Review (Q 1-5) Flashcards

1
Q

atypical cell with halo appearance

A

koilocytosis

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2
Q

saw tooth appearance of rete ridges

A

lichen planus

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3
Q

Poorly differentiated vulvar cancer is associated with

A

HPV/non-keratinizing

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4
Q

Most common male birth defect is

A

cryptorchidism

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5
Q

adenocarcinoma of the ovary with a worse prognosis

A

signet cells

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6
Q

cancer with lobular pattern of cells

A

seminoma

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7
Q

Vaginal d/c that contains squamous cells covered with little dots (Clue Cells)

A

Gardnerella Vaginosis

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8
Q

What vulvar condition presents with red, white, and yellow colors

A

VIN

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9
Q

What is the most common site of endometriosis for implantation

A

ovaries

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10
Q

What organism is most characteristic of Gram Neg diplococci

A

Gonorrhea

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11
Q

Which vaginal infection will have a pH of 4.5 or lower

A

candida

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12
Q

Which serum marker is not associated with embryonal type testicular cancer

A

Alk Phos

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13
Q

What is henoch schonlein associated with

A

IgA Nephropathy

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14
Q

Most commonly associated with eosinophilia (kidney)

A

acute interstitial nephritis

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15
Q

Rhomboid, cuboid and square in shape

A

uric acid stone

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16
Q

michaelis-gutmann bodies associated with

A

malakoplakia

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17
Q

childhood pkd is (genetically)

A

autosomal recessive

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18
Q

simple cysts increase with

A

age

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19
Q

Adult PKD concurrent with

A

liver cysts

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20
Q

kidney dialysis increased risk of

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

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21
Q

Diffuse thickening of the basement membrane wall, thickening of the capillary loops with no cellular proliferation

A

membranous GN

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22
Q

MC cause of Nephrotic syndrome in African Americans

A

Focal Segmental GN

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23
Q

Which condition is seen with little or no glomerular change under light microscopy

A

Lipoid

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24
Q

What habit is high risk for development of bladder cancer

A

Tobacco

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25
Q

which is the microorganism that might be more associated with cystitis

A

E. coli

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26
Q

What type of cell is mostly associated with renal cell carcinoma

A

clear cell

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27
Q

What is the pathognomic characteristic of interstitial cystitis

A

Hunner’s ulcers (cells?)

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28
Q

What are the Four hallmark features of Nephrotic Syndrome

A

Proteinuria
Decreased serum protein Increased serum lipid levels
Generalized edema

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29
Q

Protein spilled with Multiple Myeloma

A

Bence Jones

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30
Q

Which condition of the renal vessels presents with “Skip lesions”

A

Ischemic

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31
Q

Most common renal tumor in children

A

Wilms

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32
Q

Which appearance of arteriolar tissue presents with hyperplastic changes that look like an “Onion ring” appearance

A

Malignant nephrosclerosis

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33
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome (stone)

A

Uric Acid

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34
Q

Bacterial urea lysing (stone)

A

Triple phosphate

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35
Q

Basic urine pH (stone)

A

Triple phosphate

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36
Q

Genetic cause (stone)

A

cysteine

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37
Q

Beta cell hylanization and amyloid deposition without lympocytes

A

DM 2

38
Q

condition with hypercalcitonin secretion

A

medullary thyroid cancer

39
Q

First visible microscopic change seen in DM II

A

capillary thickening

40
Q

What underliying condition has hypercalemia in the presence due to elevated PTHrP

A

Small cell lung CA

41
Q

Mostly common anterior pituitary functional tumor

A

Prolactinoma

42
Q

c peptide and what form of diabetes are levels highest

A

DM 2

43
Q

Second common cause of Hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroid (Primary) Hyperplasia

44
Q

What condition is associated with “Rosette Cells”

A

Neuroblastoma

45
Q

Frond like appearance

A

papillary

46
Q

Thyroid CA that is well encapsulated

A

follicular

47
Q

Thyroid CA that is poorly differentiated/undifferentiated cells

A

anaplastic

48
Q

Psamomma bodies are associated with

A

papillary thyroid cancer

49
Q

Chromaffin Cells are associated with

A

pheochromocytoma

50
Q

De Quervan’s is associated with

A

Granulomas

51
Q

Most common cause of Hypercalcemia in outpatient setting is

A

parathyroid adenoma (?)

