given after meals because it is irritating to the ___________.

A

gastric mucosa

444
Q

Foods rich in ___: liver and other internal organs, camote tops, kangkong, egg yolk, amplaya, amlunggay.

A

iron

445
Q
  • __________during pregnancy can result in prematurity; preeclampsia, absorption, low birth weight babies, congenital defects or even stillbirths.
A

Malnutrition

446
Q
  • _________ – causes vasoconstriction, leading to low birth weight babies and, therefore, is contraindicated during pregnancy
A

Smoking

447
Q

Drinking – in moderation is not contraindicated but when excessive can cause ______ in the newborn and ______; besides, alcohol supplies only empty _____.

A

transient respiratory depression
fetal withdrawal syndrome
calories

448
Q

Drugs – dangerous to fetus especially during the first trimester when the ______ is still incomplete and the different body organs are developing. Are teratogenic (can cause congenital defects) and, therefore contraindicated unless prescribed by the doctor.

A

placental barrier

449
Q

• – causes Amelia or phocomelia (short or no extremeties)

A

Thalidomide

450
Q

• – can cause cleft palate and even abortion

A

Steroids

451
Q

• – contained in many over-the-counter cough suppressants, cause enlargement of the fetal thyroid gland, leading to tracheal compression and dyspnea at birth

A

Iodine

452
Q

• – causes hemolysis and hyperbilirubinemia

A

Vitamin K

453
Q

• – cause bleeding disorder

A

Aspirin and Phenobarbital

454
Q

• – cause damage to the 8th cranial nerve (nerve deafness)

A

Streptomycin and quinine

455
Q

• – causes staining of tooth enamel and inhibits growth of long bones (not given also to children below 8 years for the same reasons)

A

Tetracycline

456
Q

Sexual activity

• _____ continue throughout pregnancy, but levels change

A

Sexual desires

457
Q

Sexual activity
o During the first trimester, there is a ______ in sexual desire because the woman is more preoccupied with the changes in her body
o During the second trimester, there is another ______ because the woman is afraid of hurting the fetus

A

decreased

decrease in sexual desire

458
Q

Sexual activity
• Sex in moderation is permitted during pregnancy but not during the last _____ since there is increased incidence of postpartum infection in women

A

6 weeks

459
Q

Sex is contraindicated in the following situations (4)

A

o Spotting or bleeding
o Ruptured BOW
o Incompetent cervical os
o Deeply-engaged presenting part

460
Q

Employment – as long as the job does not entail handling toxic substances, or lifting heavy objects, or excessive physical or emotional strain, there is no contraindication to working. Advise pregnant women to walk about ______ of her work day ______ or _____ to promote circulation.

A

every few hours
long periods of standing
sitting

461
Q

Traveling – no travel restrictions but postpone a trip during the ________. On long rides, _____ rest periods every ______ about or empty the bladder is advisable.

A

last trimester
15-20 minute
2-3 hours to walk

462
Q

Exercises
• Chief aim: To strengthen the ____ used in labor and delivery
• Should be done in _____
• Should be individualized: according to _____,______ ,______, _______

A

muscles
moderation
age, physical condition, customary amount of exercises (swimming or tennis not contraindicated unless done for the first time) and the stage of pregnancy)

463
Q

Recommended exercises
• – to stretch and strengthen perineal muscles; increase circulation in the perineum; make pelvic joints more pliable. When standing from squatting position, raise buttocks first before raising the head to prevent postural hypotension.

A

Squatting and Tailor Sitting

464
Q

• – maintains good posture; relieved pressure abdominal pressure and low backache; strengthens abdominal muscles following delivery

A

Pelvic rock

465
Q

• - relieves pelvic pressure and cramps in the thighs or buttocks; relieves discomfort from hemorrhoids

A

Modified knee-chest position

466
Q

• – strengthens muscles of the chest

A

Shoulder-circling

467
Q

• – said to be the best exercises

A

Walking

468
Q

• – relieves congestion and discomfort in pelvic region; tones up pelvic floor muscles

A

Kegel

469
Q

preparing the pregnant couple for childbearing

A

Prepared Childbirth/Childbirth Education

470
Q

Prepared Childbirth/Childbirth Education
• Operates basically on the _____________: pain is controlled in the spinal cord. To ease pain in one body part, the “gate” to this pain should be “closed”.

A

“Gate Control Theory” of pain

471
Q

Prepared Childbirth/Childbirth Education
• Premises
o Discomfort during labor can be minimized if the woman comes into labor informed about what is happening and prepared with_______ to use during labor
o Discomfort during labor can be minimized if the ______ is relaxed and the _____ is allowed to rise freely against the abdominal wall during contractions.

A

breathing exercises
woman’s abdomen
uterus

472
Q

• Major approaches to prepared childbirth –pregnant couples are taught about _______, ______, _____ and _______, __________, __________, ______, __________

A

anatomy, pregnancy, labor and delivery, relaxation techniques, breathing exercises, hygiene, diet comfort measures

473
Q

Fear leads to tension and tension leads to pain.
Is a psychophysiological preparation for childbirth. This technique alleviates pain during childbirth by blocking feelings of fear and tension

A

Grantly – Dick Read Method

474
Q

Based on stimulus-response conditioning. To be effective, full concentration on breathing exercises during labor should be observed (Implication: Nurse should not interrupt the couple doing breathing exercises.)

A

Lamaze or Psychoprohylactic method

475
Q

Given 0.5 ml IM (deltoid region of the upper arm) to all pregnant women anytime during pregnancy.

A

Tetanus immunization

476
Q

Tetanus immunization
It shall be given in two doses at least _________, with the second dose at least _______ before delivery. _______ shall be given during succeeding pregnancies regardless of the interval. __________ will confer lifelong immunity.
Clinic appointments
• First _____ month – every month
• On ___ and _____month – every other week or twice a month
• On _____ month – every week until labor pains set in

A
4 weeks apart
3 weeks 
 Booster doses 
Three booster doses
7 lunar
8th 9th lunar 
10th lunar
477
Q
LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
A.	Importance:  From an obstetrical point of view the \_\_\_\_\_ is the most important part of the fetus because it is the:
•	largest part of the body
•	most frequent presenting part
•	least compressible of all parts
A

fetal skull

478
Q
LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
B.	Cranial bones -  the first 3 are not important part of the fetus because it is the:
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_	
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Temporal
Frontal
Occipital
Parietal
479
Q

LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
C. Membrane space – _____ are important because they allow the bones to move and overlap, changing the shape of the fetal head in order to fit through the birth canal, a process called ______.

A

suture lines

molding

480
Q

LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
C. Membrane space
• ______ – the membranous interspace which joins the parietal bones

A

Sagittal suture line

481
Q

LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
C. Membrane space
• ______– the membranous interspace which joins the frontal bone and the parietal bones

A

Coronal suture line

482
Q

LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
C. Membrane space
• ______ – the membranous interspace which joins the occipital and the parietals.

A

Lambdoid suture line

483
Q

LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
D. _______ – membrance – covered spaces at the junction of the main suture lines

A

Fontanels

484
Q

D. Fontanel

• ______– the larger, diamond-shaped fontanel which closes beween 12-18 months in an infant

A

Anterior fontanel

485
Q

D. Fontanel

• ________ – the smaller, triangular shaped fontanel which closes between 2-3 months in the infant

A

Posterior fontanel

486
Q

LABOR AND DELIVERY
THE FETAL SKULL
D. Measurements – the shape of the fetal skull causes it to be wider in its _______than in its ________

A

anteroposterior (AP) diameter

transverse diameter

487
Q

• Transverse diameters of the fetal skull
o Biparietal = ______
o Bitemporal = ____.
o Bimastoid = _____.

A

9.25 cm.
8 cm
7 cm

488
Q

From below the occiput to the anterior fontanel

A

Suboccipitobregmatic (A)

489
Q
•	Anteroposterior diameters 
o	Suboccipitobregmatic (A) – from below the occiput to the anterior fontanel = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

9.5 cm. (the narrowest AP diameter)

490
Q

From the occiput to the mid-frontal bone .

A

Occipitofrontal (B)

491
Q
•	Anteroposterior diameters 
o	Occipitofrontal (B) – from the occiput to the mid-frontal bone = \_\_\_\_\_.
A

12 cm

492
Q

From the occiput to the chin

A

Occipitomental © -

493
Q

• Anteroposterior diameters

o Occipitomental © - from the occiput to the chin = _________

A

13.5 cm (the widest AP diameter)

494
Q

Which one of these diameters is presented at the birth canal depends on the __________.

A

degree of flexion (known as attitude) the fetal head assumes prior to delivery

495
Q

In full flexion (______________), the smallest _____________ is the one presented at the birth canal.

A
very good attitude when the chin is flexed on the chest
suboccipitobregmatic diameter (A)
496
Q

If in poor flexion, the widest ________ will be the one presented and will give mother and the baby more problems.

A

occipitomental diameter (D)

497
Q

THEORIES OF LABOR ONSET

___________ any hallow body organ when stretched to capacity will necessarily contract and empty.

A

A. Uterine Stretch Theory

498
Q

THEORIES OF LABOR ONSET
__________ – labor, being considered a stressful event, stimulates the ________to produce oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland.

A

B. Oxytocin theory

hypophysis

499
Q

Causes contraction of the smooth muscles of the body, e.g., uterine muscles.

A

Oxytocin

500
Q

THEORIES OF LABOR ONSET
C. _________ – ______, being the hormone designed to promote pregnancy, is believed to inhibit uterine motility. Thus, if its amount decreases, labor pains occur.

A

Progesterone Deprivation theory

progesterone

501
Q

THEORIES OF LABOR ONSET
D. _________ – initiation of labor is said to result from the release of arachidonic acid produced by steroid action on lipid precursors.

A

Prostaglandin theory

502
Q

_______ is said to increase prostaglandin synthesis which, in turn, causes uterine contractions.

A

Arachidonic acid

503
Q

THEORIES OF LABOR ONSET

E. ________ – because of the decrease in blood supply, the uterus contracts.

A

Theory of Aging Placenta

504
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR

______ the settling of the fetal head into the pelvic brim.

A

Lightening

505
Q

In lightening In primis, it occurs _____ before EDC; in multis, _____ labor onset.

A

2 weeks

on or before

506
Q

Lightening should not be confused with ______ which occurs when the presenting part had descended into the pelvic inlet.

A

engagement

507
Q
Lightening results in:
•	increase in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	relief of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	shooting pains down the legs because of pressure on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	increase in the amount of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

urinary frequency
abdominal tightness and diaphragmatic pressure
sciatic nerve
vaginal discharges

508
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR
B. Increased activity level – due to increased _______ secreted to prepare the body for the coming “work” ahead. Advise the preganant woman no to use this increased energy for doing household chores.

A

epinephrine

509
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR
C. Loss of weight – about ______. 1 to 2 days before labor onset; probably due to decrease in ______ leading to decrease in fluid retention.

A

2-3 lbs

progesterone production

510
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR

D. __________ – painless, irregular practice contractions.

A

Braxton Hicks contractions

511
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR

E. ________ – from Goodell’s sign, the cervix becomes “butter-soft”

A

Ripening of the cervix

512
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR
F. _________– it is important to remember that one membranes (BOW) have ruptures:
• Labor is inevitable. It will occur within _______.
• The integrity of the uterus has been destroyed. _______, therefore, can easily set in.
• Umbilical cord compression and/or cord ______ can occur (especially in breech presentation).

A

Rupture of the membranes
24 hours
Infection
prolapsed

513
Q

That is why once membranes have rupture:
o __________ should be observed in all procedures
o Doctors do less _______ (e.g. IE)
o ______ is no longer ordered
o Temperature should be taken regularly so that _____ a sign of infection, can be detected.

