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CompTIA A+ 220-901/902 > Review Guide: 220-902 Practice Exam 1 > Flashcards

Review Guide: 220-902 Practice Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

According to CompTIA, what is the first step in the troubleshooting theory?

A. Identify the problem.

B. Establish a plan of action.

C. Verify full system functionality.

D. Document.

A

Identify the problem.

The first step is to identify the problem. One way of so doing is to question the user and identify user changes to the computer.

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2
Q

Which of the following is a command that enables you to verify the route to a remote host?

A. NETSTAT

B. NSLOOKUP

C. TRACERT

D. ECHOOFF

A

C. TRACERT

TRACERT is a command that enables you to verify the route to a remote host.

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3
Q

Which of the following is a command that can be used to troubleshoot DNS issues?

A. NETSTAT

B. NSLOOKUP

C. TRACERT

D. ECHOOFF

A

B. NSLOOKUP

The NSLOOKUP command is used to troubleshoot DNS issues on a device.

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4
Q

Which switch can be used with IPCONFIG to obtain a new IP address?

A. /RELEASE

B. /NEW

C. /IP

D. /RENEW

A

D. /RENEW

The /RENEW switch can be used with the IPCONFIG command to obtain a new IP address.

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5
Q

Which switch is used with CHKDSK to tell it to fix errors that it finds?

A. /R

B. /C

C. /S

D. /A

A

A. /R

The /R (or /F) switch is used with CHKDSK to tell it to fix errors that it finds.

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6
Q

Which wireless technology is most often used to connect peripherals to a mobile device?

A. 802.11a

B. Bluetooth

C. DSSS

D. WiMax

A

B. Bluetooth

Bluetooth is a short-range wireless technology that is used to create a wireless connection between digital devices. One of its applications is to create connections between mobile devices and items such as speakers, headphones, external GPS units, and keyboards.

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7
Q

Which of the following is known as the System Configuration Editor?

A. Edit

B. MSConfig

C. MSN

D. Regedit

A

B. MSConfig

The MSConfig utility, known as the System Configuration Editor, helps troubleshoot startup problems by allowing you to selectively disable individual items that normally are executed at startup.

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8
Q

Which type of backup backs up only files for which the archive bit is currently turned on and leaves the archive bit in its current state?

A. Incremental

B. Differential

C. Full

D. Modification

A

B. Differential

A differential backup backs up only files for which the archive bit is currently turned on and leaves the archive bit in its current state.

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9
Q

You are currently working at the command line in the directory C:\Novell\Messenger\LogFiles and type CD .. Where will this move you to?

A. C:\Novell\Messenger\LogFiles

B. C:\Novell\Messenger

C. C:\Novell

D. C:\

A

B. C:\Novell\Messenger

The command CD .. would move you to C:\Novell\Messenger, while CD . would not move you to any other directory but simply signify the existing directory.

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10
Q

Which switch is used with the COPY command to tell it that you are working with an ASCII text file?

A. /Z

B. /A

C. /V

D. /Y

A

B. /A

The /A switch tells COPY that you are working with an ASCII text file.

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11
Q

Which versions of Windows Vista offer offline file support? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Enterprise

B. Business

C. Ultimate

D. Home Professional

A

A. Enterprise

B. Business

C. Ultimate

In Windows Vista, offline file support is limited to the Business, Enterprise, and Ultimate versions.

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12
Q

Which switch is used with DEFRAG to force defragmentation even when disk space is low?

A. /A

B. /F

C. /V

D. /Z

A

B. /F

The /F switch is used with DEFRAG to force defragmentation even when disk space is low.

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13
Q

Which command is like COPY but also duplicates any subfolders?

A. XCOPY

B. SCOPY

C. DCOPY

D. GCOPY

A

A. XCOPY

XCOPY is like COPY, but it also duplicates any subfolders.

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14
Q

Which of the following commands can be used to set network-related configuration?

A. NET ACCOUNTS

B. NET COMPUTER

C. NET CONFIG

D. NET FILES

A

C. NET CONFIG

NET CONFIG is used to see network-related configuration. NET ACCOUNTS is used to set account options (password age, length, and so on). The NET COMPUTER command can be used to add and delete computer accounts. NET FILES can be used to close open files.

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15
Q

Which NTFS permission allows the user to navigate the entire directory structure, view the contents of the directory, view the contents of any files in the directory, and see ownership and attributes?

A. List

B. Read

C. Modify

D. Write

A

B. Read

The Read permission allows the user to navigate the entire directory structure, view the contents of the directory, view the contents of any files in the directory, and see ownership and attributes.

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16
Q

Which command can be used to add and delete computer accounts?

A. NET ACCOUNTS

B. NET COMPUTER

C. NET CONFIG

D. NET FILES

A

B. NET COMPUTER

The NET COMPUTER command can be used to add and delete computer accounts. NET CONFIG is used to see network-related configuration. NET ACCOUNTS is used to set account options (password age, length, and so on). NET FILES can be used to close open files.

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17
Q

Which Windows 7 edition is available only in a 32-bit version?

