Review Book Diagnostic Test 1 Flashcards
All the following inhaled anesthetic drugs should be used with a rebreathing system except:
a) halothane
b) isoflurane
c) nitrous oxide
d) desflurane
c) nitrous oxide
Should not be used with a rebreathing system because of the risk of oxygen depletion and nitrous oxide build up.
You should bury the needle in the vein of which of the following animals when taking a blood sample?
a) Persian cat
b) Golden retriever
c) Oriental cat
d) Pomeranian
b) Golden retriever
It is recommended that you bury the needle in the veins of medium and large breed dogs when taking a blood sample. This prevents the needle from slipping out of the vein if the patient moves during the procedure.
Which of the following would contraindicate the administration of morphine as a preanesthetic agent?
a) preexisting tachycardia
b) liver disease
c) gastrointestinal obstruction
d) respiratory disease
c) gastrointestinal obstruction
Morphine often results in an increased risk of vomiting and is thus contraindicated.
All of the following pieces of information would be subject to confidentiality requirements of patients’ medical records except:
a) report of injuries sustained as a result of abuse
b) report of contagious or zoonotic disease
c) record of patients vaccination history
d) record of abnormal behavior
b) report of contagious or zoonotic disease
May not be subject to the confidentiality requirements of a patients’ medical record because of the risk to others around the patient.
An abscess is best described as a/an:
a) abnormal communication between the oral and nasal cavities
b) collection of material from a bacterial infection of the tooth
c) tooth that can’t break past the gum surface
d) hole or chip in the tooth
b) collection of material from a bacterial infection of the tooth
An oronasal fistula is an abnormal communication between the oral and nasal cavities. A impaction is a tooth that is unable to break through the gum surface. A cavity is a hole in the tooth.
Which medication would be given to a patient experiencing constipation?
a) Oxazepam
b) Ranitidine
c) Bisacodyl
d) Apomorphine
c) Bisacodyl
Bisacodyl is a laxative and would be given for constipation. Oxazepam is an appetite stimulant often used in cats. Ranitidine is an anti-ulcer medication. Apomorphine is an emetic used to induce vomiting.
A cholinergic is a drug that:
a) decreases pain sensations
b) blocks the action of adrenaline at beta-adrenergic receptors
c) causes pupil dilation
d) stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system
d) stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system
Opioids decrease sensation of pain. Beta-blockers block the action of adrenaline at beta-adrenergic receptors. Mydriatic drugs dilate the pupils.
When disposing of a used needle, you should:
a) destroy the needle and dispose of it in the appropriate container
b) separate the needle and syringe and dispose of it in the appropriate container
c) recap the needle and dispose of it in the appropriate container
d) handle the needle carefully and dispose of it in the appropriate container
d) handle the needle carefully and dispose of it in the appropriate container
Used needles could harbor dangerous bacteria and diseases, so handling the needles as little as possible is advised. Destroying the needle is not correct because when you break it the contents could go into the air you are breathing. Separating the needle is not correct because it would cause you to handle the needle longer than necessary, increasing risk of harming yourself. Recapping is not correct because you could potentially stick yourself with the needle.
You are treating a dehydrated dog that presents with sunken eyes, increased CRT, and dry mucous membranes. What is the patient’s estimated degree of dehydration?
a) 5-6% dehydration
b) 8% dehydration
c) 10-12% dehydration
d) 12-15% dehydration
c) 10-12% dehydration
An animal with a lower degree of dehydration would present with fewer and less severe symptoms. An animals with more higher dehydration would present with more severe symptoms and could potentially be fatal.
A veterinary technician receives a frantic call from a pet owner. From what the owner says, the technician concludes the owner’s dog is experiencing gastric dilation and volvulus. In which of the following categories of emergency should the technician place the patient?
a) Nonemergency
b) Minor
c) Serious
d) Life threatening
d) Life threatening
Dogs experiencing this condition repeatedly look at or bite their abdomen, which is typically distended. These dogs also retch without vomiting. This bloating can cause decreased blood flow and the loss of stomach tissue if it is not treated immediately. Many times, the animal needs surgery to relieve the pressure.
Barium is considered a/an:
a) Soluble positive contrast medium
b) Insoluble negative contrast medium
c) Soluble negative contrast medium
d) Insoluble positive contrast medium
d) Insoluble positive contrast medium
Barium can absorb more xrays than bone, so it will appear whiter on radiographs.
Trichiasis most commonly affects which breed of canine?
a) English bulldog
b) Poodle
c) Pug
d) Cocker spaniel
b) Poodle
Trichiasis refers to ingrown hairs that affect the eye.
A surgeon uses Jacobs chucks to:
a) break up and remove bone
b) hold bone fragments in reduction
c) cut through bone
d) advance pin placement
d) advance pin placement
Rongeurs are used to break up and remove bone. Verbrugge forceps and reduction forceps are used to hold bone fragments in reduction. Bone-cutting forceps or osteotomes are used to cut through bone.
Which of the following would be considered a poor inventory control practice?
a) using control cards or a computer system for inventory control
b) Closely monitoring expiration dates of stored products
c) purchasing the most affordable medications possible
d) arranging medications based on frequency of use
c) purchasing the most affordable medications possible
Although spending carefully is important, simply buying the cheapest products available may endanger the welfare of your patients.
Which of the following drugs would be used to reduce intracranial pressure?
a) Atropine
b) Pimobendan
c) Mannitol
d) Prazosin
c) Mannitol
Mannitol, a diuretic, would be used to reduce intracranial pressure. Atropine is used for cardiac support. Pimobendan is used to manage congestive heart failure. Prazosin is used to treat functional urethral obstructions.
Which of the following statements would be true of the anesthetic agent guaifenesin?
a) it crosses the placental barrier but has no effect on the fetus
b) it crosses the placental barrier but has little effect on the fetus
c) it doesn’t cross the placental barrier and has no effect on the fetus
d) it doesn’t cross the placental barrier and has little effect on the fetus
b) it crosses the placental barrier but has little effect on the fetus
A healthy horse should have a white blood cell count ranging from:
a) 3-10
b) 6-12
c) 6-17
d) 7-14
b) 6-12
3-10 is the white blood cell count of a cow. 6-17 is the white blood cell count of a dog. 7-14 is the white blood cell count of a thoroughbred.
Which of the following should be used to detect external odontoclastic resorptive lesions in a cat?
a) Periodontal probe
b) Shepherd’s hook
c) Curette
d) Sickle scaler
b) Shepherd’s hook
Periodontal probes are used to measure depth in the mouth. A curette is used to scrape the teeth. A sickle scaler is used to remove deposits from the teeth.
Which physical factor might result in diminished radiographic detail in an xray?
a) Ineffective filtration
b) Low subject contrast
c) Patient movement
d) Negative contrast use
c) Patient movement
Ineffective filtration, low subject contrast, and negative contrast use will not result in diminished radiographic detail.
Canine patients should be placed in lateral recumbency when extracting a blood sample from which vein?
a) Jugular vein
b) Cephalic vein
c) Saphenous vein
d) Femoral vein
c) Saphenous vein
When extracting blood from the jugular or cephalic veins, the patient should be placed in sternal recumbency. Blood sample collection from the femoral vein is usually performed only on feline patients.
When preparing a patient for a blood sample collection from the cephalic vein, the restrainer should:
a) hold the patient’s front legs with one hand and its head with the other while extending the neck
b) place the fingers of one hand behind the patient’s elbow to extend the front leg
c) hold the patient’s distal thigh or proximal tibia to compress the vein while extending the stifle
d) compress the vein by placing one hand on the medial side of the upper thigh
b) place the fingers of one hand behind the patient’s elbow to extend the front leg
Choice a would be used for extraction from a jugular vein. Choice c would be used for extraction from the lateral saphenous vein. Choice d would be used for an extraction from the femoral vein of a feline patient.
Which cardiovascular drug serves to provide long-term maintenance of contractibility?
a) Dobutamine
b) Hydralazine
c) Propranolol
d) Digoxin
d) Digoxin
Digoxin is a positive inotrope designed to provide long-term maintenance of contractibility. Dobutamine is used for short-term maintenance of contractibility. Hydralazine is used to dilate blood vessels. Propranolol is used to block beta-receptors.