A

Aseptic techniques
obstetric manipulations
Enema
fever,

514
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR

G. _______ – shortening and thinning of the cervical canal as distinct from the uterus. It is expressed in percentage.

A

Effacement

515
Q

Nursing action depends on the specific situation: Umbilical cord compression and/or cord prolapsed can occur (especially in breech presentation).
o A woman in labor seeking admission to the hospital and saying that her BOW has rupture should be _______immediately, and the ______ taken consequently
o If a woman in Labor Room says that her membranes have rupture, the initial nursing action is to take the _________.
o she feels a_______ coming out of the vagina (cord prolapse)

A

put to bed
fetal heart tones
fetal heart tones

516
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR
H. _______ – enlargement of the external cervical os up to 10 cm primarily as a result of ______ and secondarily as a result of________and the_____.

A

Dilatation
uterine contractions
pressure of the presenting part , BOW

517
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR
I. Uterine Changes
• The uterus is gradually differentiated into two distinct portions
o ________ – becomes thick and active to expel out fetus
o _________ – become thin-walled, supple and passive so that fetus can be pushed out easily

A

Upper uterine segment

Lower uterine segment

518
Q

PRELIMINARY/PRODROMAL SIGNS OF LABOR
I. Uterine Changes
• _________ is formed at the boundary of the upper and lower uterine segments.

A

Physiological retraction ring

519
Q

In difficult labor when the fetus is larger than the birth canal, the________ become tense during dilatation and expulsion, causing an abdominal indentation called _________, a danger sign of labor signifying impending rupture of the uterus if the obstruction is not relieved.

A

round ligaments of the uterus

Bandl’s pathological retraction ring

520
Q

Remain irregular

A

FALSE LABOR PAINS

521
Q

Accompanied by cervical effacement and dilatation (the most important difference)

A

TRUE LABOR PAINS

522
Q

May be slightly irregular at first but become regular and predictable in a matter of hours.

A

TRUE LABOR PAINS

523
Q

No increase in duration, frequency and intensity

A

FALSE LABOR PAINS

524
Q

Absent cervical changes

A

FALSE LABOR PAINS

525
Q

First felt in the lower back and sweep around to the abdomen in a girdle-like fashion.

A

TRUE LABOR PAINS

526
Q

Increase in duration, frequency and intensity.

A

TRUE LABOR PAINS

527
Q

Continue no matter what the woman;s level of activity is

A

TRUE LABOR PAINS

528
Q

Often disappears if the women ambulates

A

FALSE LABOR PAINS

529
Q

Generally confined to the abdomen

A

FALSE LABOR PAINS

530
Q

Nursing Care
- Hospital admission – provide _____ and _______ from the very start
• ________ – name, age, address, civil status
• ________ – determine EDC; obstetrical score (gravida, para, TPAL); amount and character of show; and whether or not membranes have ruptured

A

privacy, reassurance
Personal data
Obstetrical data

531
Q

Nursing Care
- General physical examination, internal exam and Leopold’s maneuvers are done to determine:
• ______ and ______
• ______ – relationship of the fetal presenting part to the level of the ischial spine
• ___________ – relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of the fetus; also known as _____. Presenting part if the fetal part which enters the pelvis first and covers the _______

A
Effacement and dilatation
Station 
Presentation
lie
internal cervical os
532
Q

o ______ – at the level of the ischial spines; synonymous to engagement
o ______ – presenting part above the level of the ischial spines
o ______ – presenting part below the level of the ischial spines
o ______ – synonymous to crowning (encircling of the largest diameter of the fetal head by the vulvar ring)

A

Station 0
Station -1
Station +1
Station +3 or +4

533
Q
VERTICAL
A. \_\_\_\_\_\_ – head is the presenting part
•	\_\_\_\_\_ – head sharply flexed, making the parietal bones the presenting parts
•	If in poor flexion
o	\_\_\_\_
o	\_\_\_\_
o	\_\_\_\_
A
Cephalic
Vertex
Face
Brow
Chin
534
Q

VERTICAL
B. ______ – buttocks are the presenting parts
• _____ – thighs flexed on the abdomen and legs are on the thighs
• _____ – thighs are flexed and legs are extended, resting on the anterior surface of the body

A

Breech
Complete
Frank

535
Q

VERTICAL
C. Footling
• ____ – one leg unflexed and extended; one foot presenting
• ____ – legs unflexed and extended; feet are presenting

A

Single

Double

536
Q

HORIZONTAL = Transverse lie = Shoulder presentation

- In vertex presentation, Fetal hearts sound are usually located in either the ___________________;

A

left or right lower quadrant (LLQ or RLQ)

537
Q

HORIZONTAL = Transverse lie = Shoulder presentation

in breech presentation, ___________, either _____________

A

at or above the level of the umbilicus

left or right upper quadrant (LUQ or RUQ)

538
Q
HORIZONTAL = Transverse lie = Shoulder presentation
- Hazards of breech delivery
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Cord compression
Abruption placenta
Erb – Duchenne paralysis

539
Q

is a paralysis of the arm caused by injury to the upper trunk C5–C6 nerves

A

Erb’s palsy or Erb–Duchenne palsy

540
Q

is when, after vaginal delivery of the head, the baby’s anterior shoulder gets caught above the mother’s pubic bone.

A

Shoulder dystocia

541
Q
  • Horizontal lie is very rare (1%) and maybe due to a ______ because of multiparity, pelvic contraction or placenta previa
A

relaxed abdominal wall

542
Q

Placenta previa (pluh-SEN-tuh PREH-vee-uh) occurs when a baby’s placenta partially or totally covers the mother’s cervix — the outlet for the uterus.

A

placenta previa

543
Q

________ – relationship of the fetal presenting part to a specific quadrant in the mother’s pelvis

A

Position

544
Q
The pelvis is divided into four quadrants
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Right anterior
Left anterior
Right posterior
Left posterior

545
Q

o _______ result in more backaches because of pressure of the fetal presenting part on the maternal sacrum

A

Posterior positions

546
Q
Points of direction in the fetus
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ – in vertex presentations
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ – in face presentations
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ – in breech presentations
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – in horizontal presentations
A

Occiput
Chin (mentum)
Sacrum
Scapula (acromio)

547
Q

Possible fetal positions
• Vertex
o ____ – ______________ (most common and favorable position at birth)

A

LOA - left occipitoanterior

548
Q
Possible fetal positions
•	Vertex
o	LOP – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	LOT – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	ROA – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	ROP – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	ROT – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
left occipitoposterior
left occipitotransverse
right occipitoanterior
right occipitoposterior
right occipitotransverse
549
Q
•	Breech
o	LSA – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o      LSP – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	LST – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RSA – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RSP – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RST – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
left sacroanterior
left sacroposterior
left sacrotransverse
right sacroanterior
right sacroposterior
right sacrotransverse
550
Q
•	Face
o	LMA – \_\_\_\_\_\_
o	LMP – \_\_\_\_\_\_
o	LMT – \_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RMA – \_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RMP – \_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RMT – \_\_\_\_\_\_
A
left mentoanterior
left mentoposterior
left mentotransverse
right mentoanterior
right mentoposterior
right mentotransverse
551
Q
•	Shoulder
o	LADA – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	LADP – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RADA – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
o	RADP – \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

left acromiodorsoanterior
left acromiodorsoposterior
right acromiodorsoanterior
right acromiodorsoposterior

552
Q

Monitoring and evaluating important aspects

- Uterine contractions –___________ over the fundus.

A

fingers should be spread lightly

553
Q

Monitoring and evaluating important aspects
• ______ – from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction (A to B)
• ______ – from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction (B to C)
Interval early in labor _______
Interval late in labor _______
• ______ – from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction (A to C).
Observe _______ to have a good picture of the frequency of contractions
• ______ – the strength of contraction; maybe mild, moderate or strong.

A
Duration
Interval
– 40 – 45 minute
– 2 – 3 minutes
Frequency
3 – 4 contractions
Intensity
554
Q

Intensity is measured by the __________ at the acme of the contraction. When estimating intensity, check fundus at the _________ to determine whether it relaxes.

A

consistency of the fundus

end of contraction

555
Q

Blood Pressure – should not be taken during a _______ as it tends to increase. Because no blood supply goes to the ______ during a contraction, all of the blood is in the periphery that is why there is increased BP during uterine contractions.
• BP readings should be taken at least ________ during active labor
• When a woman in labor complains of a _______, the first nursing action is to take BP. If it is normal, it is only stress headache; if the BP is increased, refer immediately to the doctor (it could be a sign of _____)

A
contraction
placenta 
every half hour
headache
toxemia
556
Q

_______ – should not be mistaken for uterine soufflé (synchronizes with maternal pulse rate)
• Normally _______ per minute
• Should not be taken during a uterine contraction because it tends to _______. Compression of the fetal head when the uterus contracts stimulates the _______ which, in turn, causes bradycardia
• Should be taken _______ during the latent phase of labor, _______ during the active phase and _______ during the transition period
• For any abnormality in FHR, the initial nursing action is to ______________

A
Fetal heart rate (FHR) 
120 to 160
decrease
vagal reflex 
every hour
every half hour
every 15 minutes
change the mother’s position
557
Q

• Signs of fetal distress
Bradycardia __________or tachycardia ___________
_______ – stained amniotic fluid in non – breech presentation
_______ – hyperactivity of the fetus as it struggles for more oxygen

A

(FHR less than 100/minute)
(FHR more than 180/minute)
Meconium
Fetal thrashing

558
Q

Emotional support is provided for the woman in labor by keeping her constantly ___________

A

informed of the progress labor

559
Q

Solid or liquid foods are to be avoided because _________ during labor,

A

digestion is delayed

560
Q

A ________ interferes with proper bearing down, May ____ and cause _______

A

full stomach
vomit
aspiration

561
Q

_______ – not a routine procedure
• Purposes
o A full bowel hinders the progress of labor
o Expulsion of feces during second stage of labor predisposes mother and baby to ______
o Full bowel predisposes to ______

A

Enema
infection
postpartum discomfort

562
Q

Effectiveness of enema in labor can be determined by evaluating change in _______ and the _______

A

uterine tone

amount of show

563
Q

Procedure of enema administration
o Enema solution may either be ______ or _______ (contraindicated in patients with toxemia because of its _______)
o Optimum temperature of the solution ___________
o Patient on _______
o When there is resistance while inserting rectal catheter, withdraw the tube slightly while letting a small amount of solution enter
o Clamp rectal tube during a _______
o Important nursing action: Check _____ after enema administration to determine fetal distress

A
soap suds
Fleet enema
sodium content
105°F to 115°F (40.5 °C – 46.1°C)
side – lying position
FHR
564
Q
•	Contraindications to enema in labor
o	Vaginal \_\_\_\_\_
o	\_\_\_\_\_\_ labor
o	Abnormal \_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_
o	Ruptured 
o	\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Bleeding
Premature
fetal presentation or position
membranes
Crowning
565
Q

Encourage the mother to void every_______ by offering the bedpan because
• A _______ retards fetal descent
• ________ can lead to urinary tract infection
• A _______ can be traumatized during delivery

A

2 – 3 hours
full bladder
Urinary stasis
full bladder

566
Q

Perineal prep – done aseptically. Use ______, always from front to back

A

“No. 7” method

567
Q

____________– not a routine procedure; maybe done to provide a clean area for delivery.
Muscles at the symphysis pubis should be kept ____ and razor moved along the ______ of hair growth

A

Perineal shave
taut
direction

568
Q
Perineal prep
Encourage \_\_\_\_\_ because it:
•	Favors \_\_\_\_\_\_ of the fetal head
•	Promotes \_\_\_\_\_ between contractions
•	Prevents continual pressure of the gravid uterus on the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (the blood vessel which brings unoxygenated blood back to the heart);
A

Sim’s position
anterior rotation
relaxation
inferior vena cava

569
Q

Pressure of the gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava results in ______, also called _________ .

A

Supine Hypotensive Syndrome

Vena Cava Syndrome

570
Q

Is due to the reduced venous return resulting in decreased _______ and therefore, a fall in arterial BP.