52
Q

type of diabetes with Ab’s against insulin, islet cells and GAD

A

Types 1 and 1.5

53
Q

In which condition would you see the largest increase in TSH

A

Primary hypothyroidism

54
Q

2 hormones that are diminished in congenital 21 hydroxylase deficiency

A

cortisol and aldosterone

55
Q

Why does 1ry addison’s has hyperpigmentation and 2ry addison’s doesn’t

A

1ry Addisons is due to problems in the adrenal glands, so the pituitary is noticing adrenal hormones deficiency and producing a bunch of ACTH that stimulate melanocytes. 2ry can be due to long term use of glucocorticoids which shuts down the pituitary ability to produce ACTH and this causes the palor.

56
Q

second most common CAH is

A

11 hydroxylase deficiency

57
Q

Associated with thymoma in men

A

myasthenia gravis

58
Q

mosaic pattern of lamellar bone

A

Paget’s disease

59
Q

Disease associated w/ mixed B and T cells

A

Dermatomyositis

60
Q

Most common organism involved in osteomyelitis is

A

Staph Aureus

61
Q

Antibodies against presynaptic calcium channels

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

62
Q

Hypermineralization of bone

A

osteopetrosis

63
Q

uniform, densely packed, tumor cells with a single, round or oval nucleus appearance somewhat resembling lymphocytes

A

Ewing sarcoma

64
Q

Anti-CCP is most sensitive for?

A

RA

65
Q

gritty red appearance surrounded by dense sclerotic bone

A

osteoid osteoma

66
Q

honeycombing appearance (bone)

A

aneurysmal bone cyst

67
Q

skip lesions (bone)

A

sarcoma of bone

68
Q

symmetrical appearance (bone)

A

simple bone cyst

69
Q

spindle shaped cells (bone)

A

fibrosarcoma

70
Q

antibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors

A

myasthenia gravis

71
Q

Fibrous-lined cysts in the subchondral bone with osteophytes

A

osteoarthritis

72
Q

Deposits of amyloid-related proteins within the muscle cells and inclusions

A

inclusion myositis

73
Q

Which joint is most commonly affected in gout

A

1st metatarsal

74
Q

Which is the protein that is deficient in Duchenne dystrophy

A

dystrophin

75
Q

What is the most common soft tissue tumor in children

A

rhabdomyosarcoma

76
Q

what is the mineral deposition that causes pseudogout

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

77
Q

Describe a Myasthenic Crisis

A

“Myasthenic crisis is a life-threatening condition, which is defined as weakness from acquired myasthenia gravis that is severe enough to necessitate intubation or to delay extubation following surgery. The respiratory failure is due to weakness of respiratory muscles.” (Up To Date)

78
Q

lobe affected by HSV

A

temporal lobe

79
Q

70 yr old patient with bacterial meningitis (type)

A

strep pneumonia

80
Q

Low MAFP associated w/

A

Downs Syndrome

81
Q

Most common cause of acute generalized paralysis in US

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

82
Q

how is gaze affected in occulomotor nerve

A

downward and lateral

83
Q

Bilateral Bell’s Palsy most like from

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

84
Q

most common location of ulnar entrapment

A

elbow

85
Q

india ink used to detect what organism

A

cyrptococcus

86
Q

what condition is associated with periventricular leukomalacia

A

cerebral palsy

87
Q

what organism is most likely the causative agent in a neonate with bacterial meningitis

A

E. coli

88
Q

Cerebral Palsy percentage that occurs in childbirth

A

10%

89
Q

What is Hutchinson’s sign and why is it important

A

A skin lesion on the tip of the nose. Precedes development of ophthalmic herpes zoster which leads to chronic ocular inflammation, vision loss, and debilitating pain.

90
Q

Protein defective in neurofibromatosis type 2

A

Protein Merlin

91
Q

List 3 mechanisms for diabetic neuropathy

A

hypoxia, ischemia, chronic hyperglycemia. Could also say increased sorbitol, decreased inositol, and reduced Na/K ATPase activity.

92
Q

What nerve is involved in meralgia paresthetica

A

lateral cutaneous nerve