A. Windows 7 Starter.

B. Windows 7 Home Premium.

C. Windows 7 Professional.

D. None. All are available in both 32-bit and 54-bit versions.

A

A. Windows 7 Starter.

Windows 7 Starter is available only in a 32-bit version and supports a single processor with a maximum of 2 GB of RAM.

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18
Q

Which Windows feature allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon?

A. ReadyBoost

B. Defender

C. UAC

D. BitLocker

A

D. BitLocker

BitLocker allows you to use drive encryption to protect files, including those needed for startup and logon.

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19
Q

What is the result of pressing Ctrl+Shift+Esc in Windows 7?

A. You toggle between windows.

B. Flip 3D opens.

C. Task Manager opens.

D. The screen lock is activated.

A

C. Task Manager opens.

To get to the Task Manager directly in any of the Windows versions, you can press Ctrl+Shift+Esc.

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20
Q

Which type of virus is designed to make itself difficult to detect or analyze?

A. Armored

B. Red

C. Companion

D. Murky

A

A. Armored

An armored virus is designed to make itself difficult to detect or analyze.

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21
Q

What is the part of a virus that uniquely identifies it?

A. Fingerprint

B. Signature

C. Swirl

D. Yarn

A

B. Signature

A signature is an algorithm or other element of a virus that uniquely identifies it.

22
Q

Which type of virus changes form in order to avoid detection?

A. Phage

B. Polymorphic

C. Phlegmatic

D. Time bomb

A

B. Polymorphic

Polymorphic viruses change form in order to avoid detection.

23
Q

On a SOHO network, which service should you avoid using to keep from issuing IP addresses to hosts other than those you recognize and want on the network?

A. DHCP

B. NAT

C. DNS

D. IMAP

A

A. DHCP

Static IP addresses should be used (avoiding issue by DHCP) on small office/home office networks to keep from issuing them to hosts other than those you recognize and want on the network.

24
Q

Which of the following is not a type of wireless encryption that can be used on a SOHO wireless network?

A. WPA2

B. TFTP

C. WEP

D. WPA

A

B. TFTP

The available types of wireless encryption available include WEP, WPA, and WPA2. TFTP is an unsecure form of FTP.

25
Q

Which of the following is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in right behind you?

A. Shoulder surfing

B. Key fobbing

C. Tailgating

D. Phishing

A

C. Tailgating

Tailgating is the term used for someone being so close to you when you enter a building that they are able to come in right behind you without needing to use a key, a card, or any other security device.

26
Q

Which of the following is a type of badge or card that gives you access to resources?

A. Smart card

B. Rootkit

C. Degaussing tool

D. MAC filter

A

A. Smart card

A smart card is a type of badge or card that gives you access to resources, including buildings, parking lots, and computers. It contains information about your identity and access privileges.

27
Q

What type of formatting is done by manufacturers of IDE drives and must be done before a drive can be partitioned?

A. High-level

B. Low-level

C. Quick

D. Cursory

A

B. Low-level

IDE hard drives are low-level formatted by the manufacturer. Low-level formatting must be performed even before a drive can be partitioned.

28
Q

When computer systems are retired, the disk drives should be zeroed out, and all magnetic media should be:

A. Degaussed

B. Filtered

C. Reset

D. Calibrated

A

A. Degaussed

When computer systems are retired, the disk drives should be zeroed out, and all magnetic media should be degaussed.

29
Q

What is another name for MAC filtering?

A. Pharming

B. Sanitation

C. Disabling SSID

D. Network lock

A

D. Network lock

On a number of wireless devices, the term network lock is used in place of MAC filtering, and the two are synonymous.

30
Q

Which principle should be used with assigning permissions?

A. Grandfather-father-son

B. Least privilege

C. Differential

D. Incremental

A

B. Least privilege

The principle of least privilege is that when assigning permissions, it gives users only the permissions they need to do their work and no more.

31
Q

When a loud noise comes from a PC, which of the following is most likely the source?

A. USB hub

B. Case fan

C. CMOS battery

D. Motherboard

A

B. Case fan

The case fan can make a noise when the fan begins to malfunction.

32
Q

From which government agency can MSDS sheets be obtained?

A. FCC

B. OSHA

C. FTC

D. EPA

A

D. EPA

These are traditionally created by the manufacturer, and you can obtain them from the manufacturer or from the Environmental Protection Agency at www.epa.gov.

33
Q

Which class of fire extinguisher is meant for electrical fires?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. None of the above

A

C. Class C

Three major classes of fire extinguishers are available, one for each type of flammable substance: A for wood and paper fires, B for flammable liquids, and C for electrical fires.

34
Q

Which of the following is important when planning for solving a customer’s problems?

A. Punctuality

B. Belatedness

C. Cell access

D. Humor

A

A. Punctuality

Punctuality is important and should be part of your planning process before you ever arrive at the site. If you tell the customer you’ll be there at a certain time, you need to make every attempt to be there at that time.

35
Q

Which of the following entails ensuring that data expected to remain private is seen only by those who should see it?