A

Hypotension

cardiac output

571
Q

Woman in labor should not be allowed to push or bear down unnecessarily during contractions of the_____ because
• It leads to unnecessary exhaustion
• Repeated strong pounding of the fetus against the pelvic floor will lead to _________, thus interfering with dilatation and prolonging length of labor.

A

first stage

cervical edema

572
Q

__________ – advised for contractions during the first stage in order to reduce tension and prevent hyperventilation

A

Abdominal breathing

573
Q

Administer analgesics as ordered. The dosage is based on the _______, ________ and _________.

A

patient’s weight
status of labor
age of gestation

574
Q

Administer analgesics as ordered

________ are the most commonly used, specifically Demerol.

A

Narcotics

575
Q

Narcotics specifically Demerol.
o Pharmacologic effect: depresses the sensory portion of the ______. It is not only a potent analgesic, it is also a sedative and an antispasmodic.
o It is not given early in labor because it can ______, _______ , but cannot also be given if delivery is only one hour away because it causes ________ in the newborn (that is why it can be given only if cervical dilatation is _____.)
o Given _____., depending on body weight
o Takes effect in _____ – patient experiences a sense of well – being and euphoria

A
cerebral cortex
retard, progress (is an antispasmodic)
respiratory depression
6 – 8 cm
25 – 100 mg
20 minutes
576
Q

o Narcotic antagonist (e.g. ____, ___) are given to counteract any toxic effects of Demerol

A

Narcan

Nalline

577
Q

Assist in administration of ______ – preferred over any other form of anesthesia because it does not enter maternal circulation and so does not affect the fetus. Patient is completely awake and aware of what is happening. Does not depress _____, thus ______ is achieved.

A

regional anesthesia
uterine tone
optimal uterine contraction

578
Q

______ is the anesthetic of choice

A

Xylocaine

579
Q

• Patient on NPO with IV to prevent dehydration, exhaustion and aspiration and because ___ aids in proper functioning of the fetus

A

glucose

580
Q

• Types of Anesthesia
o (purplish discoloration of the skin due to blood in _______) area or _____ in the perineum may be an aftermath. No special treatment is needed: ice bag applied to the area on the first day may reduce the swelling

A

subcutaneous tissues

hematoma

581
Q

______ are generally needed in delivery of patient under anesthesia because of loss of coordination in _______ pushing.

A

Forceps

second – stage

582
Q

• Postspinal headaches maybe due to leakage of _______ or injection of ___ at time of needle insertion. Management: Flat on bed for _______ and increase ________

A

anesthetic into the CSF
air
12 hours
fluid intake

583
Q

Assist in administration of regional anesthesia
• Common side effects
o Hypotension – because _______ is vasodilator. Management – turn to side; prompt elevation of ____; administration of vasopressor and oxygen, as ordered.
o _____
o Decreased ________

A

Xylocaine
legs
Fetal bradycardia
maternal respirations

584
Q

A sure sign that the baby is about to be born is the bulging of the ______.

A

perineum

585
Q

a woman who is pregnant for the first time.

A

primigravidas

586
Q

Primigravidas are transported from the Labor Room to the Delivery Room when the ______ or when there is _______.

A

cervix is fully dilated

bulging of the perineum

587
Q

Mutiparas, on the other hand, are transported when cervical dilataton is ______

A

7 – 8 cm.

588
Q

a woman who has had two or more pregnancies resulting in viable offspring; called also pluripara

A

Mutiparas

589
Q

when the mood of the woman suddenly changes and the nature of contractions intensify

A

Transition Period

590
Q

Transition Period
Characteristics
• If membranes are still intact, this period is marked by a sudden gush of _____ as fetus is pushed into the birth canal. If spontaneous rupture does not occur, _____ (snipping of BOW with a sterile pointed instrument, e.g., Kelly or Allis forceps or amniohook to allow amniotic fluid to drain) is done to prevent fetus from ________ as it makes its different fetal position changes.

A

amniotic fluid
amniotomy
aspirating the amniotic fluid

591
Q

Amniotomy, however, can not be done if station is still _____, as this can lead to cord compression

A

“minus”

592
Q

a blood-stained or sometimes bloody discharge from the uterus, often mixed with plenty of mucus. It originates in the loosening and expulsion of the thick mucus plug that blocks the cervical canal throughout normal pregnancy.

A

show

593
Q

Transition Period
Characteristics
• ______ becomes more prominent.
• There is an _______ , a sign of impending second stage of labor. _______ and ____________ are seen.
• Nausea and vomiting is a reflex reaction due to _________ and ________.
• In primis, baby is delivered with _________; in multis, after _______.

A
Show 
uncontrollable urge to push with contractions
Profuse perspiration
distention of neck veins
decreased gastric motility 
absorption
20 contractions (40 minutes)
10 contractions (20 minutes)
594
Q
Nursing actions are primarily \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Sacral pressure (applying pressure with the \_\_\_\_\_ on the sacrum) relieves discomfort from contractions
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_: push with contractions
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ during contractions
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ support
A
comfort measures
heel of the hand
Proper bearing down techniques
Controlled chest (costal) breathing
Emotional
595
Q

– begins with complete dilatation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the baby.

A

Second Stage (Stage of expulsion)

596
Q
Second Stage (Stage of expulsion)
Powers/forces:\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

involuntary uterine contractions

contractions of the diaphragmatic and abdominal muscles

597
Q

Mechanisms of labor/Fetal Position Changes (D FIRE ERE)
• ______ – may be preceded by engagement.
• ______- as descent occurs, pressure from the pelvic floor causes the chin to bend forward onto the chest.
• ______ – from AP to transverse, the AP to AP
• ______ – as head comes out, the back of the neck stops beneath the pubic arch. The head extends and the forehead, nose, mouth and chin upper.
• ______ (also called ______)– anterior shoulder rotates externally to the AP position.
• _______ – delivery of the rest of the body.

A
Descent
Flexion
Internal Rotation
Extension
External Rotation , (restitution)
Expulsion
598
Q

Nursing Care
• When positioning legs on lithotomy, put them up at the same time to prevent injury to the ________
• As soon as the fetal head crowns, instruct mother ____, but to ____ (rapid and shallow breathing to prevent rapid expulsion of the baby).

A

not to push
pant
uterine ligaments

599
Q

Nursing Care
If panting is deep and rapid, called ____________, the patient will experience lightheadedness and tingling sensation of the fingers leading to __________ because of respiratory alkalosis. Management: let the patient breathe into a brown paper bag to recover ___________; a cupped hand over the mouth and nose will serve the same purpose.

A

hyperventilation
carpopedal spasms
lost carbon dioxide

600
Q

Nursing Care
• Assist in ______ (incision made in the perineum primarily to prevent lacerations, Prevent prolonged severe stretching of muscles supporting the ___________, Reduce duration of _______ when there is hypertension or fetal distress, Enlarge outlet, as in ________ or __________

A

episiotomy
bladder or rectum
second stage
breech presentation or forceps delivery

601
Q

• Types of episiotomy
o ______ – from middle portion of the lower vaginal border directed towards the anus
o _______ – begun in the midline but directed laterally away from the anus. Often done because it prevents ________ should it occur despite episiotomy.

A

Median

Mediolateral, 4th degree laceration

602
Q

Nursing Care
• ______ is used in episiotomy, i.e., no anesthetic is injected because pressure of fetal presenting part against the perineum is so intense that ________ are momentarily deadened

A

Natural Anesthesia

nerve endings for pain

603
Q

Nursing Care
• Apply the _____________
o Cover the anus with sterile towel and exert upward and forward pressure on the _____, while exerting gentle pressure with _____ on the head to control emerging head. This will not only support the perineum, thus preventing lacerations, but will also favor flexion so that the _____________ of the fetal head is presented.
o Ease the head out and immediately wipe the ____ and ____ of secretions to establish a patent airway (remember: the first and most important principle in the care of the newborn is _________). The head should be delivered in _________.
o Insert 2 fingers into the vagina so as to feel for the presence of a ______ around the neck (_____). If so, but loose, slip it down the shoulders or up over the head; but if tight, ______, an inch apart, and then cut it in between.
o As the head rotates, deliver the ________ by exerting a gentle

A
Modified Ritgen’s Maneuver
fetal chin
two fingers
smallest suboccipitobregmatic diameter
nose 
mouth
establish and maintain a patent airway
between contractions
cord looped, nuchal cord
clamp the cord twice
anterior shoulder
604
Q

Nursing Care
• Immediately after delivery, the newborn should be held below the level of the mother’s vulva for a few minutes to _____________________
• The infant is held with is head in a dependent position (head lower thatn the rest of the body) to allow for ________. Remember: never _______ unless you have drained him out of his secretions.
• Wrap the baby in a sterile towel to keep him warm. Remember: Chilling increase the ________

A

encourage flow of blood from the placenta to the baby
drainage of secretions
stimulate a baby to cry
body’s need for oxygen

605
Q

Nursing Care
• Put the baby on the mother’s abdomen. The weight of the baby will help _________
• Cutting the cord is postponed until the _________ because it is believe that _________ is flowing from the placenta to the baby at this time. After cord pulsations have stopped, clamp it twice, an inch apart and then cut in between.
• Show the baby to the mother, inform her of the sex and time of delivery then give the baby to the circulating nurse.

A

contract the uterus.
pulsations have stopped
50 – 100 ml. of blood

606
Q

– begins with the delivery of the baby and ends with delivery of placenta.

A

Third Stage (Placental Stage)

607
Q

Signs of placental separation
• Uterus becoming _____ and _____ again, rising high to the ________ (Calkin’s sign) – the earliest sign of placental separation
• Sudden gush of ______ from the vagina
• ________ of the cord

A

round, firm
level of the umbilicus
blood
Lengthening

608
Q

The earliest sign of placental separation

A

(Calkin’s sign)

609
Q

Types of placental delivery
• _______– if placenta separates first at its center and last at its edges, it tends to fold on itself like an umbrella and presents the _______ which is shiny (“Shiny” for Schultz); ____ of placentas separate in this manner.
• ______– if placenta separates first at its edges, it slides along the uterine surface and presents with the_______ which is raw, red, beefy, and irregular and “dirty” (“Dirty” for Duncan). Only about _____ of placentas separate this way.

A

Schultz , fetal surface, 80%

Duncan , maternal surface, 20%

610
Q

Nursing Care
• Do not hurry the expulsion of the placenta by _______ or doing _______ as this can cause ______. Just watch for the signs of placental separation.

A

forcefully pulling out the cord
vigorous fundal push
uterine inversion

611
Q

Nursing Care
• Tract the ____ slowly, winding it around the clamp until the placenta spontaneously comes out, slowly rotating it so that no membranes are left inside the uterus, a method called _______.
• Take note of the time of placental delivery. It should be delivered within _______ after the delivery of the baby. Otherwise, refer immediately to the doctor as this can cause _______ in the mother.
• Inspect for _______; any placental fragment retained can also cause severe bleeding and possible death.
• Palpate the uterus to determine _________. If relaxed boggy or non - contracted, first nursing action is to _______and _______. An ice cap over the abdomen will also help contract the uterus since cold causes _______.
• Inject ________ to maintain uterine contractions, thus prevent hemorrhage. Note: oxytocins are not given before ________
• Inspect the ________ for lacerations. Any time the uterus is ____ following placental delivery, yet bright red vaginal bleeding is gushing forth from the vaginal opening, suspect lacerations (tend to heal more slowly because of ragged edges)

A
cord
Brandt – Andrews maneuver
20 minutes 
severe bleeding
completeness of cotyledons
degree of contraction
massage gently and properly
vasoconstriction
oxytocin (Methergin = 0.2 mg./ml. or Syntocinon = 10U/ml) IM
placental delivery
perineum
firm
612
Q

Categories of lacerations
o ______ – involves the vaginal mucous membranes and perineal skin
o ______ – involves not only the muscles, vaginal mucous membranes and skin, but also the muscles.
o ______ – involves not only the vaginal mucous membranes and skin, but also the external sphincter of the rectum
o _______ – involves not only the external sphincter of the rectum, the muscles, vaginal mucous membranes and skin, but also the m mucous membranes of the rectum.

