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Global 6000 > Review Questions > Flashcards

Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

TRUE or FALSE? NAVAID and airport symbologies may be shown with the flight plan on the MFW by selection of the SYMBOL menu on the MAP and PLAN formats?

A

TRUE

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2
Q

What happens if you push the TOGA buttons in the cruise at FL 410

A

Ask Gallvin

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3
Q

The engine fuel crossed system allows the left wing tank to feed the right engine and the right wing tank to feed the left engine simultaneously:

A

FALSE: The crossfeed system is used to allow a single engine to be fed from both wing tanks, or a single wing feed tank to feed both engines

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4
Q

Min oil temp of -40ºC applies to engine operation for:

A

Engine starting

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5
Q

During normal operations, how many loops are required to detect a fire in either the engines or APU?

A

2

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6
Q

TCAS data is presented on the MFW:

A

As a selectable overlay on any MFW

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7
Q

The DC auxiliary boost pump is only used to provide a backup source of fuel pressure to the onside engine during takeoff only:

A

FALSE: The DC aux pump automatically starts when the aircraft is in a landing config( in the air with gear down), a takeoff config( flaps not up) or if a failure of one or both AC boost pumps is sensed. It also starts if fuel quantity is low (

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8
Q

When the VOX control is in the unlatched(raised up) position, it enables voice activation of:

A

Flight interphone only

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9
Q

What will selection of the TUNE knob to DSPL INHIB position on the RSP accomplish

A

Inhibit tuning

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10
Q

Where is the portable fire extinguisher installed?

A

Behind the copilot seat

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11
Q

The directional lamps adjacent to the CPL button on the FCP are used to indicate:

A

PFD to which the FD/AP is coupled

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12
Q

What action must occur if the overwing emergency exit locking pin is installed?

A

Remove before flight

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13
Q

The HUD and EVS image brightness and contrast are controlled by:

A

Rotary operation of the HUD and CVS control knobs

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14
Q

Which areas are monitored by the FIDEEX control unit for smoke detection?

A

Avionics compartment, lavatories, closets and baggage area

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15
Q

What function do the pull handles on the pressure relief valves provide?

A

Test the pressure relief valves for operation

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16
Q

What is the maximum allowable altitude for APU operations?

A

45000ft

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17
Q

If the ECL fails, where are the alternative versions of the checklists available?

A

Paper QRH 1 and 2, and IFIS DOCS function

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18
Q

TRUE or FALSE? The TAT probe located in the inlet of the engines is used for engine control only?

A

FALSE

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19
Q

With seatbelt signs switch in auto, names the conditions that will cause the seat belt signs to illuminate:

A

Slats/flaps not in 0; Landing gear down; EDM active

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20
Q

Indications provided as the stall protection computer approaches and experiences a stall?

A

Low speed cue appears turning amber, ignition activated, shakers activated, AP disengages, stall aural sounds, pitch disc system locks, stall appears in the attitude sphere, both control columns driven forward

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the APU fire handle lockout pin?

A

Prevent accidental discharge of both fire extinguishers into the APU

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22
Q

What are the primary and alternate control modes for setting engine thrust?

A

EPR as primary and N1 as alternate

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23
Q

Turbulence indications are available for all selected weather radar ranges.

A

FALSE: The weather radar must be selected at a range of 40NM or less for operation of the turbulence mode.

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24
Q

Which EICAS pages display door information?

A

Status page and primary page

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25
Q

A status message of EVS CAL is shown on EICAS when:

A

Pilot-selected calibration is being carried out

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26
Q

How do you verify the correct version of the checklist that is loaded in the ECL?

A

Version number is on the first dialog box when the checklist is started

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27
Q

The Nav button on the CTP us used to:

A

Select the VHF navigation radio as the onside navigation source

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28
Q

Where is the cabin escape rope located?

A

Aft of the overwing exit

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29
Q

Describe the two ways ram air is used and the altitudes at which it can and cannot be used

A

Provides cooling for the heat exchangers of the cooling packs; to supply an alternative air supply source when both packs have failed; can be used below 8000ft and is inhibited above 15000ft

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30
Q

How is an autothrottle warning acknowledged and silenced?