Tissue forceps with multiple fine, intermeshing teeth on the edges are known as:
a) Brown-Adson tissue forceps
b) Rat-tooth thumb forceps
c) Adson tissue forceps
d) Russian tissue forceps
a) Brown-Adson tissue forceps
This type of forceps, which also features wide blade sides, is used with delicate tissues.
A feline blood donor must weigh no less than:
a) 5 pounds
b) 8 pounds
c) 10 pounds
d) 12 pounds
c) 10 pounds
A feline blood donor under 10 pounds might not have adequate blood volume to withstand donation.
You are treating a dog with itchy patches around the ears, chest, abdomen, and front legs. Which of the following is most likely to be the correct diagnosis?
a) Demodectic mange
b) Walking dandruff
c) Sarcoptic mange
d) Fleas
c) Sarcoptic mange
Sarcoptic mange is a parasitic condition caused by Sarcoptes mites, which results in the symptoms the patient is experiencing. Demodectic mange presents with non-itchy patches of red scaly ringworm-like lesions around the face and front legs. Walking dandruff results in small, white insects on the animal’s hair. Fleas presents with crusty skin, itching, flea dirt, and alopecia.
You are experiencing conflict with a colleague. Which of the following approaches to the situation would be least likely to lead to a positive outcome?
a) Have a face-to-face conversation
b) Bring up the issue at a staff meeting
c) File a formal, written complaint
d) Allow the problem to resolve itself
d) allow the problem to resolve itself
You should never wait to address a conflict, as this may be likely to cause the problem to worsen. Taking any action to achieve conflict resolution would be more effective than taking no immediate action at all.
Azaperone is most often used as a preanesthetic for:
a) pigs
b) dogs
c) cats
d) birds
a) pigs
Azaperone is a type of butyrophenone (a chemical compound used to treat various psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia, as well as acting as antiemetics) that is commonly used as a preanesthetic for aggressive pigs, and is unique to swine.
When developing an xray, what is the primary purpose of the rinse bath?
a) To begin the development process on the film
b) To convert the exposed silver halide crystals to metallic silver
c) To clear away the underexposed silver halide crystals
d) To stop the process of development and prevent contamination of the fixer
d) To stop the process of development and prevent contamination of the fixer
The developer begins the developing process and converts the exposed silver halide crystals to metallic silver. The fixer clears away the underexposed silver halide crystals.
Which anesthetic agent would be most appropriate for use with a greyhound?
a) Etomidate
b) Cyclohexamine
c) Propofol
d) Fentanyl
c) Propofol
This particular anesthetic agent is used primarily as a means of anesthetizing lean-bodied animals. None of the other choices are specifically used in this circumstance.
How much hair should be removed from either side of the midline in a large dog being prepared for surgery?
a) 2 inches
b) 3 inches
c) 4 inches
d) 5 inches
c) 4 inches
When you are preparing a large dog for surgery, at least 4 inches of hair on either side of the midline must be removed.
Which term refers to the tooth surface area that faces toward the cheek?
a) Buccal
b) Labial
c) Rostral
d) Occlusal
a) Buccal
Labial refers to the surface area of a tooth that faces towards the lips. Rostral refers to the surface facing towards the nose. Occlusal refers to the chewing surface.
When protected with wrapping material and kept on an open shelf, up to how long can a surgical instrument remain sterile?
a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks
c) 3 weeks
Surgical instruments that have been properly protected with wrapping material and stored on an open shelf can remain sterile for up to 3 weeks.
Which of the following would be a normal sulcus depth for a cat?
a) Less than 0.5 mm
b) Less than 1 mm
c) More than 1 mm
d) More than 1.5 mm
b) Less than 1 mm
Sulcus depth measuring between 1 and 3 mm is normal in dogs.
Which of the following would be a sign of overhydration?
a) Lowered blood pressure
b) Decreased lung sounds
c) Fatigue
d) Chemosis
d) Chemosis
Chemosis, which is edema of the ocular conjunctiva, is a common sign of overhydration.
Which substance commonly used in wound lavage may result in tissue damage?
a) Isotonic saline
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Chlorhexidine diacetate solution
d) Povidone-iodine solution
b) Hydrogen peroxide
None of the other substances would risk tissue damage.
A veterinary technician has a question about whether a certain practice is ethical. Which of the following would be the best place to find answers to an ethical problem in the veterinary workplace?
a) The technician’s own sense of morality and ethics
b) The technician’s state laws and codes about veterinary medicine
c) A veterinary medical professional organization
d) A friend of the technician who doesn’t work in veterinary medicine
c) A veterinary medical professional organization
Many of these organizations have codes of ethics, which they maintain all veterinary professionals should follow. Professional ethics often require input from others. Ethical standards must always exceed the standards set by laws. A friend not in the veterinary field doesn’t always fully understand the problem.
Which of the following is the most commonly used anticoagulant for blood testing?
a) Oxalate
b) Heparin
c) EDTA
d) Sodium citrate
c) EDTA
Of the various anticoagulants used in blood testing, EDTA is the most effective and least likely to interfere with results. Oxalate is no longer used for blood testing. Heparin is a natural anticoagulant in the body and, as a result, may interfere with some blood tests. Sodium citrate may interfere with chemical tests or shrink cells.
Which of the following drugs is used as an immunosuppressant agent?
a) Dextran
b) Lactulose
c) Interferon
d) Auranofin
d) Auranofin
Dextran is used as a fluid replacement. Lactulose is a laxative. Interferon is an immunostimulant.
On an xray, denser body parts will appear:
a) whiter
b) darker
c) grayer
d) foggier
a) whiter
The denser a body part is, the whiter it will appear on an xray.
Which of the following dog breeds is at a higher risk for hip dysplasia?
a) Chihuahua
b) Mastiff
c) Jack Russell Terrier
d) Greyhound
b) Mastiff
Hip dysplasia is a genetic disease of the hip joint in dogs. Since large dog breeds are more prone to this disease, a mastiff would be at higher risk than the smaller dog breeds.
In order to achieve the most accurate diagnosis, an xray should always be taken from at least how many angles?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
b) 2
Xrays should always be taken from at least 2 angles to ensure the most accurate diagnosis. 1 doesn’t give a fully accurate view of the problem, while 3 or 4 are generally not necessary.
Which of the following barbiturates has a lethal dosage only 2-3 times its normal anesthetic dosage?
a) Thiopental
b) Pentobarbital
c) Methohexital
d) Phenobarbital
c) Methohexital
When using a non-rebreathing system during anesthesia, the fresh gas flow rate should be set between:
a) 85-115 ml/kg/min
b) 100-130 ml/kg/min
c) 130-300 ml/kg/min
d) 300-400 ml/kg/min
c) 130-300 ml/kg/min
Choices a and b are incorrect because these flow rates would be too low and could result in rebreathing exhaled gases, and d is too high.
Which of the following is a synthetic absorbable suture material?
a) Polydioxanone
b) Polypropylene
c) Polyamide
d) Polymerized caprolactam
a) Polydioxanone
Choices b, c, and d are all nonabsorbable materials.
A dog presents with a dental malocclusion in which two of the maxillary incisors are displaced so that they are lingual to the mandibular incisors. This condition is referred to as:
a) posterior crossbite
b) anterior crossbite
c) distocclusion
d) mesiocclusion
b) anterior crossbite
Choice a refers to a malocclusion in which the mandible is wider than the maxilla in the premolar area. Choice c refers to a malocclusion in which the mandibular teeth are distal to their maxillary equivalents. Choice d refers to a malocclusion where the mandibular teeth occlude rostral to their maxillary counterparts.
Which of the following species develops only 1 set of teeth during its lifetime?
a) Horse
b) Sheep
c) Rabbit
d) Swine
c) Rabbit
Horse, sheep, and swine all develop both deciduous (primary) and permanent teeth.