A

First degree
Second degree
Third degree
Fourth degree

613
Q

Assist the doctor in doing _______ (repair of episiotomy or lacerations).

A

episiorrhaphy

614
Q

In vaginal episiorrhaphy, packing is done to maintain______ , thus prevent further bleeding. Note: Vaginal packs have to be removed after _______
• Make mother comfortable by perineal care and applying clean sanitary napkin snugly to prevent its moving forward from the anus to the vaginal opening. Soiled napkins should be removed from ______
• Position the newly – delivered mother flat on bed without pillows to prevent dizziness due to _______.
• The newly – delivered mother may suddenly complain of chills due to ____________, _____ or ________ in the delivery room. Management: provide additional blankets to keep her warm.
• May give _______; e.g., milk, coffee or tea
• Allow patient to ____ in order to regain lost of energy.

A
pressure on the suture line
24 – 48 hours
front to back. 
decrease in intraabdominal pressure
decreased blood pressure, fatique or cold temperature
initial nourishment
sleep
615
Q

– first 1 – 2 hours after delivery which is said to be the most critical stage for the mother because of unstable vital signs

A

Fourth Stage

616
Q

Fourth Stage
Assessment
• Fundus – should be checked every _____ for 1 hour then every ______ for the next 4 hours. Fundus should be _____, in ____, and during the first 12 hours postpartum, is a _______.
First nursing action for a non- contracted uterus: _____.
• Lochia – should be moderate in amount. Immediately after delivery, a perineal pad can be completely saturated after _____. If saturated in 15 minutes or earlier, may mean ____
• Bladder – a ______ is evidenced by a fundus which is to the right of the midline and dark – red bleeding with some clots. Will prevent adequate uterine contraction.
• Perineum – is normally _____, ______and ______. It should be clean, with intact sutures.
• Blood pressure and pulse rate may be slightly increased from excitement and effort of delivery, but normalize within ______

A
15 minutes 
30 minutes
firm in the midline
little above the umbilicus
massage
30 minutes
hemorrhage
 full bladder
tender, discolored and edematous
one hour
617
Q

Is the vaginal discharge after giving birth, containing blood, mucus, and uterine tissue.

A

lochia

618
Q

given within the first hours postpartum to prevent breast milk production in mothers who will not (or cannot) breastfeed. E.g., _______, ________, _______, ______.

A

Lactation – suppressing agents – estrogen – androgen preparations
diethylstilbestrol, TACE, Parlodel and deladumone

619
Q

diethylstilbestrol, TACE, Parlodel and deladumone. These drugs tend to increase ______ and _______

A

uterine bleeding, retard menstrual return

620
Q

– mother and baby are together while in the hospital. The concept of a family, therefore, is felt from the very beginning because parents have the baby with them, thus providing opportunities for developing a positive relationship between parents and newborn (maternal – infant bonding). Eye – to –eye contact is immediately established, releasing the _______

A

Rooming – in concept

maternal caretaking responses.

621
Q

DEFINITION OF TERMS

A. – refers to the six – week period after delivery of the baby

A

Puerperium/Postpartum

622
Q

B. - return of the reproductive organs to their prepregnant state

A

Involution

623
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes

The 30% - 50% increase in _________ during pregnancy will be reabsorbed into the general circulation with _______ after placental delivery.

A

total cardiac volume

5 – 10 minutes

624
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
Implication: the ________ is crucial to gravidocardiacs because the weak heart may not be able to handle such workload.

While blood cell (WBC) count increases to _______________. implication: the WBC count, therefore, ___________ sign of postpartum infection

A

first 5 – 10 minutes after placental delivery
20,000 – 30,000/mm3
cannot be used as a indicationor

625
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
There is extensive activation of the clothing factors, which encourages ____________. This is the reason why:

Ambulation is done ______€ after normal vaginal delivery. When ambulating the newly – delivered patient for the first time, the nurse _______

A

thromboembolization
early – 4 – 8 hours
should hold on to the patient’s arm.

626
Q
PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
AMBULATE
Recommended exercises

____________ on postpartum day one (PPD1).

____________ on PPD2 to tighten and firm up abdominal muscles
____________ when perineum has healed, to strengthen abdominal and gluteal muscles.

Massage is ________

All blood values are back to prenatal levels by the ___________ postpartum

A
Kegel and abdominal breathing
Chin – to – chest –
Knee – to – abdomen
contraindicated
3rd or 4th week
627
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
2. Genital Changes
Uterivolution iine assessed by measuring the ____________

A

fundus by fingerbreadth (=1 cm.).

628
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes

Uterine involution is assessed by measuring the fundus by _________ .

A

fingerbreadth (=1 cm.)

629
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
On PPD1, fundus is ____________; on PPD2, ____ fingerbreaths below and so forth until on PPD10, it can no longer be palpated because it is already behind the _________.

A

1 finger breadth below the umbilicus
2
symphysis pubis

630
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
________ is a uterus larger than normal and
vaginal bleeding with clots since blood cltos are good media for bacteria, it is , therefore, a sign of ___________.

A

Subinvoluted uterus

puerperal sepsis

631
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
To encourage the return of the uterus to its usual anteflexed position, ________ are advised.

__________ – strong uterine contractions felt more particularly by multis, those who delivered large babies or twins and those who breastfeed. It is normal and rarely lasts ___________.

A

prone and knee chest positions
Afterpains/afterbirth pains
for more than 3 days

632
Q
PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
Management Afterpains/afterbirth pains 
-Never apply \_\_\_\_ on the abdomen
-Give analgesics as ordered
A

heat

633
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
– uterine discharge consisting of blood,deciduas, WBC, mucus and some bacteria.

A

Lochia

634
Q

Pattern Lochia

__________ – first 3 days postpartum; red and moderate in amount

_______ – net 4 – 9 days; pink or brownish and decreased in amount

______ – from 10th day up to 3 – 6 weeks postpartum; colorless and minimal in amount

A

Rubra
Serosa
Alba

635
Q

Characteristics Lochia

Pattern __________

It should approximate menstrual flow. However, it increases with _________ and decreases with _________.

It should ________. It has the same ________ as menstrual blood. If fol smelling, may mean either ________
It should not contain ______

It should _______, regardless of method of delivery. Lochia has the ____________ whether CS or normal vaginal delivery

A
should not reverse
activity
breastfeeding
 not have any offensive odor
fleshy odor
poor hygiene or infection
large clots
never be absent
same pattern and amount,
636
Q

Pain in perineal region may be relieved by:

_________ – minimizes strain on the suture line

Perineal ___________________ twice a day – vasodilatation increases blood supply and, therefore, promotes healing

Application of _______________ or ________ of mild oral analgesics as ordered

A

Sim’s Position
heat lamp or warm Sitz baths
topical analgesics or administration of mild oral analgesics

637
Q

Sexual activity – maybe resumed by the ________________ if bleeding has stopped and episiorrhappy has healed. Decreased physiologic reactions to sexual stimulation are expected for the first 3 months postpartum because of __________ and ___________.

A

3rd or 4th week postpartum

hormonal changes, emotio factors

638
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
• Menstruation – if not breastfeeding, return of menstrual flow is expected within ______ after delivery. If breastfeeding, menstrual return is expected in _______; in some women, no menstruation occurs during the ________.

A

8 weeks
3-4 months
entire lactation period

639
Q

(important: _______ during lactation is no guarantee that the woman will not become pregnant. She may be ovulating the absence of menstruation may her body’s way of _______ for lactation. Implication: she should be protected against a _________ by observing a method of contraception, except the pill).

A

amenorrhea
conserving fluids
subsequent pregnancy

640
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
• Postpartum check – up – should be done after the _______ postpartum to assess involution.

A

6th week

641
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
3. Urinary Changes
- There is marked diuresis within _______ postpartum to eliminate excess ________ during pregnancy.
- Some newly delivered mothers may complain of ________ ; explain that this is due to urinary retention with overflow. Other, on the other hand, may have difficulty voiding because of ___________ or ___________.

A
12 hours 
tissue fluid accumulation
frequent urinating in small amounts
decreased abdominal pressure
trauma to the trigone of the bladder
642
Q

Is a condition in which the kidneys filter too much bodily fluid

A

Diuresis

643
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
3. Urinary Changes
Voiding may be initiated by:
• Pouring warm and cold water alternately over the _____
• Encouraging the client to go the ______
• Let her listen to the __________
• If these measures fail, ________, done gently and aseptically, is the last resort on doctor’s order. (if there is resistance to the catheter when it reaches the _________, ask patient to breathe through the _____ while rotating the catheter before moving it inward again).

A
vulva
comfort room
sound of running water
catheterization
internal sphincter
mouth
644
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
3. Urinary Changes
4. Gastrointestinal changes – delayed bowel evacuation postpartally may be due to:
• Decreased ______
• Lack of _________during labor
• _________
• Fear of pain from _______ due to episiotomy, lacerations or hemorroids

A

muscle tone
food + enema
Dehydration
perineal tenderness

645
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
1. Vascular changes
2. Genital Changes
3. Urinary Changes
5. Vital Signs
-Temperature may increase because of the ________ of labor. Implication: any increase in body temperature during the first _______ postpartum is not necessarily a sign of postpartum infection.
Bradycardia (heart rate of 50 – 70 per minute) is common for ________

A

dehydrating effects
24 hours
6 – 8 days

646
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period are:
• ______– first 1 – 2 days postpartum when mother is passive and relies on others to care for her and her newborn. She keeps on verbalizing her feelings regarding the recent delivery for her to be able to integrate the experience into herself.

A

Taking – in phase

647
Q

(an overwhelming feeling of sadness that cannot be accounted for) may be observed. Could be due to hormonal changes, fatigue or feeling of inadequacy in taking care of a new baby.

A

Postpartum blues

648
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period are:
• _______ – begins to initiate action and make decisions. Postpartum blues (an overwhelming feeling of sadness that cannot be accounted for) may be observed. Could be due to hormonal changes, fatigue or feeling of inadequacy in taking care of a new baby. Management: explain that it is normal; ________ is therapeutic, in fact.

A

Taking hold phase

crying

649
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
C. Prevent postpartum complications
- ___________
- ___________

A

Hemorrhage

Infection

650
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period
C. Prevent postpartum complications
D. Establish successful lactation
-________ and _________ after placental delivery fall rapidly. Stimulates anterior pituitary gland to produce _______ acts on Acinar cells to produce foremilk stored in collecting tubules.

A

Estrogen
progesterone levels
proclatin

651
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period
C. Prevent postpartum complications
D. Establish successful lactation
When infant sucks ________ is stimulated to Produce ______ causes contraction of smooth muscles of Collecting tubules milk ejected forward let – down or milk ejection _________ is produced

A

posterior pituitary gland
oxytocin
Reflex hindmilk

652
Q

As your baby continues to nurse, they begin to pull milk from deeper within the breast where the fatty milk cells are stored. This milk, which is more fat-filled than the earlier milk, is called the ______. Often appears thick and creamy and is richer and more calorie dense than the foremilk.

A

hindmilk

653
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production

• Regardless of the mother’s _________, ________, or ________, milk will be produced.

A

physical condition
method of delivery
breast size/condition

654
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
• Lactation does not occur during pregnancy because ______ and _______ are present and therefore inhibit prolactin production.
• Lactation – suppressing agents are to be given immediately after _________ to be effective.
• Oral contraceptives are contraindicated in lactating mother because they contain ______ and _________, thereby decreasing milk supply.
• Afterpains are felt more by breastfeeding women because of __________; they also have less _____and experience more ________.

A
estrogen
progesterone
placental delivery 
estrogen , progesterone
oxytocin production
lochia
rapid involution
655
Q

Is the vaginal discharge after giving birth, containing blood, mucus, and uterine tissue.