A

Push the AT quick disconnect on the throttle

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31
Q

With the loss of all AC power, which HYD pump(s) is powered when the RAT is operating?

A

No ACMP’s operate and RAT provides power to a RAT HYD pump to operate system 3

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32
Q

While in NAV mode with FMS source, the preview function allows the pilot to preview:

A

LOC, B/C, or ILS course data before a transfer

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33
Q

How are changes for contaminated runway calculations made?

A

Select “dry”, then apply corrections from the QRH1 and manually insert the data

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34
Q

Predictive RAIM (P-RAIM) data is entered on the:

A

FMS SENSORS format

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35
Q

The MASTER WARNING/CAUTION switchlight flashes when an associated CAS message is displayed and remains flashing:

A

Until either MASTER WARNING/CAUTION switchlight is pressed

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36
Q

After a normal uninterrupted use of the nose wheel compartment lights, how long does it take to turn off automatically?

A

20minutes

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37
Q

With the APU operating, under what conditions is manual operation of the APU load control valve(LCV) not possible?

A

Anti Ice is active, left engine regulating valve is manually opened and the right engine PRV and the Xbleed valve are manually opened

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38
Q

During preflight “FMS Programmed” step complete. “SEND” on departure data page is pressed. Takeoff data is not posted on the speed tape and the message “Armed” appears. When will the takeoff data post?

A

When the aircraft configuration is correct for takeoff, the data will post

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39
Q

Which methods can be used to adjust the vertical rate when operating the AP in vertical speed (VS) mode?

A

Either method: thumb wheel or TCS button, is acceptable

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40
Q

What occurs in AUTO mode if the left engine bleed air is lost?

A

X bleed valve opens(left wing anti ice valve closes)

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41
Q

An indication of a successful test of the cockpit voice recorder is indicated by:

A

Green TEST light on the CVR panel

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42
Q

In reference to the operation of the ISI…

A

…the stby pitot/static probe provides pitot and static input directly to the ISI

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43
Q

Where is the protective breathing equipment located in the flight compartment?

A

Behind copilot seat

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44
Q

When ( A ) loops in a circuit indicate a bleed air leak has occurred, a ( B ) message is displayed on EICAS and the applicable valves are automatically closed by the BMC and/or air conditioning system controller

A

A: BOTH
B: CAUTION

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45
Q

A missing green blowout disc on the fuselage may indicate:

A

Overpressure of the oxygen cylinders

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46
Q

The ACMPs 1B, 2B and 3B control circuits do NOT require flap position information to operate when their control switches are selected to ON

A

TRUE: Flap position information is only required when operating in the AUTO selection

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47
Q

When will a heading select mode selection cause the aircraft to turn in the shortest arc rather than the direction of knob rotation?

A

Setting a heading before selecting HDG mode

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48
Q

What happens to the AP if the YD is disengaged?

A

AP disconnects

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49
Q

During the originating check, what is the rotary switch position on the passenger oxygen control panel?

A

NORMAL

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50
Q

Max operating altitude?

A

51,000 ft

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51
Q

Engaging the AP with no active flight director causes it to engage in basic heading and altitude hold modes

A

False

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52
Q

The TCS switch, located on the control wheel outboard horn, is used to:

A

Momentarily override the autopilot

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53
Q

In order to enable a flight plan modification, the crew must select the ENTER key on the MKP following each entry:

A

FALSE: The EXEC key is used to enter a modification to a displayed flight plan.

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54
Q

Provide a brief explanation of the NORM, LO, HIGH and MAN positions of the PACK CONTROL selector

A

NORM - Auto flow control, LO - Pack operates in low flow mode, HIGH - Pack operates in high flow mode, MAN - Flow control valve is driven full open (ACSC is disabled)

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55
Q

What is coloured magenta on the FMS LEG format of the route window?

A

TO waypoint data

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56
Q

TRUE or FALSE? Will an occurrence of Flaps/Slats not set for takeoff result in a voice message of “No takeoff”?

A

TRUE

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57
Q

Where are the taxi lights located?