A medication delivered intraosseously is injected into:
a) the skin
b) the bone cavity
c) a muscle
d) a blood vessel
b) the bone cavity
An injection into the skin describes a subcutaneous injection. Into a muscle is an intramuscular injection. Into a blood vessel describes an intravenous injection.
Veterinary technicians are sometimes the first people in a veterinary office to see a patient. As this is a major responsibility, they must be able to categorize the patient into the appropriate emergency group. An example of a patient with a serious emergency would be:
a) a dog with a bee sting
b) a cat with a minor burn
c) a bird with a gaping wound
d) a ferret with an abscess
c) a bird with a gaping wound
Bee stings, minor burns, and even abscesses wouldn’t require immediate assistance, and in fact the owner can treat many of these conditions at home.
Which of the following should a veterinary technician do in case of an accidental perivascular administration of diazepam?
a) rapidly inject sterile saline into the injection site
b) slowly inject sterile saline into the injection site
c) rapidly inject lidocaine to numb the injection site
d) slowly inject lidocaine to numb the injection site
b) slowly inject sterile saline into the injection site
Saline should never be rapidly injected. The site should be numbed with an external cream, not an injected drug such as lidocaine.
Catgut, a commonly used absorbable suture material, is made from the submucosal layer of the intestines of which animal?
a) Cats
b) Sheep
c) Dogs
d) Cattle
b) Sheep
Which of the following antimicrobial drug types functions by interfering with DNA/RNA synthesis?
a) Penicillin
b) Ketoconazole
c) Tetracycline
d) Amoxicillin
b) Ketoconazole
Ketoconazole is a type of antimicrobial drug that inhibits nucleic acid production, thus interfering with DNA and RNA synthesis. Penicillin and Amoxicillin are antimicrobial drugs that disrupt the development of microbial cell walls. Tetracycline is an antimicrobial drug that interferes with microbial protein synthesis.
Which of the following drugs is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)?
a) Betamethasone
b) Hyaluronate
c) Methocarbamol
d) Etodolac
d) Etodolac
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid. Hyaluronate is a glycosaminoglycan. Methocarbamol is a muscle relaxant.
Which of the following xray processing errors would result in a yellow radiograph?
a) Marks left by fingerprints
b) Exhausted fixer solution
c) Low developing solution
d) High drying temperature
b) Exhausted fixer solution
Marks left by fingerprints can lead to black marks on the radiograph. Low developing solution can lead to white marks or clear areas on the radiograph. High drying temperature can lead to a brittle finished radiograph.
White top color indicates a Vacutainer containing only EDTA and no other additives?
a) Red
b) Lavender
c) Light blue
d) Dark blue
b) Lavender
A red top indicates a vacutainer with no additives at all. A light blue top indicates a vacutainer with sodium citrate. A dark blue top indicates a vacutainer with both EDTA and Heparin.
The use of which type of anesthetic agent would be contraindicated in a patient with glaucoma?
a) Etomidate
b) Cyclohexamine
c) Fentanyl
d) Propofol
b) Cyclohexamine
Cyclohexamines cause an increase in ocular pressure, which could be dangerous for patients with glaucoma or perforation of the eye chamber.
Which inhaled anesthetic is best suited for avian species?
a) Sevoflurane
b) Desflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Halothane
a) Sevoflurane
Sevoflurane is ideal for use with avian species because it has a rapid, smooth induction and recovery, which minimizes patient stress. The other choices are less effective for avian species.
A lower grid ratio would indicate that:
a) less scatter radiation is absorbed
b) more scatter radiation is absorbed
c) more primary radiation is being emitted
d) less primary radiation is being emitted
a) less scatter radiation is being absorbed
The higher the grid ratio, the more scatter and primary radiation is absorbed. The grid ratio does not effect how much radiation is being emitted.
Which of the following is classified as a colloid?
a) Hartmann’s solution
b) Lactated ringer’s solution
c) Pentastarch
d) Saline
c) Pentastarch
Hartmann’s solution, Lactated ringer’s solution, and saline are crystalloids.
Which of the following is a canine blood parasite?
a) Ehrlichia canis
b) Babesia canis
c) Ehrlichia platys
d) Borrelia burgdorferi
b) Babesia canis
Ehrlichia canis, Ehrlichia platys, and Borrelia burgdorferi are all rickettsial diseases.
Finochietto retractors are commonly used during what type of surgery?
a) Abdominal
b) Neurosurgery
c) Orthopedic
d) Thoracic
d) Thoracic
Finochietto retractors are commonly used to retract the ribs. Abdominal surgeries may involve the use of Balfour retractors. Neurosurgery and orthopedic surgeries may both involve the use of Gelpi retractors or Weitlander retractors.
Which of the following is described as a loss of radiographic detail common with faster screens because of unevenly distributed phosphor crystals within the intensifying screen?
a) Penumbra
b) Quantum mottle
c) Structure mottle
d) Radiographic mottle
b) Quantum mottle
Penumbra is a loss of detail because of geometric unsharpness. Structure mottle is the loss of detail due to phosphor variations in the intensifying screen. Radiographic mottle is the loss of detail due to the size of the individual silver halide crystals.
When taking a small volume blood sample from a cow, the blood is most frequently extracted from the:
a) milk vein
b) jugular vein
c) caudal auricular vein
d) tail vein
d) tail vein
The milk vein is a secondary option for bovine small blood samples, but this location presents an increased risk of hematoma. The jugular vein would be used to obtain a large blood volume sample. The caudal auricular vein is the common site of small blood volume sampling in pigs.
Which type of imaging test involves injecting dye into the spinal canal in order to highlight small changes in the spinal cord?
a) Nuclear scintigraphy
b) Myelography
c) MRI
d) Endoscopy
b) Myelography
Nuclear scintigraphy involves the injection of a radiographic compound that travels through the bloodstream and targets specific organs. An MRI is a diagnostic imaging test that utilizes magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed body images. Endoscopy is a diagnostic imaging test most often used to diagnose digestive issues.
Which canine species is most commonly associated with gingival hyperplasia?
a) Pug
b) Scottish terrier
c) Boxer
d) Dachshund
c) Boxer
Boxers are most commonly associated with gingival hyperplasia, which is gingival thickening precipitated by chronic inflammation.
The most common type of oral tumor among dogs is:
a) fibrosarcoma
b) melanoma
c) osteosarcoma
d) squamous cell carcinoma
b) melanoma
Fibrosarcoma is the third most common canine oral tumor. Osteosarcoma is the least common oral tumor among dogs. Squamous cell carcinoma is the second most common canine oral tumor.
A cat with type AB blood may receive:
a) type A blood
b) type B blood
c) type AB blood
d) any feline blood type
d) any feline blood type
Cats with type AB blood may receive any blood type, while cats with type A or B blood may only receive their own blood type.
Which anesthetic agent may result in an increase in cerebrospinal fluid pressure?
a) Halothane
b) Guaifenesin
c) Isoflurane
d) Sevoflurane
a) Halothane
Which size needle is most commonly used for venipuncture in cats and small dogs?
a) 18 gauge
b) 20 gauge
c) 22 gauge
d) 24 gauge
c) 22 gauge
18 and 20 gauge needles are usually used in larger animals.
You are treating a cat that has consumed a non-caustic toxin. Which of the following drugs would you administer in order to induce vomiting?
a) Chlorpromazine
b) Xylazine
c) Metoclopramide
d) Aminopentamide
b) Xylazine
Xylazine is an emetic drug used to induce vomiting in cats. Chlorpromazine is an antiemetic drug that would prevent vomiting. Metoclopramide works to increase gastric motility. Aminopentamide is an antispasmodic that is used to treat spasms or cramps in the stomach, intestine, or bladder.
After a surgery on a dog, you are asked to disinfect. On which surface could you safely use bleach to disinfect?
a) the dogs skin and wounds
b) the metal operating table
c) the steel surgical instruments
d) the linoleum floors
d) the linoleum floors
Bleach could disinfect linoleum without harming the surface. Bleach is a tissue irritant, and should not be used on animals or humans. Bleach can also be corrosive to metal.