A

lochia

656
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
• In an emergency delivery;
• Determine the ____, whether the woman in labor is a _______, and the stage of labor.
• If no sterile equipment is available to cut the cord, wrap the ________ ; never cut the cord unless sterile equipment is are available.
• If the uterus fails to contract after delivery, put the infant to the _____; the sucking of the infant produces _______ which causes uterine contraction

A
EDC
primi or a multi
baby and placenta together
breast
oxytocin
657
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Advantages of Breastfeeding
For mother
• _____ in terms of time, money and effort
• More rapid _____
• Less incidence of __________, according to some studies
For the baby
• Closer _______ relationship
• Contains _______ that protect against common illnesses
• Less incidence of ________
• Always available at the ____________

A
Economical 
involution
cancer of the breast
mother – infant
antibodies 
gastrointestinal diseases
right temperature
658
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings
Hygiene
• Wash breasts ____ at bath or shower time.
• ______ should never be used on the breasts as they tend to dry and crack the nipples and cause sore nipples.
• Wash hands ______ every feeding.
• Insert clean ______ or _______ in the brassiere to absorb moisture when there is considerable breast discharge.

A

daily
Soap or alcohol
before and after
OS squares or piece of cloth

659
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings
Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
• ________ with a pillow under the mother’s head while holding the bulk of breast tissues away from the infant’s nose.
• Stimulate the baby to open his mouth to grasp the _______ by means of the rooting reflex.
• Infant should grasp not only the nipple but also the _____ for effective sucking motion. Effectiveness is ensured when the:
o baby’s mouth parts “hike well up” into ______
o mother feels _____ as the baby sucks _______ flows with milk while baby is feeding on other breast
• To prevent nipples from becoming sore and cracked, infant should be introduced to the breast _____ The baby should be fed for only ______ at each breast during each feeding on the first day, increasing the time at each breast by ______ per day until the infant is nursing for ______ at each breast, making a total feeding time of _________.

A
Side-lying position
nipples 
areola
areola
after pains
other nipple
gradually
5 minutes
1 minute 
10 minutes
twenty minutes per feeding
660
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings
Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
• For continuous milk production, at each feeding, the infant should be placed first on the breast he fed ________ . This ensures that each breast will be ______ at every other feeding. If breasts are completely emptied, they completely refill; if only half-emptied will also half-refill and after some time, will become insufficient.
• To break away from the ______ at the breast after feeding, insert a clean little ________ to release the suction, then pull the chin down. This also helps prevent sore nipples.
• Feed as often as the baby is hungry, especially during the first few days, because he is receiving _____ which is not very filling; however, it contains _______, the only group of substances that can never be replicated by any artificial formula.
• Advise the mother to learn how to relax during feedings because tension prevents ______

A
last in the previous feeding
completely emptied 
closed suction
finger in the corner of the infant’s mouth
colostrums
gamma globulin (antibodies)
good let-down
661
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings
Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
Associated problems
_________ – feeling of tension in the breasts during the third postpartum day sometimes accompanied by an increase in temperature (milk fever). The breasts become full, feel tense and hot, with throbbing pain.

A

Engorgement

662
Q

Engorgement lasts for about _____ and is due to increased _______ and __________.

A

24 hours
lymphatic
venous circulation

663
Q

Management of Engorgement:
• Advise use of _______ brassiere for good support. It will not only decrease the discomfort from breast engorgement but will also prevent ________.
• _______ is is applied if the mother does not intend to breastfeed; ________ is applied if she will breastfeed.
• ______ should not be used and _________ should not done if the mother is not going to breastfeed, since either will stimulate milk production.

A
firm-fitting 
contamination of the nipples and areolae
Cold compress
warm compress
Breast pump
breast massage
664
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings
Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
Associated problems
_________– not contraindications to breastfeeding.
Management:
• Do not use _______that are found in some nursing bras because they prevent air from circulating around the breasts.
- Use ________.

A

Sore nipples
plastic liners
nipple shield

665
Q
Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings 
Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
Associated problems
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – inflammation of the breasts
Symptoms
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ pain, \_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in breast tissues
•	\_\_\_\_\_ in the breasts
•	Milk becomes \_\_\_\_\_\_
Management
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ as ordered
•	\_\_\_\_ compress
•	Proper breast \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in affected breast
A
Mastitis
Localized
swelling
redness
Lumps
scantly
Antibiotics
Ice
support
Discontinue breastfeeding
666
Q

Implications of physiology of Breastmilk production
Health Teachings
Method – as suggested by the La Leche League
Nutrition – lactating mothers should take _______ calories daily and should have larger amounts of _________, ______, _____, ________, ________ and

A
3000
proteins (96 Gms per day)
calcium
iron
Vitamins A
Vitamins B
667
Q

PRINCIPLS OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period are:
C. ________ women can have the same requirements as in pregnancy.

A

Non-breastfeeding

668
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
C. Non-breastfeeding women can have the same requirements as in pregnancy.
Contraindications
• Drugs – ______, ______, ________, _________, _______, ________. (Insulin, epinephrine, most antibiotics, antidiarrheals and histamines are generally not contraindicated. Therefore, diabetics and those with asthma can breastfeed.)

A
oral contraceptives
atropine
anticoagulants
antimetabolites
cathartics
tetracyclines
669
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
C. Non-breastfeeding women can have the same requirements as in pregnancy.
Contraindications
• Certain disease conditions, specifically ________, because of the close contact between mother and baby during feeding. (However, mothers may use masks to prevent droplet spread) TB germs, however, are not transmitted thru breast milk.

A

tuberculosis

670
Q

PRINCIPLES OF POSTPARTUM CARE
A. Promoting and return to normal (involution) of different parts of the body.
B. Provide emotional support – the psychological phases during the postpartum period are:
C. Non-breastfeeding women can have the same requirements as in pregnancy.
E. Motivate use of ______– the success of the family planning program depends to a large extent on the motivation of both husband and wife.

A

family planning methods

671
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
A. _______
Cause: Treponema pallidum – a spirochete which enters the body during coitus or through cuts and breaks in the skin or mucous membrane

A

Syphilis

672
Q

Treatment for Syphilis: ______________ will usually prevent congenital syphilis in the newborn because penicillin readily crosses the placenta.

A

2.4-4.8 million units of Penicillin (if allergic, 30-40 gms. erythrocin)

673
Q

If untreated, syphilis can cause ________, _______ in the newborn or even _______.

A

midtrimester abortion
CNS lesions
death

674
Q

The newborn with congenital syphilis
Signs and symptoms
- _________– first sign of the disease
- ______ and ____________
- ___________; coppery rashes on _____ and ______; ________; ________; _________due to bone inflammation
- If untreated, can progress on to _______, _______, _______, _______

A
Jaundice at 2 weeks of life 
Anemia, hepatosplenomegaly
“Snuffles” (persistent rhinorrhea)
palms, soles
mucous patches
condylomas
pseudoparalysis 
deformed bones
teeth
nose
joints
CNS syphilis
675
Q

Is the free discharge of a thin nasal mucus fluid.

A

Rhinorrhea or rhinorrhoea

676
Q

Is the medical term for genital warts.

A

Condyloma

677
Q

Management congenital syphilis: _______ for ___ days or ______________

A

Penicillin IM
10
one long-acting Penicillin (Penadur LA)

678
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
B. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Incidence-
-	Mother – the \_\_\_\_\_ the mother contracted the disease, the greater the likelihood that the baby will be affected.
A

Rubella/German Measles

earlier

679
Q

The rubella virus slows down division of infected cells during _______, thus causing congenital defects

A

organogenesis

680
Q
  • Newborn – can carry and transmit the rubella virus for as long as _______ after birth
A

12-24 months

681
Q

Signs and symptoms of Congenital Rubella Syndrome

- ____ birth weight; _____; _______; _______; _________; _______

A

Low, jaundice, petechiae, anemia, thrombocytopenia

hepatosplenomegaly

682
Q
-	Classic sequelae Congenital Rubella Syndrome
•	Eyes:  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Heart:  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Ear:  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Dental and facial \_\_\_\_\_
A
chorioretinitis
cataract
glaucoma
Patent Ductus Arteriousus
stenosis
coarctations
Nerve deafness
clefts
683
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
Sources
-	Endogenous (primary) sources – bacteria in the normal flora become virulent when \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

tissues are traumatized and general resistance is lowered.

684
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
Sources
-	Exogenous sources – pathogens introduced from external sources.  (Most common is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_).
A

anaerobic streptococci

685
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
 Common exogenous sources:
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	Excessive \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – faulty handwashing, unsterile equipments and supplies
•	\_\_\_\_\_\_ in late pregnancy
•	Premature \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Hospital personnel
obstetric manipulations
Breaks in aseptic techniques
Coitus 
rupture of the membranes
686
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
General symptoms: ______, _____, ______ and ______

A

malaise anorexia, fever, chills and headache

687
Q
General management Postpartum Infection
Sources
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, as ordered
A
Complete bed rest (CBR)
Proper nutrition
Increased fluid intake
Analgesics
Antipyretics , antibiotics
688
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
Types of infection
Specific symptoms
-	Pain, heat and feeling of pressure in the perineum
-	Inflammation of the suture line, with 1 or 2 stitches sloughed off
-	With or without elevated temperature
A
  1. Infection of the perineum
689
Q
  1. Infection of the perineum Specific management
A
  • Doctor removes sutures to drain area and resutures

- Hot sitz bath or warm compress

690
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
Specific symptoms
-	Abdominal tenderness
-	Uterus not contracted and painful to touch
-	Dark brown, foul-smelling lochia
A
  1. Endometritis
691
Q
  1. Endometritis Specific management
A
  • Oxytocin administration

- Fowler’s position to drain out lochia and prevent pooling of infected discharge

692
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
– infection of the lining of a blood vessel with formation of clots; usually an extension of endometritis

A
  1. Thrombophlebitis
693
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
3. Thrombophlebitis
Specific symptoms
- ____, ______ and _____
- Leg begins to swell below the lesion because _______ has been blocked
- Skin is stretched to a point of shiny whiteness, called ________

A

Pain, stiffness and redness in the affected part of the leg
venous circulation
milk leg or phlegmasia alba dolens

694
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
3. Thrombophlebitis 
Specific symptoms
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – pain in the calf when the foot is dorsiflexed
A

Positive Homan’s sign

695
Q

Specific management 3. Thrombophlebitis

  • Bed rest with affected leg ______
  • Anticoagulants, e.g., ______ or _______, to prevent further clot formation or extension of a thrombus
  • Analgesics are given but never Aspirin because it inhibits _______ therefore causes hemorrhage
A

elevated
Dicumarol or Heparin
prothrombin formation

696
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
4. _____– inflammation of breast tissues

A

Mastitis

697
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection 
Mastitis 
Pathophysiology – local inflammatory response to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ ; \_\_\_\_\_\_may occur; organism can be recovered from \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Etiology – most common:  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

bacterial invasion
suppuration
breast milk
Staphylococcus aureus

698
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection 
Mastitis 
Assessment
-	Signs of infection (may occur several weeks postpartum).
-	\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_
Breast
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_ areas
-	Localized/generalized \_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A
Fever
Chills
Tachycardia
Malaise
Abdominal pain

Reddened
swelling
Heat, tenderness, palpable mass.