A

Inboard of wing leading edges

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58
Q

A change in the oxygen quantity readout from green to amber indicates:

A

Oxygen has decreased below the acceptable limit

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59
Q

Min pavement width:
6000
5000

A

68ft

65’4”

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60
Q

The vertical FD (FPA) mode is used to maintain:

A

Desired flight path angle

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61
Q

Using the AFT XFER or WING XFER switches to move fuel under crew control is provided with similar protection as operation in auto:

A

FALSE: When transferring fuel manually, there is no protection to shutdown the transfer operation should a wing tank become full

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62
Q

Active FD modes are shown on the left side of the flight mode annunciation in green while the armed modes are shown on the right side in white

A

False

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63
Q

A STAB CH1 OFF status message indicates:

A

Channel 1 is selected off

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64
Q

Which bus will the RAT power when deployed?

A

AC ESS bus

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65
Q

The emergency lighting system power supply has a maximum duration of ______

A

Approximately 20mins

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66
Q

Align in motion (AIM) feature:

A

Allows IRS to recover full navigation capability in the event of a power loss. Provide attitude, rate and heading data. Provide automatic inflight alignment following momentary power loss.

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67
Q

Which ATC transponder should be made active when the flight guidance computer is receiving air data from air data computer 1?

A

Either ATC transponder maybe selected.

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68
Q

What is the purpose of the clear switch located on the pilot control wheel?

A

Enable or remove the EVS video from view

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69
Q

With external AC connected and the EXT AC swithlight selected ON, what will occur when the APU is started and the APU generator is providing power?

A

ON will remain illuminated even though the AC buses are powered by the APU generator

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70
Q

List fuselage doors monitored by the LGRCU and displayed on EICAS

A

All fuselage doors

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71
Q

The AFM limitation of 40kVA applies to APU operation:

A

Regardless of altitude but when the APU generator is powering a bus above FL370 the associated HYD pump must be switched off

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72
Q

Where is the oxygen system quantity readout displayed?

A

EICAS status page

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73
Q

A vertical track alert is issued on the PFD when the aircraft deviates from the selected altitude during altitude hold (ALT) mode operation

A

False

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74
Q

Max ITT for MCT operations?

A

860ºC

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75
Q

Where can brake temps be monitored?

A

Status page

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76
Q

Why does the APU remain in operation for 60secs before a normal shutdown command is received by the FADEC?

A

Cooldown

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77
Q

TRUE or FALSE? The HUD SVS image is an EXACT duplicate of the PFD SVS image?

A

FALSE

78
Q

What is the normal oxygen system charge pressure?

A

1850psi at 21ºC

79
Q

Where does the checklist appear when the ECL/SYS QAK key is pressed?

A

On DU4

80
Q

HYD systems required for normal landing gear extension and retraction cycles?

A

System 2 and 3

81
Q

In the basic roll (ROL) lateral mode, the FD holds a heading if:

A

Aircraft bank angle is below 5° when roll mode is selected

82
Q

The preselected fuel load, as entered using the PRESEL INCR/DECR switch on the refuel/defuel control panel indicates what the total fuel load should be once refuelling is completed:

A

TRUE: The preselected fuel load is the desired fuel load, not necessarily the uplift load

83
Q

Max OAT for APU bleed extraction for air conditioning system?

A

40ºC

84
Q

Where can the brake pressure be viewed ?AllA

A

HYD synoptic page

85
Q

Which HYD system for nose wheel steering system operation?

A

SYS 3

86
Q

The function of the FMS quick access key (QAK) is to:

A

Display a FMS format on the MFW of DU4

87
Q

Max Alt APU start?

A

37,000ft

88
Q

During an emergency depressurisation event, when the cabin altitude reaches 14500 ± 500f:

A

Outflow valves are commanded closed until the cabin drops below 14500 ± 500ft

89
Q

How are the service lights operation controlled?

A

Individual switches near the respective lighted areas

90
Q

TRUE or FALSE? The low-altitude awareness region is shown as a coloured block rising against the altitude tape based on RADALT?

A

TRUE

91
Q

The transponder operating mode is indicated on the:

A

CTP and CNS TUNING window

92
Q

If an internal APU FADEC fault occurs while the aircraft is on ground, the APU will:

A

Shut down automatically

93
Q

Where is the engine TAT probe that is checked during the pilot walk around located?