Which of the following antiemetic drugs would be prescribed for an animal experiencing chemotherapy sickness?
a) Dimenhydrinate
b) Meclizine
c) Metoclopramide
d) Ondansetron
d) Ondansetron
Ondansetron is used to treat refractory vomiting, which is a frequent side effect of chemotherapy. Dimenhydrinate and meclizine are primarily used to treat motion sickness. Metoclopramide is a promotility agent used to inhibit gastroesophageal reflux.
Which type of chew toy can lead to gingival trauma?
a) Nylon rope toys
b) Dried hooves
c) Nylon chew bones
d) Rawhide strips
a) Nylon rope toys
Nylon rope toys can cause gingival trauma if the gingiva is sliced by fine nylon threads. Dried hooves and nylon chew bones can lead to slab fractures. Rawhide strips are safe and may actually serve to remove debris from between teeth.
Radiographic detail can be increased by:
a) increasing the source-image distance
b) decreasing the source-image distance
c) increasing the object-film distance
d) increasing the kVp level
a) increasing the source-image distance
Increasing the source-image distance will decrease the magnification and the level of penumbra. Decreasing the source-image distance would have the opposite effect. Increasing the object-film distance would increase the magnification and the level of penumbra, also the opposite effect. Increasing the kVp level may lead to overpenetration, which would cause an overly dark film with grayed bones.
Which of the following is the definitive means of diagnosing a malignant tumor?
a) Cytology
b) Radiography
c) Histopathology
d) Serum chemistry profile
c) Histopathology
Histopathology, which is the biopsy of part or all of a mass for analysis, is the definitive means of diagnosing a malignant tumor. Cytology is used to determine the cell morphology of a tumor and call also be diagnostic. Radiography and serum chemistry profile are often used as part of the patient;s evaluation, but are not necessarily diagnostic.
Which of the following is a negative effect of an improperly applied bandage?
a) Wound drainage
b) Immobilization of a limb
c) Tissue necrosis
d) Wound debridement
c) Tissue necrosis
Improperly applied bandages can cause many problems for animals, including tissue necrosis. Wound drainage, immobilization of a limb, and wound debridement are all positive effects of properly applied bandages.
The minimum weight for a canine blood donor is:
a) 25 pounds
b) 45 pounds
c) 55 pounds
d) 65 pounds
c) 55 pounds
Dogs less that 55 pounds may not have adequate blood volume to withstand donation.
Which of the following species requires sedation or anesthesia for venipuncture?
a) Mongolian gerbil
b) Mouse
c) Rat
d) Guinea pig
d) Guinea pigs
Mongolian gerbils, mice, and rats can all tolerate venipuncture with sedation or anesthesia.
All of the following antimicrobial medications can be administered to rabbits except:
a) clindamycin
b) lincomycin
c) erythromycin
d) tylosin
a) clindamycin
Clindamycin should not be administered to rabbits because of potential gastrointestinal side effects. This medication should also be avoided with hamsters, guinea pigs, chinchillas, horses, and ruminants for the same reason.
During a surgical procedure, a canine patient develops malignant hypothermia. With what drug should the patient be treated?
a) Calcium EDTA
b) Dantrolene
c) Pamidronate
d) Atropine
b) Dantrolene
Calcium EDTA should be used in the event of lead poisoning. Pamidronate should be used in the event of cholecalciferol toxicosis. Atropine should be used in the event of organophosphate toxicity.
In an induction that does not go smoothly, which normally bypassed stage is experienced?
a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4
b) Stage 2
In smooth inductions, the patient will normally skip stage 2 and transition from stage 1 to stage 3. Stages 1 and 3 will always occur. Stage 4 does not normally occur and, as it is the final stage, it cannot be bypassed.
Stage 1: The animal is disoriented. The respirations can range from normal to panting. The heart rate isunchanged and the animal has good muscle tone and all reflexes are present.
Stage 2: The animal becomes excited. They may struggle, vocalize, chew and yawn. The breathing becomesirregular and they may hold their breath or hyperventilate. The heart rate increases and the animalhas good muscle tone and all reflexes are present and may be exaggerated.
Stage 3: Includes 4 planes of anesthesia.Plane 1 - the animal is under light anesthesia. The breathing becomes regular and the heart rate iswithin normal ranges. The animal may respond to surgical manipulation. They have good muscletone and reflexes are diminished.Plane 2 - the animal is in light surgical anesthesia. The breathing is regular and may be shallow.The heart rate is within the lower end of the normal range, the pulse is strong and the heart rateand respiration rate may increase with surgical manipulation. The muscle tone is relaxed. Inrodents, the toe pinch reflex may be present. In other species, the patellar, palpebral and cornealreflexes may be present.Plane 3 - the animal is under deep surgical anesthesia. The respirations are shallow and at the lowend of the normal range, the heart rate is slowed and the capillary refill time is increased. Themuscle tone is greatly reduced. They have no response to surgical manipulation and all reflexes arediminished or absent.Plane 4 - the animal is in an overdose stage of anesthesia. The respirations are jerky, the heartrate is below normal values. The capillary refill time is prolonged and the mucous membranes arepale. The animal has flaccid muscle tone and no reflex activity.
Stage 4: The animal is moribund. The respirations are apneic, there is cardiovascular collapse and theanimal is dying. The muscle tone is flaccid and there is no reflex activity.
When using a Bard-Parker scalpel handle during a small animal surgical procedure, which blade would you use with a Number 3 handle to sever ligaments?
a) Number 10
b) Number 11
c) Number 12
d) Number 15
b) Number 11
A number 11 blade would be used with a number 3 handle for severing ligaments during a small animal surgical procedure. A number 10 blade is used to incise the skin. A number 12 blade is used to lance abscesses. A number 15 blade would be used to make precise, small, or curved incisions.
A high dose of which of the following preanesthetic agents could be dangerous for a ruminant?
a) Droperidol
b) Xylazine
c) Azaperone
d) Acepromazine
b) Xylazine
Ruminant species receiving high doses of xylazine may experience decreased oxygen exchange.
An excessively high level of what vitamin is thought to be a possible contributing factor in the development of feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B 12
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin D
Canned cat foods frequently contain excess Vitamin D, which can lead to hypervitaminosis D. It is believed that this condition may be associated with the development of feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions.
Veterinary technicians sometimes use tourniquets to immobilize limbs and stop blood. The recommended maximum amount of time a tourniquet should be used is:
a) 5 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 40 minutes
d) 60 minutes
b) 20 minutes
A tourniquet immobilizes a limb and cuts off blood flow to that limb. If the tourniquet is left on too long, the limb could die from lack of blood flow.
Which teeth are absent in lagomorphs?
a) incisors
b) canines
c) premolars
d) molars
b) canines
Lagomorphs, or rabbits, do not have canines. They do, however, have incisors, premolars, and molars.
In guinea pigs, what dental condition is associated with vitamin C deficiency?
a) Malocclusion
b) Caries
c) Overgrowth
d) Periodontal disease
c) Overgrowth
Tooth overgrowth is commonly associated with Vitamin C deficiency in guinea pigs.
An accurate statement concerning slow speed screens would be that they:
a) produce average quality resolution radiographs with relatively low exposures
b) are used when increased patient penetration is needed
c) are designed to produce optimum detail with little regard to exposure time
d) normally have a thicker phosphor layer
c) are designed to produce optimum detail with little regard to exposure time
Medium speed screens produce average quality resolution radiographs with relatively low exposures. Fast speed screens are used when increased patient penetration is needed and normally have a thicker phosphor layer.
Which of the following is a cause of sinus bradycardia?
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Anemia
c) Increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure
d) Reduced cardiac output
c) Increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure
Hyperthyroidism, anemia, and reduced cardiac output are all potential causes of sinus tachycardia.