699
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
INFECTIONS
C. Postpartum Infection
Mastitis
Nursing care – goal: _________. Health teaching in early postpartum
- _______
- ______
• Wash with_____ only (no soap)
• Let breast milk dry _____ to prevent drying of tissue.
• Clean bra ______ to support breasts, reduce friction, minimize exposure to microorganisms.
• Good _________

A
prevent infection
Handwashing
Breast care
 warm water
on nipples
(with no plastic pads or liners)
breastfeeding techniques
700
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
A.  Bleeding in pregnancy
First Trimester Bleeding
    A. \_\_\_\_\_
           1.  Spontaneous
                  1.1 Threatened
                  1.2 Imminent
                       1.2.1 Complete
                       1.2.2 Incomplete
            2. Induced
            3. Missed
     B. \_\_\_\_\_\_
           1. Tubal – most common
           2. Cervical
           3. Ovarian
Second Trimester Bleeding
      A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
      B.  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Third Trimester Bleeding
     A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
     B. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Abortion
Ectopic pregnancy

Hydatidiform Mole
Incompetent Cervical Os

Placenta Previa
Abruptio Placenta

701
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
A.  Bleeding in pregnancy
First Trimester Bleeding
1. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ any interruption in pregnancy before the age of viability
A

Abortion

702
Q

Occurs when an embryo implants somewhere other than the uterus, such as in one of the fallopian tubes.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

703
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
A.  Bleeding in pregnancy
First Trimester Bleeding
Abortion
Spontaneous
     Natural causes
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_= most common cause.  It is nature’s way of eliminating the birth of a congenitally defective baby
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_abnormality
Following \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_ (e.g., rubella, influenza) or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Blighted ovum/germ plasma defect
Implantation or hormonal
trauma, infection or emotional problems

704
Q

RISK CONDITIONS
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
A. Bleeding in pregnancy
First Trimester Bleeding
Abortion
Types of Spontaneous
- Threatened
Symptom: _______ bleeding which is moderate in amount
Management
• Complete bed rest for ______; if bleeding will stop it usually stops within this time
• Coitus is restricted for _____ after bleeding has stopped in order to prevent further bleeding or infection
• _______ therapy
• Advise patient to _____ all pads, clots and expelled tissues

A
bright red vaginal
24-48 hours
2 weeks
Endocrine/hormonal
 save
705
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
A.  Bleeding in pregnancy
First Trimester Bleeding
Abortion    
    Types of Spontaneous
-	Imminent/inevitable
Symptom:  Bright red vaginal bleeding which is moderate in amount and accompanied by \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  Loss of the \_\_\_\_\_\_ is inevitable.
A

uterine contractions
cervical dilatation
products of conception

706
Q

Abortion
Types of Spontaneous
- Imminent/inevitable
Management – depends on whether it is:
• ________ – all products of conception are expelled; bleeding is minimal and self-limiting. No intervention is therefore needed.
• _______ – part of the conceptus (usually the fetus) is expelled, but membranes or placental fragments are retained. D & C is indicated as management.

A

Complete abortion

Incomplete abortion

707
Q

Abortion
2.
- ________ – is never allowed in the Philippines

A

Induced abortion

708
Q

• Therapeutic – performed by a doctor in a controlled hospital or clinic setting for a medical or a legal reason. Also known as ____, ______ and _____

A

medical, planned or legal abortion.

709
Q

Abortion
- 3. _______ – fetus dies in utero but is not expelled. Usually discovered at a prenatal visit when ________ is measured and no increase is demonstrated or when previously heard fetal heart tones are no longer present. In _______, signs of abortion should occur; otherwise, labor will have to be induced to prevent _________ or _____.

A
Missed abortion
fundal height
two weeks’ time
hypofibrinoginemia
sepsis
710
Q
RISK CONDITIONS
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
A.  Bleeding in pregnancy
First Trimester Bleeding
1. Abortion
2. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – any gestation located outside the uterine cavity.
A

Ecotopic Pregnancy

711
Q

Ecotopic Pregnancy
Signs and symptoms – since the wall of the Fallopian tube is not sufficiently elastic, it ruptures within the _______ of gestation as it can no longer give way for growing fetus
- _____________ either the right or left lower quadrant (in bleeding wherein there is no exit or egress of blood from the body, pain is the outstanding symptom; this pain differentiates Ectopic pregnancy from abortion)
- Rigid ______
- _______ – bluish umbilicus
- Excruciating pain when cervix is moved on IE
- Signs of shock: ____, ________, _____, __________

A
first 12 weeks
Severe, sharp, knife-like stabbing pain 
abdomen
(+) Cullen’s sign
falling BP, PR more than 100/minute, rapid RR, lightheadedness
712
Q

Management – ruptured Ectopic pregnancy is an emergency situation.
- ________ – if Fallopian tube can still be replaced and preserved

A

Salpingosomy

713
Q

A _________ is a surgical incision into a fallopian tube

A

salpingostomy

714
Q

Second Trimester Bleeding
A. _________ – developmental anomaly of the placenta resulting in proliferation and degeneration of the chorionic villi
Incidence: Is the most common lesion anteceding _______.

A

Hydatidiform Mole

choriocarcinoma

715
Q
Second Trimester Bleeding
      A. Hydatidiform Mole
It occurs most often in women:
-	From low socioeconomic backgrounds with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	Over \_\_\_\_ and under \_\_\_\_\_ of age.
A

low protein intake

35 years, 18 years

716
Q

Second Trimester Bleeding
A. Hydatidiform Mole
Signs and symptoms – Because of rapid proliferation of the placental tissues and, therefore, high levels ____

A

of HCG

717
Q

Second Trimester Bleeding
A. Hydatidiform Mole
Signs and symptoms –
- Highly _____ for pregnancy (that is why a positive pregnancy test cannot be considered a positive sign of pregnancy)
- _____ and _____ is usually marked
- Rapid increase in _____. Rapid increase in _____
- Toxemia signs and symptoms appear before the _______
- No ________
- Vaginal bleeding seen as ___, ______, _________

A
positive urine test 
Nausea and vomiting
fundic height, weight
24th week of gestation
 fetal heart tones
clear, fluid-filled, grape-sized vesicles
718
Q

Management of Hydatidiform Mole

  • D & C to evacuate the mol
  • Prophylactic course of _______, the drug of choice for choriocarcinoma
  • _____ for one year to find out if new villi are developing. ______ (but not the pills) have to be used so as not to confuse the results
A

Methotrexate
Urine testing
Contraceptives

719
Q

Second Trimester Bleeding
A. Hydatidiform Mole
B. ______________ – one that dilates prematurely. It is the chief cause of habitual abortion (3 or more consecutive abortions).

A

Incompetent Cervical Os

720
Q
Second Trimester Bleeding
      A. Hydatidiform Mole
      B. Incompetent Cervical Os
Causes
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_factors
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ factors
-	Trauma to the \_\_\_
A

Congenital developmental
Endocrine
cervix

721
Q
Incompetent Cervical Os 
Signs and symptoms
-	Presence of \_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_ of membranes
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_ cervical dilatation
A

show and uterine contractions
Rupture
Painless

722
Q

Second Trimester Bleeding
A. Hydatidiform Mole
B. Incompetent Cervical Os
Management: ___________– a cerclage procedure wherein purse string sutures are placed around the cervix on the ______________. These are removed during vaginal delivery (if _______, since sutures are temporary) or the patient delivers by cesarean section (if _________, since sutures are permanent).

A
McDonald method 
/Shirodkar-Barter procedure 
14th - 18th week of gestation
McDonald’s method
Shirodkar method
723
Q
Third Trimester Bleeding
     A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
 – low implantation of the placenta so that it is in the way of the presenting part.
Predisposing factors
-	Increasing \_\_\_\_\_
-	Advanced \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	Rapid succession of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Placenta Previa
parity
maternal age
pregnancies

724
Q

Types of Placenta Previa
- Low lying
- Partial
- Complete
Diagnosis – made by means of ______and ______ Uses intermittent waves of very ________ in order to “picture the fetus”.
________ are projected towards the mother’s abdomen, are reflected back and converted into electrical impulses and recorded on a permanent graph paper).

A

symptoms and ultrasound (also known as Ultrasonic Echo Sounding or Sonar.
high frequency/above audible range
Sound waves

725
Q

Placenta Previa Diagnosis
- Preparation for ultra sound
• Explain the procedure to the patient, informing her that it is ______ and there are ________
• Empty the bladder but ask the patient to take _____ of water afterwards in order to _______ the bladder. A full bladder displaces a _______ and, therefore, permits better visualization of the pelvis and its contents.

A
painless
no known ill effects
6 glasses
dilate
gas filled bowel
726
Q
  • Clinical uses of ultra sound
    • Diagnose pregnancy as early as ___________
    • Can establish that the fetus is _______ and, therefore, can predict ____
    • Can determine gestational age by measuring the _________ (if it is more than _____., it is more than _____ gms); therefore, can diagnose ________, ________, ________ and _________
    • Can demonstrate size and growth rate of the _______; therefore; can identify poly- or oligo-hydramios
    • Can confirm presence, size and location of the ______; therefore, is valuable before amniocentesis
    • Can diagnose ______
    • Can visualize ____, ______, ______, etc.
    • Can determine ___________ ( _________and if in _________)
A

5-6 weeks gestational age
increasing in size, EDC
biparietal diameter of the fetal skull, 8.5 cm, 2500
intrauterine growth retardation, hydrocephaly, microcephaly, anencephaly
amniotic sac
placenta
multiple pregnancy
ascites, polycystic kidneys, ovarian cysts
baby’s sex (during third trimester and cephalic presentation)

727
Q

Third Trimester Bleeding
Placenta Previa
Signs and Symptoms – first and most constant: _____, ________ due to tearing of placental attachment as a consequence of ___________

A

painless, bright red vaginal bleeding

dilatation of the internal cervical os

728
Q
Third Trimester Bleeding
Placenta Previa 
Management
-	\_\_\_\_\_ bed rest 
-	Monitor \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and the \_\_\_\_\_\_
-	Prepare \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is not done.  If ever it is to be done, it has to be a double set-up (done in the operating room wherein the patient has already signed the consent form, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ have been given, \_\_\_\_\_\_ has been done, etc., so that if ever placenta is accidentally detached \_\_\_\_, can be done immediately.
A
Complete 
vital signs of the mother and fetal heart rate 
oxygen and blood
Internal examination (IE)
preop medication
abdominal prep
CS
729
Q
Third Trimester Bleeding
Placenta Previa 
Complications
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Hemorrhage
Infection
Prematurity

730
Q

Third Trimester Bleeding
A. Placenta Previa
B. _______ – premature separation of the placenta

A

Abruptio Placenta

731
Q

Predisposing factors of Abruptio Placenta

  • Maternal ______ or ______
  • Increasing ____ and _______
  • Sudden release of _______
  • Short ____________
  • Direct ______
  • _________
A
hypertension or toxemia
parity  and maternal age
amniotic fluid
umbilical cord
trauma
Hypofibrinoginemia
732
Q

Abruptio Placenta
Signs and symptoms
- Severe, sharp, knife-like, stabbing pain high in the ______
- Hard, boardlike ______; rigid _____

A

fundus
uterus
abdomen

733
Q

Abruptio Placenta
Signs of shock
- Concealed bleeding, if extensive, causes uterus to lose its ability to ______. It becomes ecchymotic and copper-colored, called ________, causing severe bleeding. Since the uterus no longer has the ability to contract, ________ will have to be done.

A

contract
Couvelaire uterus
hysterectomy

734
Q

BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
B. Postpartum Hemorrhage
1. ______ – uterus is not contracted, relaxed or boggy; most frequent cause

A

Uterine Atony

735
Q

Predisposing factors Uterine Atony

  • _______multiple pregnancy, multiparity, excessively large baby, polyhydramnios
  • ________
  • ________ (previa or abruptio)
  • ______ and _____ labor
A

Overdistention of the uterus
Caesarian section
Placental accidents
Prolonged and difficult

736
Q

Management Uterine Atony

  • _____ – first nursing action
  • ____ compress
  • ________ administration
  • ______ the bladder
  • ________ to explore retained placental fragments
  • ______ – last resort
A
Massage
Ice
Oxytocin
Empty
Bimanual compression
Hysterectomy
737
Q
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
B. Postpartum Hemorrhage
1. Uterine Atony
2. Lacerations
3. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – a clothing defect, Management:  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Late postpartum \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Hypofibrinoginemia
blood transfusion
hemorrhage

738
Q
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
B. Postpartum Hemorrhage
1. Uterine Atony
2. Lacerations
3. Hypofibrinoginemia
4. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – management:  dilatation and curettage (D &amp; C)
A

Retained placental fragments

739
Q

Is a procedure to remove tissue from inside your uterus.

