Review Exam 1 Chapter 21 Flashcards

0
Q
CO  and BP are often decreased in which positions (select all that apply)
A. Sitting
B. Prone
C. Flexed Lateral
D. Supine
A

Sitting, Prone, Flexed Lateral

(anywhere that lower extremities are dependent) pg 403

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1
Q
Hemodynamic changes are generally minimal in which positions (select all that apply)
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Lateral
D. Lithotomy
A

Supine and Lateral

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2
Q

In the prone position, CVP is (increased or decreased), LV volume is (increased or decreased)?

A

CVP increased, LVV reduced
(probably due to decreased venous return and increased thoracic pressure. CI may be decreased or unchanged in the prone position and may depend on the frame used). Pg 403

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3
Q
Elevation of the legs in the lithotomy position may increase BP due to autotransfusion of how much blood per leg?
A. 80-100 mL
B 100-250 mL
C 200-300 mL
D 500 mL
A

B 100-250 mL per leg

Pg 403

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4
Q

MAP increases or decreases by approximately _____mmHg per inch for each change in height between the heart and body region?

A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4

A

B. 2 mmHg

Therefore regions elevated above the heart in the head up, sitting, or lithotomy positions may be at risk for hypoperfusion and ischemia, particularly if hypotension occurs. pg 403

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5
Q

For a pt in the head-up sitting position, when raised to 90 degrees, CO can decrease by as much as _____% due to blood pooling in the extremities.

A

20%

PG 403

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6
Q

When the pt is in the seated position, as compared to supine, CI is (increased or decreased), CVP (increased or decreased), PCWP (increased or decreased) and SVR is (increased or decreased)?

A. CI decreased, CVP decreased, PCWP increased, SVR decreased
B CI decreased, CVP decreased, PCWP decreased, SVR decreased
C CI increased, CVP increased, PCWP decreased, SVR increased
D CI decreased, CVP decreased, PCWP decreased, SVR increased

A

D. all decreased except SVR which is increased.

In procedures in which the head is elevated and CPP is a concern, A line monitoring should be used with the transducer at the level of the COW. (pg 403)

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7
Q

Proper positioning of the kidney rest in a pt in the lateral decubitous position is:
A under the dependent flank
B under the dependent last rib
C under the dependent iliac crest
D. under the dependent greater trochanter

A

C. Under the dependent iliac crest.

elevation of the kidney rest under the flank may cause vena cava compression. pg 403

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8
Q

Explain how large tidal volumes and peep affect atrial filling and cardiac output.

A

By increasing intrathoracic pressure, there is a subsequent reduction in atrial filling and cardiac output.

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9
Q

Name four interventions that may attenuate some position induced hemodynamic changes:

A

Slow assumption of surgical position, nitrous/narcotic technique that allows for a MAC <0.5, gradually attaining the desired MAC, intravascular volume loading prior to positioning (in pts not susceptible to volume overload).

PG 403

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10
Q

The combination of lithotomy and __________ may have a detrimental effect on myocardial function in pts with CAD.

A. Left Tilt
B. Right Tilt
C. Reverse Trend
D. Trend

A

D. Trendelenberg
because CVP, PAP, and PCWP are increased, whereas CO is decreased. The Trendelenberg position may increase myocardial work by increasing central blood volume, CO, and SV- pts with poor cardiac fxn have decreased CO if the central blood volume is increased. THEY MOVE TO A WORSE POSITION ON THE FRANK STARLING CURVE.

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11
Q
The lower extremities of pts with PVD may be at risk of ischemia in which positions? (select all that apply)
A. Lithotomy
B. Reverse Trend
C. Trend
D. Prone
A

A and C. Lithotomy and Trend because a relative state of hypoperfusion exists when the lower extremities are elevated above the heart.
Pg 404

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12
Q
Positional changes my result in redistribution of ventilation and perfusion.  These changes are less in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ position and more evident in \_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ positions. 
A. Sitting, prone, lateral
B. Prone, supine, lateral
C. Sitting, supine, prone
D. Prone, sitting, lateral
A

A. Less in sitting, more evident in prone and lateral.

Pg 404

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13
Q

T or F: In the prone position changes in V/Q ratios have been postulated as the cause of improved oxygenation.

A

True
More lung volume is present posteriorly than anteriorly as anterior mediastinal structures occupy a lot of space, so posterior lung segments are better ventilated. Ventilation is more uniform and V/Q matching is better in the prone position than in the supine position. PG 404

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14
Q

T or F: In the lateral position, ventilation and perfusion are greater in the dependent lung, than in the nondependent lung of awake, spontaneously breathing patient.