Manual expression of the bladder would be an appropriate method for:
a) examining solution concentrate in urine
b) relieving bladder distention due to obstruction
c) collecting a sterile urine sample for urinalysis and culture
d) clearing a urethral obstruction
a) examining solution concentrate in urine
Although manual expression would not provide a sterile urine sample for urinalysis or culture, urine collected in this manner could be examined for solute concentration and other purposes. Cystocentesis would be an appropriate method for relieving bladder distention due to obstruction. Catheterization or cystocentesis would be appropriate methods for collecting a sterile urine sample for urinalysis and culture. Catheterization is an appropriate method for clearing a urethral obstruction.
Halsted mosquito forceps have:
a) distal transverse grooves
b) transverse serrations covering the entire jaw length
c) complete transverse grooves
d) longitudinal grooves and distal transverse grooves
b) transverse serrations covering the entire jaw length
Kelly forceps have distal transverse grooves. Crile forceps have complete transverse grooves. Rochester-Carmalt forceps have longitudinal grooves and distal transverse grooves.
When cutting and dissecting dense tissue, a veterinary surgeon would most likely use:
a) Metzenbaum scissors
b) Iris scissors
c) Spencer scissors
d) Mayo scissors
d) Mayo scissors
Metzenabum scissors are used to cut and dissect delicate tissue. Iris scissors are most often used for intraocular surgery. Spencer scissors are suture removal scissors.
Miconazole is used to treat:
a) gastrointestinal and skin Candida infections
b) dermatophytosis or avian mycoses
c) fungal ophthalmic infections
d) inflammatory bowel disease
c) fungal ophthalmic infections
Nystatin is used to treat gastrointestinal and skin Candida infections. Terbinafine is used to treat dermatophysis or avian mycoses. Sulfasalazine is used to treat inflammatory bowel disease.
Which inhaled anesthetic has the highest rate of metabolization?
a) Halothane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Desflurane
a) Halothane
Halothane has the highest rate of metabolization, with about 40% of the inhaled gas being metabolized, rather than exhaled. Sevoflurane is about 3% metabolized. Nitrous oxide is about 0.0004% metabolized. Desflurane is about 0.02% metabolized.
When collecting a blood sample that should clot, you should use a Vacutainer with which color top?
a) Green
b) Blue
c) Red
d) Black
c) Red
The red top indicates that there are no anticoagulants or other additives already in the vial. Green, blue, and black tops all indicate some kind of additive.
Green - lithium heparin
Blue - Citrate (light) or Sodium heparin (dark)
Black - used for ESR or Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
Which type of anesthetic agent is most useful for patients with cardiac disease?
a) Cyclohexamines
b) Barbiturates
c) Propofol
d) Etomidate
d) Etomidate
Etomidate is particularly useful for patients with cardiac disease because it does not affect cardiac output, respiratory rate, or blood pressure. Cyclohexamines produce cardiovascular stimulation. Barbiturates can depress respiration and cardiovascular activity. Propofol can have various cardiovascular effects.
The reduction of orally administered drugs in the liver is known as:
a) perfusion
b) first-pass effect
c) diffusion
d) second-pass metabolism
b) first-pass effect
When an orally administered drug is taken, it immediately travels to the liver and may be reduced or removed before reaching the bloodstream. Perfusion is the passage of blood through the vessels. Diffusion is the process of spreading to and from various areas of concentration. Second-pass metabolism is a term that doesn’t exist.
During a venipuncture, when the needle is removed from the vein you should immediately:
a) place the sample into a Vacutainer
b) stop compression of the vein
c) apply pressure over the venipuncture site
d) release the patient from restraint
c) apply pressure over the venipuncture site
This will provide hemostasis and stop the bleeding. Placing the sample into a Vacutainer should happen after you apply pressure to the site. Stopping compression of the vein should occur before the needle is removed. Releasing the patient from restraint should not occur until hemostasis is achieved.
According to the American Society of Anesthesiologists scale, a patient with fever, anemia, heart murmur, and moderate dehydration would be considered a:
a) Category II patient
b) Category III patient
c) Category IV patient
d) Category V patient
b) Category III patient
This patient would be deemed a moderate risk. A Category II patient would be deemed a slight risk. A Category IV patient would be deemed a high risk. A Category V patient would be deemed at extreme risk.
Category I - Healthy patient
Category II - Mild systemic disease
Category III - Severe systemic disease
Category IV - Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
Category V - A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation
Category VI - A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation purposes
Which of the following best describes the meaning of uveitis?
a) Decreased tear production and corneal film
b) Inflammation of the eye’s middle vascular layer
c) Corneal inflammation
d) Squinting or crossing of the eyes
b) Inflammation of the eye’s middle vascular layer
Keratoconjunctivitis is decreased tear production and corneal film. Keratitis is corneal inflammation. Strabismus is the squinting or crossing of the eyes.
When performing a surgical scrub, you should begin at the:
a) incision and work outward in a circular motion
b) fringes of the surgical area and work inward in a circular motion
c) incision and work outward in a back-and-forth motion
d) fringes of the surgical area and work inward in a back-and-forth motion
a) incision and work outward in a circular motion
This is the most effective means of cleaning and sanitizing the area of the incision.
A woman finds her dog drinking drain cleaner and immediately brings it to the veterinary clinic. Which of the following treatments would be most appropriate in this scenario?
a) Administer an emetic
b) Administer activated charcoal
c) Administer kaolin
d) Administer milk and monitor
d) Administer milk and monitor
Drain cleaner is a caustic substance, so any induced vomiting could lead to further esophageal damage. Activated charcoal may make it difficult to properly examine the GI tract. Kaolin is an antidiarrheal and would not be appropriate treatment.
How long must a dog that has just been vaccinated wait before donating blood?
a) 2 weeks
b) 5 days
c) 1 week
d) 12 days
d) 12 days
The waiting period is due to the effects of vaccination on platelets and endothelial functions. Less than 12 days does not allow enough time for a dog’s system to return to normal function.
Newborn animals must be kept in warm facilities up to 4 weeks after birth. During the first 10 days, how warm should the temperature of the room be?
a) 55-60 degrees F
b) 65-70 degrees F
c) 75-80 degrees F
d) 85-90 degrees F
c) 75-80 degrees F
On the eleventh day, the technician can decrease the temperature of the room by a few degrees. During the 4th week, the newborns are then exposed to average room temperatures.
Distichiasis results in:
a) a second row of eyelashes
b) ingrown eyelash hairs
c) glandular tissue that projects beyond the haw
d) squinting or crossing of the eyes
a) a second row of eyelashes
Trichiasis is ingrown eyelashes. Hypertrophy is glandular tissue that projects beyond the haw. Strabismus is the squinting or crossing of the eyes.
Which of the following would be described as a self-retaining forceps commonly used for holding bowels?
a) Allis tissue forceps
b) Babcock intestinal forceps
c) Doyen intestinal forceps
d) Ferguson angiotribe forceps
c) Doyen intestinal forceps
Allis tissue forceps are self-retaining and have intermeshing teeth that may cause damage to delicate tissues. Babcock intestinal forceps are like Allis tissue forceps but have no gripping teeth. Ferguson angiotribe forceps are also self-retaining and help to hold large bundles of tissue.
Which of the following techniques would contribute to a successful venipuncture attempt?
a) Inserting the needle downward toward the patient
b) Retracting the syringe plunger as quickly as possible
c) Inserting the needle upward toward the ceiling
d) Fully retracting the syringe plunger immediately upon puncture
c) Inserting the needle upward toward the ceiling
This method helps to facilitate the flow of incoming blood and prevents occlusions by the vein. Inserting the needle downward toward the patient would have the opposite effect and may make collecting a sample more difficult. Retracting the syringe as quickly as possible could cause the vein to collapse due to significant negative pressure. Fully retracting the syringe plunger immediately upon puncture is incorrect because you should retract the plunger only slightly at first to ensure the needle is actually in the vein.
Which anesthetic agent is dangerous to use on horses and cattle?
a) Fentanyl
b) Propofol
c) Guaifenesin
d) Etomidate
d) Etomidate
Etomidate is dangerous to use on horses and cattle because it can lead to severe muscle rigidity or seizures in these species.