A

At the fan inlet

94
Q

The AFCS roll input will be lost if a jam occurs in the left aileron control circuit

A

FALSE: The AFCS will continue to provide roll input as the AP servo motor is connected to the right aileron quadrant

95
Q

The bleed source priority for engine start on the ground is?

A

Provided by the APU

96
Q

If the HUD is not in the proper position:

A

ALIGN HUD message is shown on the HUD display

97
Q

Automatic navigation radio tuning may be carried out by the FMS by enabling audio tuning from the:

A

CTP or CNS TUNING window

98
Q

What page are departure obstacle calculations made?

A

Page 2 of Departure Data

99
Q

The FMS navigation database must be updated:

A

Every 28 days

100
Q

The fuel control panel includes coloured flow lines which are illuminated to show fuel movement between tanks?

A

FALSE: Fuel flow may only be viewed on the fuel synoptic page

101
Q

Which of the following SVS elements provide information on TAWS alerts? Terrain, Airport/Runways, Weather, or Sky?

A

Terrain

102
Q

How many AC buses are there in the Global 6000 and 5000(BVFD)

A

8- 4 primary in ACPC, 4 feeder in CCBP

103
Q

AFM limitation of 200KIAS applies to:

A

Maximum operating speed for gear extension and retraction

104
Q

Where is information relating to the GNSS status displayed?

A

On the FMS initialisation (INIT) and SENSORS format on any MFW

105
Q

Where are the adjustments to Vref made?

A

On the VNAV/Thrust ARR tab

106
Q

Selecting CPL when the FD is active and in view will cause all selected modes to be lost and revert to basic ROLL and FPA modes?

A

True

107
Q

The main wheel well detection system is provided by:

A

Single loop system monitored by the FIDEEX control unit

108
Q

What does changing the landing runway on the Arrival Data page accomplish?

A

Changes only the landing field length and heading for landing data calculations

109
Q

With external DC power connected, selection of the EXT DC control switch lights to ON will direct external DC power to:

A

APU battery direct bus

110
Q

When illuminated, an indicator light next to each mode button on the flight control panel indicates that the:

A

Mode has been selected

111
Q

When used together for emergency purposes, the two aircraft batteries can provide DC power for:

A

15min

112
Q

How do you review a non-normal checklist for a condition without a CAS message displayed?

A

From the INDEX dropdown menu

113
Q

A yellow cross in the flow blinker on the crew mask storage container indicates that:

A

Oxygen is flowing

114
Q

Selecting the pilot(left)FD button when the autopilot is engaged and coupled to the left PFD will:

A

Have no effect on the FD or AP

115
Q

One of the functions of the air scoops, installed in the lower surface of each wing is to provide fuel tank venting while refuelling?

A

TRUE: The air scoops provide tank venting during refuelling in addition to providing a positive tank pressure during flight

116
Q

With the passenger oxygen selected to NORMAL, what condition is required for automatic deployment of passenger oxygen masks?

A

Cabin alt reaches approx 14,500ft

117
Q

What occurs if MAN position only is selected from the LDG ELEV - MAN/FMS switch located on the pressurisation panel?

A

EICAS message is displayed until an UP or DN selection is received

118
Q

Name all the functions that are carried out when an engine fire DISCH handle is pulled to the armed position

A

Fuel shutoff valve closed, HYD shutoff valve closed, Bleed air shutoff valve closed, VFG off, fire extinguisher armed

119
Q

Which type of pump powers HYD sys 1

A

One ACMP and 1 EDP

120
Q

How many knots of adjustment maybe made to Vref?

A

10

121
Q

What should occur if a persistent left engine FIRE warning is present after the deployment of fire extinguisher No.1?

A

Pilot turns the engine fire handle fully in the opposite direction to deploy the second bottle

122
Q

Manual selection of the DISPLAYS rotary selector on reversion switch panel from NORM to REV causes:

A

Primary flight and EICAS data to show as a compressed format on pilot and copilot displays, replacing normal PFD data

123
Q

The maximum time to fully discharge a portable fire extinguisher is:

A

8-15 secs

124
Q

A passenger door is safely closed and locked when:

A

Alignment indicators are presented on the inside of the door and a green door position indication on the status page

125
Q

What is the purpose of the emergency flow control on the crew mask?