A

True

Pg 404

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15
Q
Patients are susceptible to atelectasis in the lateral position because \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ occurs above \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. closing volumes, FRC
B. FRC, Vital Capacity
C. FRC, Residual Volume
D. closing volumes, ERV
A

A. Closing volumes, FRC

Closing volumes occur above FRC with closing occuring earlier in the dependent than in the nondependent lung.
Pg 404

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16
Q
In one lung ventilation, administration of oxygen at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_L/min to the non-ventilated lung can significantly improve oxygenation, as well as the addition of 5-10 cm H20 of CPAP.
A. 1-2
B. 2-4
C. 5-6
D. 8-10
A

B. 2-4 L/min

Pg 404

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17
Q

In anesthetized patients in the lateral position, abdominal contents shift (cephalad/caudad) thereby (increasing/decreasing) ventilation in the dependent lung?

A

cephalad, decreasing and reducing the compliance.

In the nondependent lung the ventilation is greater, and teh compliance increased due to the caudal shift of the upper hemidiaphragm allowing unrestricted lung excursion.
Pg 405

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18
Q

In the awake pt ventilation favors the (dependent/non-dependent) lung. With the addition of anesthesia, PPV, and paralysis the (dependent,nondependent) lung is easier to ventilate?

A

dependent, non dependent. Due to the displacement of the relaxed diaphragm by abdominal viscera and downward force of the mediastinum resulting in decreased compliance of the lower lung.

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19
Q

Name the four primary mechanisms for nerve injury.

A

Transection, compression, stretch, kinking.

Pg 405

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20
Q
In the exaggerated lithotomy position, which type of nerve injury is most likely to occur to the femoral nerve
A. Transection
B. Compression
C. Stretch
D. Kinking
A

Kinking

The femoral nerve can be kinked under the inguinal ligament when thighs are flexed up.

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21
Q

A common component of all peripheral nerve injuries is ________

A

ischemia

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22
Q

High or low mean arterial blood pressure may augment the development of ischemic conditions?

A

Low. Pressure applied over a body surface may limit venous capillary outflow causing a rise in venous capillary pressure and a decrease in the hydrostatic pressure gradient between interstitial tissues and the capillary. Ultimately tissue edema occurs as fluid is sequestered in the cells and interstitial space. As venous capillary pressures rise, the A-V pressure gradient is reduced, decreasing flow to tissues along the capillary. If arterial pressure is low, it is quicker to become obstructed and ischemia results.

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23
Q

True or False, tissue metabolism continues in the absence of blood flow?

A

True, when ischemia ensues, ATP production is decreased, causing failure of the NaK pump and accumulation of Na in the cell….which results in the osmotic gradient favoring fluid moving into the cell—intracellular volume increases = edema.

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24
Q

Peripheral nerves are composed of bundles of nerve fibers known as ________.

A

fascicles

Pg 406

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25
Q

Each nerve fiber is composed of one or more axons sheathed by _____________.

A

Schwann cells (neurolemma) that are either myelinated or unmyelinated.

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26
Q

The axons and the neurolemma are covered by a loose connective tissue called the _____________.

A

endoneurium

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27
Q

The __________ is a tough connective tissue that binds the fascicles into identifiable structures.

A

perineurium

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28
Q

The ___________ consists of two layers, and inner that supports the fascicle and an outter that covers the external surface of the nerve.

A

epineurium

29
Q

True or False, the endoneurial space also houses lymphatic vessels?

A

False, the lack of lymphatic vessels can create edema and fluid accumulation in this region and obstruct the microcirculation.

30
Q

A duration of more than ______ hours is the common denominator POVL, nerve injuries, and compartment syndrome.

A

4 hours

31
Q
In neuraxial and PNB injuries, the majority are related to: (select all that apply)
A. positioning
B. block technique
C. hematoma formation
D. needle trauma
A

B, C, D

pg 406

32
Q

A BMI less than _________ makes the pt more susceptible to ulnar neuropathy.

A

22

33
Q
Type of physique that may be more at risk for ulnar nerve injury and compartment syndrome:
Muscular
Obese
Cachectic
Average build
A

Muscular.

Pg 406

34
Q

Name some pre existing conditions that predispose a pt to nerve injuries.

A

DM, HTN PVD, peripheral neuropathies, alcoholism

35
Q

What is the most common metabolic cause of spontaneous isolated femoral neuropathy?

A

DM

36
Q

T or F: Smoking within 1 month of the surgical procedure has been identified as a risk factor for nerve injury as well as delayed healing.