When packing a biopsy sample for shipping, you should:
a) ensure the sample remains completely dry during shipping
b) freeze the sample and put it on dry ice to keep it cold for shipping
c) add an appropriate fluid to the container to soak the sample
d) heat the sample and separate it from cold samples during shipping
c) add an appropriate fluid to the container to soak the sample
Biopsy samples must remain moist for shipping. Freezing samples may alter test results.
Use of which inhaled anesthetic will result in a lessened or absent version of the hangover effect that normally accompanies inhaled anesthetics?
a) Sevoflurane
b) Desflurane
c) Isoflurane
d) Halothane
a) Sevoflurane
Desflurane, Isoflurane, and Halothane all can cause a hangover effect when used.
A drug with a high therapeutic index has:
a) a high toxicity level
b) a low toxicity level
c) numerous side effects
d) numerous benefits
b) a low toxicity level
Therapeutic indexes aren’t created based on side effects or potential benefits of a drug.
Which adrenergic agent is used to treat urinary incontinence?
a) Dopamine
b) Terbutaline
c) Phenylpropanolamine
d) Epinephrine
c) Phenylpropanolamine
Dopamine is used to treat shock. Terbutaline is used for bronchodilation. Epinephrine is used to stimulate the heart.
You suspect a patient at your clinic has been poisoned by antifreeze. Which of the following samples should you collect to test for antifreeze?
a) Blood
b) Serum
c) Urine
d) Hair
a) Blood
Whole blood is better than serum when testing for antifreeze. Blood will show signs of poisoning before urine or hair will.
What canine breed is predisposed to seborrhea oleosa?
a) German shepherd
b) Pug
c) Dalmatian
d) Cocker spaniel
d) Cocker spaniel
Cocker spaniels are predisposed to seborrhea oleosa, which is greasy skin with diffuse scaling, erythema, alopecia, and inflammation.
If a sterile item touches a nonsterile item, it should be:
a) Quickly sterilized for immediate use
b) Immediately discarded
c) Rinsed with soap and water and reused
d) Placed on a nonsterile tray
b) Immediately discarded
If a sterile item touches a nonsterile item it has become nonsterile and should be discarded. Once this occurs, it should not be reused or put on a tray with other items.
Which of the following methods would be used to monitor the oxygenation of a patient under anesthesia?
a) Auscultation of breath sounds
b) Observing the chest wall
c) Observing the mucous membrane color
d) Capnography
c) Observing the mucous membrane color
Auscultation of breath sounds, observing the chest wall, and capnography (the monitoring of the concentration or partial pressure of carbon dioxide) should be used to monitor the patient’s respiration, not oxygenation.
What canine breed is often sensitive to the cardiovascular drug digoxin?
a) Great dane
b) Golden retriever
c) Irish setter
d) Doberman pinscher
d) Doberman pinscher
Great danes, golden retrievers, and Irish setters are not usually sensitive to this medication.
You’ve just collected a urine sample that you will send to a laboratory for testing. Which of the following actions would you most likely take with the sample?
a) Dilute it
b) Heat it
c) Centrifuge it
d) Freeze it
d) Freeze it
Urine samples generally can be frozen without harming the results of future testing. Since the urine will be sent to a laboratory, freezing it can help ensure its stability. Diluting the urine sample could change some of the test results. Urine should never be heated before testing. Blood samples, not urine, should be centrifuged.
What surgical instrument is sometimes used to scrape out osteochondritis dissecans lesions?
a) Osteotome
b) Bone curette
c) Bone rasp
d) Rongeur
b) Bone curette
An osteotome is used to cut through bone. A bone rasp is used to smooth out any rough bone edges. A rongeur is used to break up and remove bone.
Before giving a patient anesthesia, veterinary technicians go through multiple stages of procedures to ensure a patient’s health and safety. All these actions are taken when the technician is assessing the patient’s medical history except:
a) asking if the patient’s vaccinations are updated
b) determining the status of a patient’s overall health
c) asking about adverse reactions to drugs
d) determining the patient’s vital signs
d) determining the patient’s vital signs
The veterinary technician does not determine a patient’s vital signs while he or she assesses the patient’s medical history. Vital signs are determined during the patient’s physical exam.
You collected laboratory specimens from a patient who has been on a high protein diet. The patient’s laboratory test results will most likely show the patient’s:
a) Urea nitrogen levels have increased
b) Bile concentrations have increased
c) Acid concentrations have increased
d) ALT levels have increased
a) Urea nitrogen levels have increased
High protein diets cause the protein urea to increase in the body. Bile, acid concentrations, and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) levels all increase when a patient is on a low protein, not high protein, diet.
Which inhaled anesthetic requires an agent specific out-of-circle precision vaporizer?
a) Desflurane
b) Isoflurane
c) Halothane
d) Sevoflurane
d) Sevoflurane
Sevoflurane requires an agent specific out-of-circle precision vaporizer because of its high vapor pressure and volatility. Desflurane requires an electrically heated vaporizer. Isoflurane and Halothane both require out-of-circle precision vaporizers, but the vaporizer does not need to be agent specific.
Which veterinary surgical procedure requires no hair removal during patient preparation?
a) Feline castration
b) Perineal urethrostomy
c) Canine castration
d) Laparotomy
b) Perineal urethrostomy
For this procedure, the only requirement is securing the tail to the top of the patient’s body. Both feline and canine castrations require hair removal from the scrotal area. Laparotomy is a type of surgery that includes procedures like splenectomy and ovariohysterectomy. These procedures require extensive hair removal in the affected areas.
A centrifuge’s speed is measured in:
a) d forces
b) e forces
c) g forces
d) p forces
c) g forces
A centrifuge’s speed is measured is gravitational forces. As a centrifuge spins, it creates a relative centrifugal force (RCF). A centrifuge’s acceleration is 981 cm/second/second.
Opioid analgesics relieve pain by:
a) reducing inflammation
b) blocking the brain’s pain impulses
c) producing local anesthesia
d) blocking prostaglandin production
b) blocking the brain’s pain impulses
Corticosteroids reduce inflammation. Local anesthetics produce local anesthesia. NSAIDs block prostaglandin production.
Operating room personnel who have been chronically exposed to nitrous oxide may be at increased risk of what condition?
a) Hepatotoxicity
b) Renal dysfunction
c) Liver damage
d) Myeloneuropathy
d) Myeloneuropathy
Hepatotoxicity and renal dysfunction can result from excessive exposure to halothane and methoxyflurane, not nitrous oxide. Liver damage can be a result of exposure to methoxyflurane.
Which method of euthanasia is performed only on very small animals?
a) Intracardiac injection
b) Enclosed chamber
c) Intravenous injection
d) Intraperitoneal injection
d) Intraperitoneal injection
Euthanasia by intraperitoneal injection is performed only on very small animals weighing less than 7 kg.
Which of the following best describes the technique of fanning during an ultrasound?
a) Keeping the transducer in one place and applying pressure to the front or the back
b) Holding the transducer in one place and tilting it from side to side
c) Holding the transducer in an upright position and moving it in different directions
d) Keeping the transducer in contact with the skin while pivoting it 90 degrees
b) Holding the transducer in one place and tilting it from side to side
Keeping the transducer in one place and applying pressure to the front or the back describes rocking. Holding the transducer in an upright position and moving it in different directions describes sliding. Keeping the transducer in contact with the skin while pivoting it 90 degrees describes rotating.
If a patient suffers from spinal dysfunctions, the first step in diagnosing the problem is most likely:
a) The collection of a blood sample
b) A radiography screening
c) The collection of a stool sample
d) A surgical biopsy
b) A radiography screening
Different screenings are appropriate for different ailments or symptoms. If an animal is having spinal problems, a radiography screening is the best test to conduct because it will tell the medical team about the condition of the animal’s spine and the surrounding bones and tendons.
A dog is excited and panting before a radiography screening. Your team might consider giving the dog a light sedative because the dog’s panting:
a) could fog the screen, making it difficult to see the results
b) may annoy the members of the veterinary team
c) may move the animal’s body and compromise the results
d) could be loud and distracting to the radiographer
c) may move the animal’s body and compromise the results
Radiography screenings are sensitive to movement. When a dog pants, its entire body moves and shifts. Therefore, the results may be altered.