A

Provides a constant flow of oxygen at a positive pressure

126
Q

How many APU starts with-in what duration?

A

3 in 1 hour

127
Q

The EVENT button on the fwd aux control panel is used to:

A

Flag an event on the FDR

128
Q

Manually inserting landing speeds and sending the cyan numbers will prevent the use of FMS speeds on the approach:

A

FALSE

129
Q

What events related to flight controls will trigger a stall advance?

A

Slat/flap failure or fault

130
Q

What is the function of the DSPL INHIB position?

A

Inhibits the display tuning function

131
Q

What is the time interval for checking the engine oil level after engine shutdown?

A

5 to 30 minutes

132
Q

Where is the crew life vest stowed?

A

Beneath the crew seat pan

133
Q

What happens when the L or R WING landing light switch is selected to STEADY

A

Powers respective landing and taxi lights

134
Q

Which flight control system extension is prohibited above 18000ft?

A

Slats/flaps extension

135
Q

AUX PRESS system limitations

A

Prohibited above 41000ft

136
Q

During restarting of an engine in flight with the APU operating, what bleed air service does the bleed management controller command for the engine start?

A

Engine crossbleed start

137
Q

What message is shown when the VHF COM radio is transmitting?

A

TX

138
Q

The CTP self test will show

A

Individual radio system failure, the active frequency/channel, or code is displayed in amber

139
Q

If the fire extinguisher is discharged in the flight compartment, the flight crew must:

A

Don crew oxy masks and select EMERGENCY

140
Q

What does selecting the DC override switch do?

A

Allows both ESS TRU’s to bypass the DCPC and directly power the secondary power distribution assemblies (SPDAs)

141
Q

If the stabiliser trim switch is held in one direction for longer than 3 seconds:

A

Aural tone (clacker) is heard

142
Q

What AFCS function maybe carried out on the reversion switch panel using the AFCS 1/2 button?

A

Switch master-standby functions of the flight control system

143
Q

What action will occur when an APU fire is detected on the ground?

A

APU will shut down automatically

144
Q

In the event of an engine failure, a 10 minute takeoff limit applies to the use of:

A

EPR rating

145
Q

Crew alerting messages are displayed:

A

In groups according to category, and within each group by order of occurrence

146
Q

Which areas of the fire protection system are monitored by FIDEEX?

A

Dual loop sensing elements, Fire bottle pressure and squib circuits, Smoke and overheat detection

147
Q

During normal operations with AP engaged, what will occur if the pilot makes a manual pitch trim change without first pressing the TCS switch?

A

Autopilot will disconnect

148
Q

The fuel circulation system is completely automatic in operation on the Global 6000 and 5000(BVD)

A

TRUE

149
Q

AFM limitation with a failure or disengagement of YD at high altitude?

A

Max alt 41000ft

150
Q

What must be done prior to start, if an external or EICAS indication of N1 rotation exists due to tailwinds?

A

Crank the engine for 30secs followed immediately by an AUTO start

151
Q

TRUE or FALSE? Passenger oxygen is supplied from the same source as the flight crew and therapeutic oxygen

A

TRUE

152
Q

The terrain clearance floor function of the TAWS is primarily used:

A

Around the landing airport

153
Q

Under which of the following conditions would the emergency light selected ON

A

Emergency descent

154
Q

AFM limitation for flight spoiler deployment?

A

300ft

155
Q

At what aircraft speed does the RAT shed its electrical output to give priority to hydraulic functions?

A

147Kt

156
Q

A differential pressure of 0.1PSI must not be exceeded during:

A

Taxi and takeoff

157
Q

If a CAS message was displayed in the CAS window but has cleared itself, how do you view the checklist for the missing CAS message?

A

By using the QUEUE button

158
Q

Which reversion button provides alternate IRS data to the pilot system?

