Review Question and Main Points Related to Metabolic Stress/Thermal Injury/TBI Flashcards

1
Q

Be able to compare the metabolic response for starvation to the metabolic response to stress: Starvation

A

Starvation: REE and RQ lower (hypometabolic rate burning fat)
Stress: REE and RQ higher (hypermetabolic rate and burning mixed diet) Increased urinary nitrogen loss and gluconeogenesis (fat stores cannot be utilized to meet energy needs).

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2
Q

What are the three phases of metabolic stress?

A

Ebb phase, Flow phase (acute), and Flow phase (adaptive).

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3
Q

Ebb phase

A

hypovolemic shock (decrease metabolic stress, lasts 2-48 hours, decreased BP, cardiac output and urinary output)

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4
Q

Flow phase (acute response)

A

hypermetabolism and catabolism peak 3-4 days (days/catabolism)

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5
Q

Flow phase (Adaptive response)

A

Anabolism resolves in 9-14 days. decreased hypermetabolic rate (weeks/anabolism)

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6
Q

How are energy and protein needs measured?

A

indirect calorimetry and nitrogen balance studies.

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7
Q

What overall changes in metabolism are associated with metabolic stress?

A

Hyperglycemia, increased protein and energy needs

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8
Q

Describe the impact of metabolic stress on nutrient absorption and the GI tract

A

1) intestinal villi shrink and up to 90% function can be lost 2) decreased gastric motility 3) GI tract compromised

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9
Q

Define Therapeutic hypothermia. How is it performed? How does it potentially benefit the patient?

A

1) Deliberate reduction of the core body temperature to 32-34 degree C or 89.6 - 93.2 degrees F 2) utilize ice packs, cooling blankets and helmets, infusion of cold fluids 3) decreases the rate of cell death, cerebral edema, improves response to defibrillation.

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10
Q

Identify three important goals of MNT in the treatment of burn wounds

A

COP 1) Counteract the effects of the burn metabolic state 2) optimize the immune system 3) promote the healing of the burn wounds.

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11
Q

Identify factors which have the greatest influence on the individual’s ability to survive the burn injury. Which two are most important?

A

1) depth of burn 2) percentage of body surface area (BSA). Others (age, nutritional status, overall health status

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12
Q

Superficial Burns

A

1st degree do not normally require skin grafting and scarring is not common.

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13
Q

Superficial partial-thickness burns

A

2nd degree (blisters, weeping, moist, and painful to air and pressure) heal in 7-20 days. does not normally require skin grafting and scarring is not common

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14
Q

Deep Partial-Thickness burns

A

3rd degree healing greater than 21 days, retain perception of pressure only. Require surgery to excise eschar and skin grafting. Scarring and contracture are a definite risk

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15
Q

Full thickness burns

A

4th degree. Sensation to deep pressure only. (never heal) require surgery to remove eschar and skin grafting. Scarring and contracture are a definite risk.

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16
Q

How is percent BSA determined? Why is it important to estimate percent BSA as accurately as possible? How is assessing body surface for infants different for adults?

A

1) Rule of 9s 2) Fluid, energy, medication, and skin grafting considerations 3) children have different proportions.

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17
Q

What is the priority of treatment for the burn patient during the first 24 hours?

A

1) assessment of the airway and ventilation status 2) fluid/electrolyte resuscitation 3) Maintain vital organ function

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18
Q

In the burn patient energy and protein needs are directly proportional to….

A

the depth of the burn and the percentage BSA burned and decrease as the burn wounds heal.

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19
Q

What is the gold standard in determining the level of nutrition to give to the burn patient?

A

indirect calorimetry

20
Q

Serum albumin in burns

A

Remains depressed until the burn is healed

21
Q

Protein need assessment in the burn patient

A

1) nitrogen balance studies 2) adjust for nitrogen loss from the burn area

22
Q

Identify macronutrients which are routinely supplemented for patients with burn injuries to aid in wound healing.

A

1) Glutamine ( 0.2 - 0.4 g/kg/day) 2) Vitamin C to aid in collagen synthesis/ wound repair 3) Zinc (wound repair and protein metabolism)

23
Q

What is the role of enteral feeding in meeting the patient’s needs

A

1) patient can’t consume calories 2) preserve lean body mass 3) ileus present.

24
Q

Heat/smoke/toxin inhalation

A

60-80% of fatalities from burn injuries; cause upper respiratory edema (need to intubate)

25
Q

Silver sulfadiazine cream/Silver nitrate

A

Treat bacterial/fungal infection

26
Q

Oxandrolone

A

anabolic steroid promotes protein synthesis in severe burns

27
Q

Debridement

A

removal of eschar so that wound can close

28
Q

Dermabrasion

A

minimize the appearance of scars, restore function

29
Q

Skin grafts

A

autograft (own skin) full thickness (all dermis less scarring; partial dermal layer takes better. allograft (another persons skin)

30
Q

Skin substitutes

A

synthetic skins temp/promote wound healing

31
Q

xenograft

A

skin from a different organism

32
Q

Contractures

A

loss of joint function in people with burns; skin tight as wound heals tx: PT

33
Q

curling ulcer

A

stress ulcer. Acute gastric erosion

34
Q

TBI

A

Physical damage to the brain that disrupts its function

35
Q

Brain stem

A

basic functions breathing, heartbeat, and blood pressure

36
Q

Cerebellum

A

balance, movement, and posture

37
Q

Cerebrum

A

Thoughts, actions, and decision making, problem solving, smell, vision.

38
Q

Most common causes of TBI. Who is at risk? What age group?

A

Falls, motor accidents, violent assaults, sports, Males ( 0 -4 and 15-19)

39
Q

Compartment syndrome D, C, TX

A

D: Excessive pressure build up in an enclosed space in the body. C: burns, bone fractures TX: fasciotomy

40
Q

Focal damage vs diffuse damage

A

Focal damage: The point where the head hits an object or where object enters Diffuse: brain moves back and forth in the skull

41
Q

Why are speech and language abilities commonly negatively impacted by a TBI?

A

Because that region of the brain sits in pockets of the skull that allow for more movement than normal.

42
Q

Describe what happens in Shaken Baby Syndrome

A

1) baby violently shaken 2) weak neck muscles and large heavy head 3) fragile brain bounces back and forth 4) causes bruising, swelling, and bleeding in the brain

43
Q

What is the glascow coma scale?

A

Measures the patients level of consciousness and the ability to respond to (ocular, motor, or verbal stimuli). scale 1-15

44
Q

What is the ranchos los amigos scale?

A

Measures the levels of awareness, cognition, behavior, and interactions with the environment

45
Q

What two features of TBI result in the most fatalities?

A

Bleeding and edema; lead to seizures, stroke; TX: Reduce pressure, partial lobectomy, or craniectomy

46
Q

Describe how TBI impacts energy and protein needs. What additional considerations exist which often impact the patient’s nutrition?

A

1) SIRS 2) hypermetabolism, hyperglycemia, lipolysis, if no MNT 15% of body weight loss. 3) 40% increase in caloric intake (determined by indirect calorimetry) 4) Protein (1.5 -2.2 g/kg).