A

Dilation and curettage (D&C)

740
Q
BLEEDING/HEMORRHAGE
B. Postpartum Hemorrhage
1. Uterine Atony
2. Lacerations
3. Hypofibrinoginemia
4. Retained placental fragments
5. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – due to injury to blood vessels in the perineum during delivery
Incidence:  Commonly seen in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and those with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Treatment 
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_ during first 24 hours
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_, as ordered
-	Site is \_\_\_\_\_\_ and bleeding vessel is \_\_\_\_\_
A

Hematoma
precipitate delivery
perineal varicosities

Ice compress
Oral analgesics
incised
ligated

741
Q

Is extremely rapid labor and delivery.

A

Precipitous labor

742
Q
  • a vascular disease of unknown cause which occurs anytime after the 24th week of gestation up to two weeks postpartum.
A

TOXEMIA/PREGNANCY-INDUCED HYPERTENSION (PIH)

743
Q
TOXEMIA/PREGNANCY-INDUCED HYPERTENSION (PIH)
Triad of symptoms
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (specifically albumiuria).
A

Hypertension
Edema
Proteinuria

744
Q

TOXEMIA/PREGNANCY-INDUCED HYPERTENSION (PIH)
Predisposing factors
- Age – primis under ___ and over ____ years
- Gravida – _____ pregnancies
- Low socioeconomic status (SES)
- _____ pregnancy
- With underlying ________, e.g., heart disease, hypertension or diabetes

A

20, 30
5 or more
Multiple
medical conditions

745
Q

describes the total number of confirmed pregnancies that a woman has had, regardless of the outcome. .

A

Gravida or gravidity

746
Q

is defined as the number of births that a woman has had after 20 weeks gestation

A

Para or parity

747
Q
Classification TOXEMIA/PREGNANCY-INDUCED HYPERTENSION (PIH)
1.	Acute toxemia – symptoms appear after the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of gestation 
A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
    Mild
     Severe
B. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
II. Chronic hypertension with pregnancy
III. Unclassified
A

24th week
Preeclampsia
Eclampsia

748
Q

A._______
- Generalized vasoconstriction and associated microangiopathy disease of capillaries
- Abnormal retention of _____ and _____ by body tissues
Medical complications
- _______ hemorrhage
- Acute _______
- Acute ______

A
Preeclampsia
sodium and water
Cerebrovascular 
pulmonary edema
renal failure
749
Q

Types of Preeclampsia
Mild preeclampsia –
signs and symptoms
- _____________ per week (earliest sign of preeclampsia) due to edema which is persistent and found in the _______ of the body (e.g. inability to wear the wedding ring)
- Systolic BP of ___, or an increase of __ and a diastolic of ___, or a rise of _______, taken twice 6 hours apart.
- Proteinuria of _______

A
Sudden, excessive weight gain of 1-5 lbs. 
upper half
140, 30mm.  Hg. or more
90, 15 mm. Hg. or more
0.5 gms/liter or more
750
Q
Types of Preeclampsia
Severe preeclampsia – 
signs and symptoms
-	BP of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
-	Proteinuria of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in 24 hours
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_ of 400 ml. or less in 24 hours (normal urine output/day = \_\_\_\_\_\_).
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ disturbances
-	Pulmonary \_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ (considered an “aura” to the development of convulsions)
A
160/110 mm Hg
5 gm/liter or more
Oliguria
1500 ml
Cerebral or visual
edema and cyanosis
Epigastric pain
751
Q

B. Eclampsia – the main difference between preeclampsia and Eclampsia is the presence of ______ in eclampsia.

A

convulsion

752
Q

Signs and symptoms of Eclampsia as in preeclampsia plus:
- increased _______
- increased ______
decreased ____ combining power

A

BUN/Blood urea nitrogen
uric acid
CO2

753
Q

Diagnosis of Eclampsia: ________– assesses the probability of developing toxemia when performed between the ___ and _____ of pregnancy.
Procedure
- Patient lies in _________ for 15 minutes until BP has stabilized
- Then rolls over to _______
- BP is taken at 1 minute and ______ after having rolled over.
Interpretation: if diastolic increases ______, patient is prone to toxemia.

A
roll-over test 
28th 32nd week
lateral recumbent position
supine position
5 minutes
20 mm Hg or more
754
Q

Management of Eclampsia
- Complete bed rest – _______ tends to be excreted at a more rapid rate if the patient is at rest. Energy conservation is important in _________ to minimize demands for oxygen. Lowered oxygen tension in toxemia is the result of ________ and decreased blood flow that diminishes the amount of _____ and _____ in cells. In any condition wherein there is a possibility of convulsions, bed rest should be in a darkened, non-stimulating environment with minimal handling.

A

sodium
decreasing metabolic rate
vasoconstriction
nutrients and oxygen

755
Q

Diet

  • For mild preeclampsia – high _____, high _______, moderate ______ (no added table salt, including “bagoong”, “patis”, “tuyo”, canned goods, bottled drinks, preserved foods and cold cuts)
  • For severe preeclampsia – high _____, high _____ and _______
A

protein, carbohydrate, salt restriction

protein, calorie, salt-poor (3 gms of salt per day)

756
Q

Medications
- _______ – e.g., chlorthiazide/Diuril. Hourly urine output should be at least ______. (normally 50-60 ml. per hour)
Pharmacologic effect: decreased reabsorption of _____ and ______ at the proximal tubules, thereby increasing renal excretion of sodium, chloride and water, including ______.
Side effects: _____ and _____ due to fluid and electrolyte imbalance
Nursing care: closely monitor intake and output

A
Diuretics
20-30 ml
sodium and chloride
potassium
fatigue and muscle weakness
757
Q

Medications
- ______ – if with heart failure.
Pharmacologic action: Increase the force of ________, thereby decreasing heart rate.
Important: Should not be given, therefore, if heart rate is _____.
Implication: take the heart rate before giving the drug.

A

Digitalis
contraction of heart
below 60/minute

758
Q

Medications
- ______– patients receiving diuretics are prone to hypokalemia; if digitalis is given at the same time, hypokalemia increases the sensitivity of the heart to the effects of ______.
Potassium supplements (e.g., banana) must be given tot prevent ______

A

Potassium supplements
digitalis
cardiac arrhythmias.

759
Q

Medications

  • _______ – sedation by means of CNS depression
  • Analgesics; antihypertensives; antibiotics; anticonvulsants; sedatives
A

Barbiturates

760
Q

Medications
- ________ – the drug of choice
Actions:
________– lessen the possibility of convulsions
________– decreases the BP
Cathartic causes a shift of fluid from the extracellular spaces into the ______ from where the fluid can be excreted.
Dosage: ____ initially, either by _________, or _______, then _________
IF:
________ are present
Respiratory rate is at least ____per minute
Urine output is at least _____ in 6 hours
Antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity: ________, _____, to maintain cardiac and vascular tone.
Earliest sign of magnetism sulfate toxicity: disappearance of the __________.

A
Magnesium sulfate
CNS depressant 
Vasodilator 
intestines 
10 gms. slow IV push over 5-10 minutes
deep IM, 5 gms/buttock
IV drip of 1 gm. per hour (1 gm/100 ml. D10W) 
Deep tendon reflexes
12 
100 ml.
Calcium gluconate
10% IV
knee jerk/patellar reflex
761
Q

Method of delivery – preferably ______, but if not possible, ____ will have to be done.
Prognosis: the danger of convulsions is present until ____ postpartum.

A

vaginal
CS
48 hours

762
Q

_______ – chronic hereditary disease which is characterized by hyperglycemia due to relative ______ from the pancreas which, in turn, leads to abnormalities in the metabolism of ______, ______ and ___.

A

DIABETES MELLITUS
insufficient or lack of insulin
carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

763
Q

Diabetogenic effects of pregnancy – many women who have had no evidence of diabetes in the past develop abnormalities in _______

  • Decrease ______because of increased _____; that is why it is common to find dextrose and lactose in the urine of pregnant women
  • increased production of adrenocorticoids, anterior pituitary hormones and thyroxin, which affect ______ in blood (hyperglycemia)
  • rate of insulin secretion is ______ but sensitivity of the pregnant body to insulin is _____, i.e., _____ does not seem to be normally effective during pregnancy
A
glucose tolerance
renal threshold for sugar , estrogen
carbohydrate concentration
increased
decreased
insulin
764
Q
DIABETES MELLITUS
Attendant risks
-	\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – because of vascular complications which affect placental circulation
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_– because of nausea and vomiting.  It is the chief threat to the fetus in utero
-	\_\_\_\_\_ – due to excessively large baby
A
Toxemia
Infection
Hemorrhage
Polyhydramnios
Spontaneous abortion
Acidosis 
Dystocia
765
Q
DIABETES MELLITUS
Diagnosis – made on the basis of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Procedure
-	\_\_\_\_\_ after midnight
-	If more than 120 mg% - \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

glucose Tolerance Test (GTT)
NPO
overt gestational diabetes

766
Q

DIABETES MELLITUS
Categories – to predict the outcome of pregnancy
- ______– GTT is only slightly abnormal; minimal dietary restriction; insulin not need; fetal survival is high
- ______– have 25% perinatal mortality
- _____– therapeutic abortion (in other countries may be justified, not in the Philippines)

A

Class A
Classes C to E
Class F

767
Q

DIABETES MELLITUS
Management
- Diet – highly individualized. Adequate glucose intake (1800-2200 calories) to prevent _________.
- Insulin requirements are likewise highly individualized, requiring close observation throughout pregnancy. Since the effects of the hormones are more pronounced during the ________ there is increased need for insulin.
• Insulin is regulated to keep urine________ (minimal _______is necessary to prevent acidosis) but negative for _______.
• __________will have to be changed to regular insulin (Lente) during the ______ of pregnancy.
- Often delivered by ____
• Baby is typically larger or maybe in distress because of ________
• Severe metabolic imbalances in vaginal delivery can occur because of _______ reserve in the liver and skeletal muscles by strenuous muscular exertion during labor.
- Maximum difficulty in controlling diabetes is during the _______because of the drastic changes in hormonal levels.

A
intraurine growth retardation
2nd and 3rd trimesters
 \+1 for sugar 
glycosuria 
acetone
Long-acting insulin (Ultralente) 
last few weeks 
CS
placental insufficiency
depletion of glycogen
early postpartum period
768
Q

Infant of the Diabetic Mother (IDM)
Is typically ___ and _____ because of:
- excessive supply of ____ from the mother
- increased production of _______ from the maternal pituitary gland
- increased secretion of _____ from the fetal pancreas
- increased action of _______ that favor passage of glucose from mother to fetus

A
longer 
weighs more
glucose 
growth hormones
insulin
adrenocortical hormones
769
Q

Infant of the Diabetic Mother (IDM)
________ are often seen
_________ (puffy, but limp and lethargic)
More often born premature, so _______ syndrome is common
Lose a greater proportion of _____ than normal newborns because of loss of extra fluid

A

Congenital anomalies
Cushingoid appearance
respiratory distress
weight

770
Q

Infant of the Diabetic Mother (IDM)
Are prone to the following complications
- _______ – blood sugar level less than 30 mg%. It is the most common complication to watch for
Cause: while inside the uterus, the fetus tends to be _______ because of maternal hyperglycemia. The fetal pancreas thus responded to the high glucose level by producing matching high levels of insulin. Following delivery, the glucose level begins to fall because the baby has been severed from the mother. Since there has been previous production of high levels of insulin, hypoglycemia develops.
Clinical signs of hypoglycemia
• ______
• ________
• _______
• _______
• _______
Consequences: hypoglycemia, if not treated, can lead to ______ and even death
Management: feed with ______earlier than usual, or administer ______

A
Hypoglycemia
hyperglycemic
Shrill, high-pitched cry
Listlessness/jitteriness/tremors
Lethargy; poor suck
Apnea; cyanosis
Convulsions
brain damage
glucose water 
IV of glucose.
771
Q

Infant of the Diabetic Mother (IDM)
Are prone to the following complications
- _____ – serum calcium level of less than 7 mg%.
Signs: same as hypoglycemia
Sequela: Same as that of hypoglycemia
Management: _______ to prevent hypocalcemic tetany

A

Hypocalcemia

Calcium gluconate

772
Q

HEART DISEASE
Classification
- ____ – no limitation physical activity
- ____ – slight limitation of physical activity; ordinary activity causes fatigue; palpitation, dyspnea or angina
- ____ – moderate to marked limitation of physical activity; less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, etc.
- ____ – unable to carry on any activity without experiencing discomfort

A

Class I
Class II
Class III
Class IV

773
Q

HEART DISEASE
Prognosis
- _______ – normal pregnancy and delivery
- ______ – poor candidates

A

Classes I and II

Classes III and IV

774
Q

HEART DISEASE
Signs and symptoms
- Because of increased ______ during pregnancy, heart murmurs are observed
- Cardiac output may become so _____ that vital organs are not perfused adequately; oxygen and nutritional requirements, therefore, are not met.
- Since the left side of the heart is not able to empty the ______ adequately, the latter become engorged, causing ______ and ______.
_____ in gravidocardiacs, therefore, is a danger sign.
- Liver and other organs become congested because blood returning to the heart may not be handled adequately, causing the ______ to rise. Fluid then escapes through the walls of engorged capillaries and cause ____ or _____
- ________ is a high probability also because of the increased cardiac pain on exertion, and cyanosis of nailbeds are obvious.