A

L PFD - IRS

159
Q

On the cockpit electrical control panel, an illuminated ON indication on the guarded RAT GEN control switch indicates that the:

A

RAT has been deployed and its generator is powering the AC ESS bus directly

160
Q

True or false? MLW is 78,600lb

A

True

161
Q

During the lamp test in the flight compartment, state which lights illuminate:

A

Overhead pushbutton annunciators, glareshield and pedestal lights

162
Q

TRUE or FALSE? Thermal crossover refers to the two times of day when there is little temperature difference between objects. This has the most effect on the EVS since the EVS operates by detected thermal differences.

A

TRUE

163
Q

The manual (MAN) operation allows for:

A

Gain and tilt selection

164
Q

To clear the inoperative page and enable the reversionary cross-side tuning selection the:

A

OFF/BRT knob has to be selected off on the inoperative CTP

165
Q

A difference between the FMQGC and FMS indicated fuel greater than 2% of the basic operating weight and resulting in a CHECK FUEL QUANTITY message on the FMS scratchpad may indicate a possible fuel leak?

A

TRUE: FMQGC indicates measured fuel quantity, FMS indicates expected quantity on a fuel rate. Should the values differ by a value greater than 2% of FMS indicated BOW, a message is displayed on the FMS

166
Q

Max airspeed and altitude permissible for landing gear fully extended

A

250KIAS, not above 20,000ft

167
Q

Max KIAS for all flap configurations

A

Flaps 0 - 225, 6 - 210, 16 - 210, 30 - 185

168
Q

The 1/2 BANK switch on the FCP is used to enable basic ROLL FD lateral mode?

A

FALSE

169
Q

TCAS resolution advisories (RA) are NOT issued when:

A

Aircraft altitude is below 1100ft AGL

170
Q

All main gear wheel brakes are applied when the park/emergency brake is set

A

TRUE

171
Q

What ACP selection(s) is(are) required when transmitting on PA?

A

PA pushbutton on top row

172
Q

The fire extinguisher bottles are monitored for:

A

Low pressure and squib failures

173
Q

What prevents a large rudder command input occurring when the aircraft is operating at high speed range?

A

Rudder travel limiter

174
Q

What systems control and power the thrust reversers?

A

EEC and electrical signals control, HYD SYS1 for left, and HYD SYS2 for right.

175
Q

The AP and YD buttons on the flight control are equipped with indicator lamps that indicate:

A

Which flight control system is controlling the AP and YD

176
Q

What is the maximum number of static dischargers that maybe missing before the aircraft is grounded?

A

Configuration deviation list identifies the requirements

177
Q

During ground operation, how is the primary navigation light protected from overheating?

A

Thermal switch integrated for automatic switching to secondary navigation lights

178
Q

Fire detection and protection is provided in the:

A

Engines and the APU compartment only

179
Q

The active/standby role of the two auto throttle computers are switched?

A

Automatically with the AFCS based on the date at each start up.

180
Q

The max pressure differential permitted during initial landing(touchdown)?

A

1.0PSI

181
Q

What does the speed indication shown above the airspeed tape represent?

A

Active speed reference

182
Q

The autothrottle system will not engage on the ground if engage is selected and:

A

Aircraft speed is above 60kt

183
Q

TRUE or FALSE? An ENG miscompare flag is shown on the PFD when an engine experiences a parameter exceedence

A

FALSE

184
Q

List the components that are tested during a pilot initiated test and the indications associated with a successful test of the fire protection system

A

All fire/overheat loops and all smoke detectors are tested. on fire test completion and successful, all warning messages removed from EICAS, fire warning aural will silence and master WARNING handles and fire handles DISCH lights will go out

185
Q

What is the maximum N2 indicated RPM permitted for engine starter engagement?

A

42%

186
Q

With both L ENG BLEED and R ENG BLEED in the ON position:

A

Bleed management controller (BMC) controls bleed pressure

187
Q

Which switch to acknowledge an AP disconnect warning?

A

MASTER DISC switch on the control wheel

188
Q

Which HYD system components are NOT represented on the HYDRAULIC synoptic page?

A

Heat exchangers

189
Q

What happens to the outflow valves when an OUTFLOW VLV switch located on the cabin pressurisation control panel is activated:

A

It is immediately driven to the close position

190
Q

Selection of the VOX(voice activation) allows hot mic operation for flight/service interphone

A

True

Global 6000 (18 decks)

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