A. Repudiation

B. Negation

C. Confidentiality

D. None of the above

A

C. Confidentiality

Confidentiality entails ensuring that data expected to remain private is seen only by those who should see it. Confidentiality is implemented through authentication and access controls.

36
Q

When you begin to collect evidence, you must keep track of that evidence at all times and show who has it, who has seen it, and where it has been. What is this known as?

A. Annulment

B. Reinforcement

C. Chain of custody

D. Compliance

A

C. Chain of custody

It is known as chain of custody.

37
Q

You have been called to a site to clean a plethora of computers. Doing so will take cartons of compressed air, and you are looking for another solution. Which of the following can you use?

A. Air compressor

B. Feather duster

C. Iodized water

D. Hydrogen peroxide

A

A. Air compressor

It’s possible to use an air compressor instead of compressed-air cans when you need a lot of air. If you take this approach, make sure you keep the pounds per square inch (PSI) at or below 40 and include measures on the air compressor to remove moisture.

38
Q

Which switch is used with IPCONFIG to show all the information related to the network cards and not just the summary information?

A. /VIEW

B. /ALL

C. /SHOW

D. /TRACE

A

B. /ALL

The /ALL switch with IPCONFIG shows all the information related to the network cards and not just the summary information.

39
Q

To share the C:\SPENCER directory as MKTING, which command would you use?

A. ET USE MKTING C:\SPENCER

B. NET SHOW MKTING C:\SPENCER

C. NET SHARE MKTING=C:\SPENCER

D. NET MAKE C:\SPENCER MKTING

A

C. NET SHARE MKTING=C:\SPENCER

To share the C:\SPENCER directory as MKTING, the command to use is NET SHARE MKTING=C:\SPENCER.

40
Q

If Automatic Private IP Addressing is being used, what range will a host’s IP address fill within?

A. 255.0.0.1

B. 10.0.0.1

C. 1.1.1.1

D. 127.0.0.1

A

D. 127.0.0.1

The loopback address that is used for troubleshooting and diagnostic is 127.0.0.1.

41
Q

Which of the following commands can be used to set a user’s minimum password length?

A. NET ACCOUNTS

B. NET COMPUTER

C. NET CONFIG

D. NET FILES

A

A. NET ACCOUNTS

The NET ACCOUNTS command with the /minpwlen switch can be used to set the user’s minimum password length.

42
Q

Which switch is used to indicate PING should continue to ping the host without stopping until you break out of it (using Ctrl+C)?

A. /T

B. /L

C. /C

D. /S

A

A. /T

You can use the /T switch to indicate PING should continue to ping the host without stopping until you break out of it.

43
Q

The command IPCONFIG /RENEW will renew an IP address for the host from what type of server?

A. NS

B. DHCP

C. IPCONFIG

D. TRACERT

A

B. DHCP

The /RENEW switch with the IPCONFIG command renews an IP address for the host from a DHCP server.

44
Q

What Windows utility is used to prepare a computer to be imaged?

A. Sysprep

B. Ipconfig

C. Nslookup

D. MSConfig

A

A. Sysprep

The Sysprep utility makes an exact image or replica of the reference computer (also known as the master computer) to be installed on other computers. Sysprep removes the master computer’s security ID. When the device reboots with the new image, it will generate a new ID.

45
Q

Which installation method overwrites the operating system that existed on a machine and places a new one there?

A. Upgrade

B. Clean install

C. In-place upgrade

D. Refresh

A

B. Clean install

With a clean installation, you overwrite the operating system that existed on a machine and place a new one there. An example of a clean installation would be changing the operating system on a laptop from Windows Vista to Windows 7. The user accounts and other settings that existed with Windows Vista would be removed in the process and need to be re-created under Windows 7.

46
Q

Which of the following volume types combines space from a number of disks (up to 32) to appear as a single logical volume to the user but provides no fault tolerance?

A. Striped volume

B. RAID 5

C. Spanned volume

D. RAID 10

A

C. Spanned volume

Spanned means that you want space from a number of disks (up to 32) to appear as a single logical volume to the user(s). A minimum of two disks must be used, and no fault tolerance is provided by this option.

47
Q

Which file system is primarily used on Unix-based systems?

A. FAT

B. FAT32

C. NTFS

D. NFS

A

D. NFS

Network File System (NFS) is a distributed file system protocol originally developed by Sun Microsystems. While is supported on some Windows systems, it is primarily used on Unix-based systems.

48
Q

Which utility is used to terminate processes?

A. TASKKILL

B. ROBOCOPY

C. BOOTREC

D. TASKLIST

A

A. TASKKILL

The TASKKILL command can be used to terminate a process that has become problematic.

49
Q

On which tab of MSConfig can you choose the startup type?

A. oot

B. General

C. Services

D. Startup

A

B. General

On the General tab, you can choose the startup type. There are three sets of options: Normal, Diagnostic, and Selective.

50
Q

On which tab of Internet Options can you set Parental Controls options?

A. Security

B. Privacy

C. Content

D. Programs

A

C. Content

The Content tab contains Parental Controls and Content Advisor, both of which can be helpful for troubleshooting purposes.

CompTIA A+ 220-901/902 (20 decks)

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