Anesthetics are used for a variety of reasons in veterinary medicine. Radiographers most likely use anesthetics for:
a) anesthesia
b) euthanasia
c) restraint
d) seizure control
c) restraint
During radiography, it’s important to keep patients as stil as possible. The results of radiography screenings are best when animals are calm and still, so radiographers most often use anesthetics for restraint.
Small amounts of white light have come in contact with radiographic images in the darkroom. The images will most likely become:
a) completely black
b) slightly foggy
c) completely white
d) slightly clearer
b) slightly foggy
Even small amounts of white light can make underdeveloped radiographic images slightly foggy. Light will make the images less clear, not more clear.
In which of the following positions is an animal lying on it’s back?
a) Dorsal recumbency
b) Right lateral recumbency
c) Left lateral recumbency
d) Sternal recumbency
a) Dorsal recumbency
An animal in right lateral recumbency is on it’s right side. An animal in left lateral recumbency is on it’s left side. An animal in sternal recumbency is lying on it’s stomach.
Which of the following opioids is most potent?
a) Buprenorphine
b) Meperidine
c) Morphine
d) Fentanyl
a) Buprenorphine
Buprenorphine is effective for 8 to 12 hours. Meperidine is effective for 1 to 2 hours. Morphine is effective for about 4 hours. Fentanyl is effective for 15 to 30 minutes.
Which form of sterilization is the preferred method for instruments that are used during surgery?
a) Autoclaving
b) Chemical sterilization
c) Boiling
d) Dry heat
a) Autoclaving
Autoclaving is the preferred sterilization method because it is fast and effective and because it works on many different materials. Chemical sterilization takes a long time and may not kill all the spores. Boiling is not preferred because it is not always effective and can rust metal instruments. Dry heat is not preferred because this method takes a long time and does not work for materials such as plastic.
When preparing a bovine’s skin for surgery, which of the following steps should be completed first?
a) Clip most of the fur from the skin
b) Disinfect the skin with an iodine solution
c) Wash the skin with soap and water
d) Disinfect the skin with an alcohol solution
a) Clip most of the fur from the skin
Before you wash or disinfect the skin, you should clip most of the fur from the skin. Disinfecting and cleaning should take place after clipping the fur.
For which of the following procedures is epidural anesthesia most effective?
a) Cataract surgery
b) Tooth extraction
c) Throat surgery
d) Tail amputation
d) Tail amputation
Epidural anesthesia is most effective on a tail amputation because the epidural blocks pain on the lower portion of the body, including the tail.
Which of the following is not a disorder that causes coagulation problems for animals?
a) Hemophilia
b) Liver disease
c) Vitamin K deficiency
d) Vitamin A deficiency
d) Vitamin A deficiency
Animals with Vitamin A deficiencies can experience other symptoms such as infection, joint pain, and reproductive problems. Hemophilia is a genetic disorder that causes coagulation problems. Liver disease and Vitamin K deficiency are acquired disorders that are associated with coagulation problems.
On average, at what percentage of blood loss do small animals (ie - cats and dogs) begin to experience symptoms of acute blood loss?
a) 5-10%
b) 15-20%
c) 35-49%
d) 45-50%
b) 15-20%
At 35-40% blood loss, small animals typically experience hemorrhagic shock. 5-10% blood loss is too little to experience symptoms.
You are collecting blood samples from a patient using an EDTA tube. If you fill the EDTA tube with too little blood you could alter the test results because the:
a) sample could have a decreased packed cell volume
b) EDTA could cause poorly stained leukocytes
c) sample could show a false increase in sodium levels
d) EDTA could make bile measurements unreliable
a) sample could have a decreased packed cell volume
When you underfill the tube, the ratio of EDTA to blood is too high. The high amount of EDTA causes the erythrocytes (RBC’s) to shrink. When the erythrocytes shrink, the sample could have a decreased packed cell volume. Heparin tubes, not EDTA tubes, can cause poorly stained leukocytes. Sodium heparin tubes can show a false increase in sodium levels. Heparin plasma can be unreliable for measuring bile and acid levels.
Which ophthalmic drug would be used to constrict the pupil?
a) Tetracaine
b) Atropine
c) Cyclosporine
d) Pilocarpine
d) Pilocarpine
Pilocarpine, which is a miotic, is used to constrict the pupil. Tetracaine is an ophthalmic anesthetic. Atropine is a mydriatic used to dilate the pupil. Cyclosporine increases tear production.
Which diuretic can be administered intramuscularly?
a) Furosemide
b) Spironolactone
c) Chlorothiazide
d) Mannitol
a) Furosemide
Furosemide can be administered intramuscularly, as well as intravenously and orally. Spironolactone and chlorothiazide can be administered only orally. Mannitol can only be administered via intravenous infusion.
When checking a high pressure anesthetic machine for leaks, you would most likely find a leak in the:
a) Unidirectional valves
b) Tank yoke connectors
c) Pop-off valve
d) Soda lime canister
b) Tank yoke connectors
Unidirectional valves, the pop-off valve, and the soda lime canister are all common leak sites in low-pressure anesthetic machines.
Prostaglandins are administered to:
a) Prevent pregnancy after mismating
b) Lyse the corpus luteum
c) Return a mare in transitional anestrus to proestrus
d) Induce uterine contractions
b) Lyse the corpus luteum
Estrogens are used to prevent pregnancy after mismating. Progestins are used to return a mare in transitional anestrus to proestrus. Oxytocin is used to induce uterine contractions.
The Bain system breathing circuit is most useful with patients undergoing procedures involving which part of the body?
a) Legs
b) Chest
c) Head
d) Spine
c) Head
The Bain system uses less tubing than other breathing circuits and is less obstructive during head procedures.
Which inhaled anesthetic is no longer commonly used because of its potential severe side effects?
a) Sevoflurane
b) Halothane
c) Isoflurane
d) Methoxyflurane
d) Methoxyflurane
Methoxyflurane can lead to kidney or liver impairment or birth defects.
Which antiparasitic drug cannot be administered to cats because of potential toxicity?
a) Selamectin
b) Amitraz
c) Imidacloprid
d) Nitenpyram
b) Amitraz
This medication, which is designed to eradicate Demodex mites and other ectoparasites, can be very toxic to cats and may lead to death. Selamectin, imidacloprid, and nitepyram are all safe to use with cats.
Which of the following is true of non-precision vaporizers?
a) They make anesthesia depth difficult to control
b) The compensate for temperature and back-pressure
c) They are generally very expensive
d) They must be serviced every 6 to 12 months
a) They make anesthesia depth difficult to control
Precision vaporizers compensate for temperature and back-pressure, are generally very expensive, and must be serviced every 6 to 12 months.
Nitrous oxide is:
a) A nonflammable, non-explosive halogenated ether
b) Highly pungent and irritative to the airway
c) Highly reactive to metals
d) Nonirritative and sweet smelling
d) Nonirritative and sweet smelling
Sevoflurane or desflurane are nonflammable, non-explosive halogenated ethers. Desflurane is highly pungent and irritative to the airway. Halothane is highly reactive to metals.
Dimercaprol can be used to treat a patient suffering from:
a) Poisonous snake envenomation
b) Opioid agonist reversal
c) Mercury toxicity
d) Serotonin syndrome
c) Mercury toxicity
This medication is also used to treat gold, arsenic, and lead toxicity. Antivenin polyvalent is used to treat poisonous snake envenomation. Naloxone is used to treat opioid agonist reversal. Cyproheptadine is used to treat serotonin syndrome.
Which type of barbiturate is most often used as a sedative for excitable dogs?
a) Pentobarbital
b) Phenobarbital
c) Methohexital
d) Thiopental
b) Phenobarbital
Pentobarbital, methohexital, and thiopental are not commonly used for this purpose.