A

True

Pg 407

37
Q

Ulnar neuropathy is a well known complication of which type of surgery?

A

cardiac

38
Q

Which nerve was the first and second most commonly injured nerve?

A

ulnar

39
Q

Where does the ulnar nerve originate and terminate?

A

originates at the medial cord of the brachial plexus, terminates in the hand.

40
Q

Ulnar neuropathy is more frequently associated with the male or female gender?

A

Male, because men are fragile.

Pg 407

41
Q
In the lateral decubitous position, brachial plexus injury is most likely caused by 
A. transection
B. Stretching
C. Kinking
D. Compression
A

Stretching

42
Q

Although rare, hemiparesis and quadriplegia are associated with procedures performed in what two positions?

A. Lithotomy
B. Sitting
C. Prone
D. Lateral

A

Sitting and Prone

43
Q

Explain why hypotension may result in decreased spinal cord perfusion and new neuro deficits.

A

The absence of valves between the central venous and epidural venous systems allow direct transmission of increased abdominal or intrathoracic pressure to the vertebral venous systems. Congestion in the veins draining the spinal cord, coupled with hypotension, may result in decreased spinal cord perfusion and the onset of new neuro deficits.
pg 409

44
Q

name the 5 causes of vision loss after non ophthalmic surgery?

A

ischemic optic neuropathy (ION), Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO), central retinal vein occlusion, cortical blindness, glycine toxicity.

45
Q

which cause of vision loss accounts for 89% of POVL after prone spinal procedures?

A

ION

46
Q
Pre existing conditions like DM and HTN may contribute to ischemic episodes during periods of hypotension due to disruption of 
A. blood flow
B. autoregulation
C. A-V gradient
D. lymphatic drainage
A

B autoregulation

pg 410

47
Q

occular perfusion pressure is the difference between

A

MAP and IOP

48
Q

CRAO or ION is associated with pressure on the globe

A

CRAO

49
Q

operative casuses of cortical blindness include:

A

air and particulate emboli, CPB, hypoperfusion from hemorrhage and hypotension

50
Q

Glycine toxicity may occur in pts with deficiency of

A

L-arginine- the enzyme needed to metabolize ammonia

51
Q

Blood pressure changes by ________ mmHg per cm in height.

A

0.75 mmHg

52
Q

Elevation of the legs increases or decreases the risk of compartment syndrome?

A

Increases….because blood pressure decreases by 0.75mmHG for every cm of elevation
pg 414

53
Q

VAE is most likely in which position?

A

sitting

54
Q

paradoxical air embolism is most likely to occur in patients with what abnormality?

A

PFO

pg 414

55
Q

What is the gold standard to detect PFO in a pt scheduled for a procedure in the sitting position?

A

TEE

56
Q

What is an alternative noninvasive approach for detecting PFO

A

transcranial doppler

pg 414

57
Q
When monitoring for VAE, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the most sensitive  monitor, but is no specific for gas emboli.
A. TEE
B. precordial doppler
C. capnography
D. PAC
A

TEE

pg 414

58
Q

Which test is equally sensitive as TEE and less expensive?
A. Doppler
B. Capnography
C. ultrsonagraphy

A

A doppler

pg 414

59
Q

Type of murmur characteristic of VAE that can be heard through esophageal or precordial stethoscope.

A

Mill wheel murmur

60
Q

CVC placement for pt in the sitting position should be:

A

RA at the junction of the SCV

61
Q

CVC position for pt in the prone position.

A

IVC and RA

because air emboli from spinal surgery enter the venous circulation through the lumbar epidural veins and IVC

62
Q

Which nerve is at risk for injury if compression of lateral side of leg occurs?

A

Peroneal

63
Q

Which nerve is at risk for injury if compression of medial side of leg occurs?

A

Saphenous

64
Q

Which nerves could be damaged if legs are crossed in the supine position?

A

Superficial peroneal of dependent leg

Sural nerve of superficial leg.

65
Q

Rhabdo is a possible side effect reported after which position?

A

lateral

66
Q
How many finger breadths of space must be present between neck and mandible for pt in the sitting position?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A

2

pg 418

67
Q

Profound hypo/HTN and brady/tachycardia may occur as a result of the Bezold-Jarisch reflex may occur during a shoulder surgery in the sitting position under and IS block.

A

hypotension, bradycardia

Pg 418

68
Q

What is the most important factor in the development of pneumocephalus?

A

gravity

69
Q

S/S of tension pneumocephalus:

A

restlessness, deterioration of consciousness, convulsions or other changes in neuro status.