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Clinical Microbiology > Review Cards > Flashcards

Review Cards Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

3 UTI pathogens that give a positive Urease Test

A

Proteus
Morganella
Providencia

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2
Q

What does Proteus look like on a SBA plate?

A

Swarming

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3
Q

Why is Proteus the ideal UTI pathogen?

A

Breaks down urease!

This causes an increase in pH, crystal deposition, struvite stone formation, obstructive flow, and biofilm formation

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4
Q

Enterococcus spp resistant to Vanco but sensitive to Teico. What is it?

A

VanB

Want to know the species though, if its faecium or faecalis it’ll be worse then if its gallinarum or cassiflavus

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5
Q

How do you test for MRSA heterogenous resistance

A

Add NaCl to put the organism under osmotic stress which will induce the resistance
Cefoxitin best inducer
Put down a heavy inoculum because the resistance is rare

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6
Q

Main way to differentiate strep from enterococcus

A

PYR test (enterococcus is positive)

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7
Q

How to figure out what species of enterococcus you have

A
  1. Motility (90% of gallinarum is motile, so only useful if you do see motility)
  2. Pigment (cassiflavus is yellow on a white cotton swab)
  3. Glucopyranoside test (gallinarum and cassiflavus are positive)
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8
Q

2 pathogens that are most likely involved in a hip replacement infection

A

Staph aureus

Coag negative staph (longer lag period)

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9
Q

16S PCR

A

Ribosomes have conserved and variable regions
Primers for conserved regions (will tell you if you have a bacteria or not)
Variable regions will tell you what organism it is

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10
Q

3 problems with 16S PCR

A

Has to come from a sterile site
Easily contaminated
Has to be a monomicrobial infection

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11
Q

Why is P. falciparum worse than the others?

A

There are way more parasites!

And they can infect any red cell regardless of how mature they are

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12
Q

Factors/variables that can affect the types and sizes or zones seen using Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion?

A 
Thickness of media
Temperature of incubation
Inoculum size
pH
Inoculum density
Potency of the disk
Disk spacing
Incubation time
Timing of disc application
Reading of the disc
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13
Q

What phenotype is related to

  1. erm
  2. met
A
  1. target site modification

2. efflux pump

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14
Q

What factors help improve the recovery of pathogens from the blood and/or minimize the risk of reporting a contaminant

A

Let the first few mLs drain to remove the skin plug
Take multiple bottles for multiple veni-punctures
Adequate volume of blood (more than 30mL)
Grow at least one bottle anaerobically
Have appropriate dilution between blood and media

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15
Q

3 organisms dependent on capsule formation

A

Haemophilus influenza
Strep pneumonia
Neisseria meningitis

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16
Q

What is a big risk factor for infection by encapsulated organisms?

A

Being asplenic!!

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17
Q

CAMP test is positive for…

A

Listeria and group B strep

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18
Q

What are some anti-pseudomonal antibiotics?

A 
Piperacillin
Ciprofloxacin
Cefazitime
Tobramycin
Carbapenems
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19
Q

Stenotrophominas maltophilia is susceptible to…

A

Septra

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20
Q

2 common bacterial causes of otitis media

A

Strep pneumonia

Haemophilus influenzae

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21
Q

Throat swab from 5 year old, grows on blood agar – small gram negative coccobacilli, ox and catalase +, oxidizes glucose and maltose
What is it and what do you do

A

Neisseria meningitis

DO NOTHING! Dont even mention it

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22
Q

What is an acid fast stain look for and how does it work?

A

Looks for mycobacteria

Mycolic acid will retain the dye, even in the presence of a harsh acid

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23
Q

Most common STI worldwide

A

HPV

then herpes

24
Q

How do bacteria become resistant to the quinolones

A

Point mutations in the A subunits of DNA gyrase and Topo 4 to reduce the affinity of the drug for them
Also efflux pumps and down regulation of porin channels

25
Q

Large gram + bacilli is likely…

A

Bacillus or Clostridium

Differentiate based on aerobic (B) or anaerobic (C)

26
Q

Purpose of transport media

A

Maintain viability but do not allow growth

27
Q

3 organisms that rarely represent true bacteremia

A

Corynebacterium
Bacillus
Propionibacterium

28
Q

What do you treat for cat bites?