A
total cardiac volume
decreased
pulmonary vessels
pulmonary edema and hypertension
Moist cough
venous pressure 
edema or ascites.
Congestive heart failure
775
Q

HEART DISEASE
Management – consider the functional capacity of the heart
- Bed rest – especially after the_______ to ensure that pregnancy is carried to term or at least _______
- Diet – should ___enough, but not too much as it would add to the workload of the heart
- Medications
• _____
• _______ e.g., Fer-in-sol or Feosol – anemia should be prevented because the body compensates by increasing cardiac output, thus further increasing cardiac workload.
- Classes III and IV are not placed in ________ during delivery to avoid increasing venous return. The ______is preferred to facilitate easy respirations.
- Anesthetic of choice is _______ for effortless, pushless and painless delivery. Remember: Gravidocardiacs are not allowed to push with contractions (to prevent ________ which increases venous return to an already weak, damaged heart). _______, therefore, is the best method of delivery.
- ergotrate and other oxytocics, scopolamine, diethylstilbestrol and oral contraceptives are contraindicated because they cause ______ and promote ________
- Most critical period – the ________ because the 30% - 500

A
30th week of gestation
36 weeks gestation
gain 
Digitalis
Iron preparations,
lithotomy position
semi-sitting position 
caudal anesthesia
Valsalva maneuver
Low forceps
 fluid retention
thromboembolization.
period immediately following delivery
776
Q
MULTIPLE PREGNANCY (Twin Pregnancy)
Classification
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – twins begin with a single ovum and sperm, but in the process of fusion or in one of the first cell divisions, the zygote divides into two identical but separate individuals.
Characteristics
-	Always of the \_\_\_\_
-	With \_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_fused as one.
  Incidence – a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	More frequent among 
-	\_\_\_\_
-	More frequent among \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_
A
Monozygotic/Identical 
same sex
2 amnions
1 chorion
2 umbilical cords 
2 placentas 
chance occurrence
non-whites
young primis , old multis
777
Q
MULTIPLE PREGNANCY (Twin Pregnancy)
Classification
Dizygotic/Fraternal – two separate ova are fertilized by 2 separate sperms.  They are actually sibling growing at the same time in utero.
Characteristics
-	May or may not be of the \_\_\_\_\_
-	With\_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_
Incidence – \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

same sex
2 amnions, 2 chorions, 2 placentas and 2 umbilical cords
familial maternal pattern of inheritence

778
Q

Suspect multiple pregnancy if:

  • faster rate of increase in ______
  • on quickening, there are ___________________
  • on auscultation, ____________ are heard
  • there is marked ______ not due to toxemia or obesity
A

uterine size
several flurries of action in different abdominal positions
2 sets of fetal heart tones
weight gain,

779
Q
MULTIPLE PREGNANCY (Twin Pregnancy)
complications
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_	
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Toxemia
Polyhydramnios
Anemia
Abruptio placenta
Prematurity
Postpartum hemorrhage
780
Q

BLOOD INCOMPABILITY
– an antigen-antibody reaction which causes excessive destruction of ______
- Mother is _____ and the fetus is _______ (because the father is either a homozygous or a heterozygous Rh positive)
- Mother is ___ and the fetus is either ______ (because the father is either Type A or Type B)

A
fetal red blood cells
 Rh negative 
Rh positive 
Type O 
Type A or Type B
781
Q

_______– broad term for abnormal or difficult labor and delivery

A

DYSTOCIA

782
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_ – sluggishness of contractions
Causes
-	Inappropriate use of \_\_\_\_\_
-	Pelvic bone \_\_\_\_\_
-	Poor \_\_\_\_\_\_
-	 \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ – due to multiparity, multiple pregnancy, polyhydramnios or excessively large baby
A
Uterine Inertia
analgesics
contraction
fetal position
Overdistention
783
Q

Uterine Inertia
Types
- ________ – relaxation are inadequate and mild, thus are ineffective. Since uterine muscles are in a state of greater than normal tension, _______ stage of labor is prolonged. Treatment: _______.

A

Primary (hypertonic) Uterine Dysfunction
latent phase of the first
sedate patient

784
Q

Uterine Inertia
Types
- ________ – contractions have been good but gradually become infrequent and of poor quality and ______________ . Treatment: stimulation of labor either by ________or _______.

A

Secondary (hypertonic) Uterine Dysfunction
cervical dilatation stops
Oxytocin administration
amniotomy

785
Q

– labor and delivery that is completed in less than 3 hours after the onset of true labor pains. Probably due to multiparity or following Oxytocin administration or amniotomy. Can lead to:

  • _______
  • ________
  • ______ due to sudden release of pressure, leading to shock.
A

Precipitate Delivery
extensive lacerations
abruptio placenta
hemorrhage

786
Q

– in primis, labor lasting more than 18 hours and in multis, more than 12 hours. Can lead to:

  • ______
  • ______
  • ________
A

Prolonged Labor
maternal exhaustion
uterine atony
caput succedaneum

787
Q
– occurs when the uterus undergoes more straining than it is capable of sustaining.
Causes
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	Unwise use of \_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
A
Uterine Rupture
Scar from a previous classic Cesarean section (CS)
oxytocins
Overdistention
Faulty presentation
Prolonged labor
788
Q

Uterine Rupture
Signs and symptoms
- _______
- ______ and clinical signs of shock (_______, _____, ______ ,_______, _______)
- Change in ______, with two swellings on the abdomen: the ______and the ______
management: ______

A

Sudden, severe pain
Hemorrhage
restlessness, pallor, decreasing BP, increasing respiratory and pulse rates
abdominal contour
retracted uterus and the extrauterine fetus
hysterectomy

789
Q

– fundus is forced through the cervix so that the uterus is turned inside out.
Causes
- Insertion of _____ at the fundus, so that as fetus is rapidly delivered, especially if unsupported, the fundus is pulled down
- Strong fundal push when mother fails to bear down properly during _____
- Attempts to ______before signs of placental separation appear
Management: ______

A
Uterine Inversion 
placenta 
2nd stage of labor
deliver the placenta 
hysterectomy
790
Q

– occurs when amniotic fluid is forced into an open maternal uterine blood sinus through some defect in the membranes or after partial premature separation of the placenta. Solid particles in the amniotic fluid enter maternal circulation and reach the ______

A

Amniotic Fluid Embolism

lungs as emboli.

791
Q

Amniotic Fluid Embolism
Signs and symptoms – are dramatic
- Woman in labor suddenly sits up and grasps her chest because of ___________________
- Turns pale and then the typical bluish-gray color associated with _______
- _____ may occur in a few minutes

A

inability to breathe and sharp chest pain
pulmonary embolism
Death

792
Q
Amniotic Fluid Embolism
Management 
-	Emergency measures to maintain life:  \_\_\_, \_\_\_, \_\_\_\_
-	Provide \_\_\_\_\_ in the ICU
-	Keep \_\_\_\_\_\_
-	Provide \_\_\_\_\_
A

IV, oxygen, CPR
intensive care
family informed
emotional support

793
Q

– if a woman has borderline (just adequate) pelvic measurements but fetal position and presentation are good. Maybe continued for as long as there is progressive ______ and the _______.

A

Trial Labor

fetal descent of the presenting part

794
Q

Trial Labor
Management:
- Monitor ___ and ______
- Keep ______to allow all available space to be used by the fetus
- Emotional support
- _______ – blocks the release of Oxytocin. Side effects: nausea and vomiting, mental confusion, etc. (same side effects when alcohol is taken orally in excessive amounts)
- _____– a vasodilator. Side effects: hypotension and tachycardia
- ______ – a muscle relaxant given orally
- _____ – a known bronchodilator
If premature uterine contractions are accompanied by progressive fetal descent and cervical dilatation, _______is inevitable.
- May not necessarily be _____ full term labor
- ______ are kept to a minimum because analgesics are known to cause ________. As it is, premature babies already have enough difficulty breathing on their own; giving analgesics, therefore, would add up to the problem. Implication: give ______to the mother such that she focuses her attention not on her own needs but those of her baby.
- ________ are given to the mother to help in the maturation of the fetal lungs by hastening production of surfactants
- ________ is preferred because it does not compromise fetal respiration.
- Episiotomy is not necessary smaller than in full term deliveries; may even be ____ so that the preemie can be delivered at the shortest possible time, since excessive pressure on the fragile preemie’s head can cause________ that could be fatal
- _____ may be applied gently
- ____ is cut immediately, rather than waiting for pulsations to stop, because preemies have difficult time ________ that will be formed from the extra amount of blood.

A
FHRs and  uterine contractions
bladder empty 
Ethyl alcohol (Ethanol) IV
Vasodilan IV 
Ritodrine
Bricanyl
premature delivery 
shorter than
Pain medications
respiratory depression
emotional support 
Steroids (glucocorticoids)
Caudal, spinal or infiltration anesthesia
larger
 subarachnoid hemorrhage
Forceps
Cord
 excreting large amounts of bilirubin
795
Q

– to bring about labor either by amniotomy or drugs (Oxytocin, prostaglandins) before the time when it would have occurred spontaneously or because it does not occur spontaneously.

A

INDUCED LABOR

796
Q
INDUCED LABOR
Indications
Maternal
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
-	\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Toxemia
Placental accidents
Premature rupture of the BOW

797
Q

INDUCED LABOR
Fetal
- Diabetes – terminated about_______ if indicated
- Blood incompatibility with rising titer
- Excessive size
- Postmaturity
Prerequisites
- No _____
- Fetus is viable – survival is decreased if ______
- Single fetus in _______ and ______
- Ripe cervix – _______; dilated______

A
37 weeks AOG
CPD
below 32 weeks AOG
longitudinal lie
is engaged
fully or partially effaced
 at least 1-2 cm.
798
Q

INDUCED LABOR
Procedure
- _____ administration
• _____ in 1000 ml of D5W at a slow rate of _____ given initially. If no fetal distress is observed in 30 minutes, infusion rate is increased _____
• Amniotomy will be done when cervical dilatation reaches _____. Check ___and ______ after amniotomy

A
Oxytocin
10 IU of Pitocin 
8 gtts/minute
16-20 drops/minute
4 cm
FHR 
quality of fluid
799
Q

INDUCED LABOR
Nurisng Care
- Primary concern: monitor ______. If uterine contractions are unduly sustained, _____ can occur.
- Monitor ____ regularly
- _____ if with abnormalities in FHR or uterine contractions.

A

intensity of uterine contractions
uterine rupture
flow rate
Turn off IV drip