A

Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid

Because you can’t use an oral cephalosporin and you get oral anaerobes in there that produce beta lactamases

29
Q

Viruses that cause CNS infections (4)

A

HSV
Rabies
Enterovirus
Arbovirus

30
Q

Bloodborne viruses (3)

A

HIV
HCV
HBV

31
Q

Viral exanthem viruses (6)

A 
measles
rubella
roseola
parvovirus B19
enterovirus
varicella
32
Q

Sexually transmitted viruses (3)

A

herpes
molluscum contagiousum
herpes

33
Q

Respiratory viruses (7)

A 
rhinovirus
coronavirus
enterovirus
respiratory syncytial virus
parainfluenza virus
adenovirus
influenza
34
Q

GI viruses (5)

A 
norovirus
rotavirus
astrovirus
enteric adenovirus
hepatitis A and E
35
Q

Rheumatoid factor

A

IgM that binds the Fc portion of IgG
Interferes with IgG assays
Causes false positives/negatives

36
Q

How is HIV/HCV/HBV detected?

A

Serology
Start with a sensitive screening assay (overly sensitive)
Need a confirmation assay that is highly specific
Two tiered testing!!

37
Q

HIV Diagnosis

A
  1. 4th generation EIA
  2. If negative, repeat over time
  3. If positive, confirm with a Western Blot or Immunoblot
  4. If Immunoblot is problematic, confirm with PCR
  5. Monitor viral loads with real time/quatitative PCR
38
Q

How are influenza symptoms different from other respiratory viruses?

A 
Fever
Muscle pain
Malaise
No runny nose or sore throat
Cough
Headache
Fatigue, Weakness
39
Q

Viral latency

A

Remains in DRG or trigeminal nerve and can reactivate at a later time

40
Q

2 viruses that can remain latent

A

Herpes

Varicella Zoster Virus

41
Q

Consequences of reactivation

A 
Zoster
Cold sores
Genital/oral herpes
Shingles
Encephalitis
42
Q

Pathogenesis of herpes

A

Primary exposure or reactivation

43
Q

What type of CNS infection does herpes cause?

A

Encephalitis

44
Q

Virus families with bats as the host

A

Bunyaviruses

Filoviruses

45
Q

How do you test for measles

A

RT PCR from NP, throat or urine samples

Could also do serology

46
Q

4 VHF families and an example of each

A

Arenaviridae (Lassa Fever)
Filoviridae (Ebola)
Flaviviridae (Dengue)
Bunyaviridae (Hanta virus)

47
Q

Best way to diagnose spirochetes

A

Serology!
Lyme needs a 2 tiered testing
Leptospirosis can do PCR from stool or urine early enough
Syphilis needs treponemal and non treponemal testing

48
Q

RPR for syphilis

A

Rapid Plasma Reagin
Non-treponemal test
Easy to monitor disease
Used world wide

49
Q 
What is a
1. Bacteria
2. Virus
3. Toxin
used for bioterrorism
A
  1. Yersinia pestis, Bacillus anthracis, Francisella tularensis
  2. Smallpox (Variola virus)
  3. Botulism toxin
50
Q

Methods of viral transmission (11)

A 
Aerosol
Droplet
Contact
Fomites
Fecal oral
Food or water borne
Vertical
Sexual
Zoonotic
Vectors
Parenteral
51
Q

Vector borne viruses (4)

A

Franciscella tularensis
Borrelia burdoferi
Rickettsia spp
Orientia tsutsugamushi

52
Q

Zoonoses viruses (3)

A

Rabies
Ebola
Influenza

53
Q

Vaccine preventable diseases (likely to be on exam)

8

A 
Hep A/B
MMR
Varicella
Yellow fever and JEV
Smallpox
Influenza
HPV
Rotavirus
54
Q

Viruses where antiviral treatments are available (5)

A 
Herpes
HCV and HBV
Varicella zoster
HIV
Influenza
55
Q

If you forgot to take a CSF sample when someone has bacterial meningitis and you’re already treating them, what test would you do to see what bacteria they have?

A

16S RNA PCR

Helpful to detect outbreaks

56
Q

How does C diff causes disease?

A 
Ingest spores
Survive through gut
Activated by bile salts
Colonize mucosa
Mucosal disturbance
Grow and produce toxin
Get disease
57
Q

2 ways to detect outbreaks

A
  1. Pulsed field gel electrophoresis (to get a fingerprint and then compare with the outbreak strains)
  2. Sequence the whole genome

Clinical Microbiology (25 decks)

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