An adult female dog shows signs of pseudocyesis. With which medication would the patient most likely be treated?
a) Oxytocin
b) Mibolerone
c) Desmopressin
d) Medroxy-progesterone
b) Mibolerone
Mibolerone, an androgen, is used to treat psuedocyesis, or false pregnancy, in adult dogs. Oxytocin is used to induce labor. Desmopressin is used to control diabetes insipidus. Medroxy-progesterone is used to treat various behavioral and dermatologic conditions.
Which of the following is true about etomidate?
a) It supports bacterial growth due to soy content
b) It is reconstituted with water or dextrose
c) It is referred to as a neuroleptanagesic
d) It may cause phlebitis upon injection
d) It may cause phlebitis upon injection
Etomidate may cause phlebitis upon injection, particularly in small veins. Propofol supports bacterial growth due to soy content. Guaifenesin exists in a powder form and is reconstituted with water or dextrose. Fentanyl is referred to as a neuroleptanalgesic (anxiety, motor activity, and sensitivity to painful stimuli are reduced).
Which antifungal medication is known to cause birth defects or spontaneous abortion in cats?
a) Nystatin
b) Fluconazole
c) Griseofulvin
d) Terbinafine
c) Griseofulvin
Griseofulvin is a known teratogen in cats, meaning that it can cause birth defects or spontaneous abortion in feline patients. Nystatin, Fluconazole, and terbinafine are not known teratogens.
After surgery, the medical team has a certain amount of time to clean and close an open wound. How much time can elapse before the cleaning and closing of a wound before a wound is likely to become infected?
a) 10 to 20 minutes
b) 40 to 50 minutes
c) 1 to 2 hours
d) 4 to 6 hours
d) 4 to 6 hours
The medical team has 4 to 6 hours to clean and close a surgical wound before infection becomes likely.
Which nonabsorbable suture material may act like a wick and allow migration of contamination?
a) Polypropylene
b) Stainless steel
c) Nylon
d) Silk
d) Silk
Polypropylene, stainless steel, and nylon will not act as wicks and allow migration of contamination.
Anesthetization with which inhalant should be avoided in patients with respiratory problems that affect their ability to oxygenate?
a) Halothane
b) Nitrous oxide
c) Sevoflurane
d) Isoflurane
b) Nitrous oxide
Use of nitrous oxide in such a patient significantly increases the risk of hypoxia. Halothane, Sevoflurane, and Isoflurane are all safer to use under these circumstances.
H2 blockers are systemic antacids designed to:
a) Prevent the production of hydrochloric acid
b) Block the release of hydrogen ions and stimulate mucus
c) Prevent the pumping of hydrogen ions into the stomach
d) Neutralize acid that is already present in the stomach
a) Prevent the production of hydrochloric acid
H2 blockers are systemic antacids designed to prevent the production of hydrochloric acid. Misoprostal blocks the release of hydrogen ions and stimulates mucus and bicarbonate in the stomach. Omeprazole prevents the pumping of hydrogen ions into the stomach. Nonsystemic antacids, such as Maalox or mylanta, neutralize acid that is already present in the stomach.
One sign of infection in a patient is inflammation. All f these are symptoms of inflammation except:
a) Loss of function
b) Swelling
c) Presence of pus
d) Redness
c) Presence of pus
The presence of pus does not indicate inflammation of a wound or surgical site. The loss of function in an area, swelling, and redness are all indications of inflammation. Other symptoms of inflammation include heat and pain.
Which of the following cardiovascular drugs is a calcium channel blocker?
a) Isoproterenol
b) Pimobendan
c) Diltiazem
d) Captopril
c) Diltiazem
Isoproterenol is an adrenergic (activated by or capable of releasing epinephrine or an epinephrinelike substance, especially in the sympathetic nervous system). Pimobendan is an inodilator (elicits both positive inotropic and vasodilating effects). Captopril is an ACE inhibitor.
When clipping an animal for surgery on an open wound, you should place water-soluble lubricant in the wound in order to:
a) Decontaminate the wound
b) Encourage faster healing
c) Prevent contamination from loose hair
d) Clear the wound of dried or excess blood
c) Prevent contamination from loose hair
At this point, water-soluble lubricant would not be used to decontaminate the wound, encourage faster healing, or to clear the wound of dried or excess blood.
Mixing different metals in the same ultrasonic cleaning cycle may result in:
a) Spotting
b) Pitting
c) Corrosion
d) Staining
c) Corrosion
Spotting, pitting, and staining may result if surgical instruments are not properly cleaned after use, but they are not common side effects of ultrasonic cleaning.
Metzenbaum scissors have:
a) Blunt tips with straight or curved blades
b) Short, thick jaws with serrated edges
c) Blunt tips with one blade terminating into a thin, curved hook
d) Pointed or blunt tips with straight or curved blades
d) Pointed or blunt tips with straight or curved blades
Mayo scissors have blunt tips with straight or curved blades. Wire-cutting scissors have short, thick jaws with serrated edges. Littauer and Spencer suture removal scissors have blunt tips with one blade terminating into a thin, curved hook.
During a surgical procedure, which of the following can be used to ligate blood vessels or tissues?
a) Halsted mosquito forceps
b) Rochester-Pean forceps
c) Rochester-Carmalt forceps
d) Hemostatic forceps
d) Hemostatic forceps
Halsted mosquito forceps are used to control capillary bleeding. Rochester-Pean and Rochester-Carmalt forceps are used to clamp large bundles of tissues that contain blood vessels.
When an animal is anesthetized prior to an orogastric intubation, a cuffed, tight-fitting endotracheal should be used because:
a) This method will prevent aspiration of the administered material
b) Animals will tolerate this tube better when under anesthesia
c) The chance of the tube being disrupted by movement are reduced
d) The use of this tube will allow for a shorter procedure time
a) This method will prevent aspiration of the administered material
The tube is not better tolerated than others, the chances of the tube being disrupted are not reduced, and the tube does not ensure a shorter procedure time.
Schirmer’s tear test is used to diagnose what ocular condition?
a) Conjunctivitis
b) Glaucoma
c) Keratoconjuntivitis sicca
d) Cherry eye
c) Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Otherwise known as dry eye.
Neutrophils and monocytes travel to the site of a wound to remove foreign material, necrotic tissue, and bacteria in which phase of wound healing?
a) Inflammatory
b) Debridement
c) Repair
d) Maturation
b) Debridement
The inflammatory phase is the first phase and includes the initial clotting and scabbing of the wound. The repair phase follows debridement and includes the production of collagen and granulation tissue. The maturation phase is the final stage in wound healing and involves the remodeling of collagen fibers and fibrous tissue.
When maintaining hemostasis for the surgeon, you should avoid:
a) Placing the suction tip near tissue
b) Wiping the area with a gauze square
c) Counting the gauze squares you used
d) Cutting suture material after it is placed
b) Wiping the area with a gauze square
When maintaining hemostasis for the surgeon you should dab, not wipe, the area with a gauze square. Placing the suction tip near the tissue rather than directly on the tissue is the correct procedure. It would be appropriate to count the number of used and discarded gauze squares. As a surgical assistant, you may cut suture material after the suture has been properly placed.
When washing surgical instruments, you should always use:
a) Chlorhexidine
b) A surgical scrub
c) A neutral pH cleanser
d) Dish soap
c) A neutral pH cleanser
Neutral pH cleansers are effective for cleaning and safe to use on stainless steel. Chlorhexidine, a surgical scrub, or dish soap should never be used on surgical instruments because their high chlorine contents can cause spotting and corrosion.
For which of the following patients should you exercise special care when applying isopropyl alcohol during a surgical scrub?
a) German shepherd
b) Boxer
c) Chihuahua
d) Bulldog
c) Chihuahua
Isopropyl alcohol can cause serious complications in small animals that may have difficulty maintaining proper body temperature.
Nonfresh surgical milk may:
a) Lead to staining or corrosion
b) Cause contamination of surgical instruments
c) Decrease the lubrication of instruments
d) Lead to spotting
b) Cause contamination of surgical instruments
Nonfresh surgical milk (a concentrated pre-autoclave instrument dip that lubricates hinged instruments) may contain bacterial growth that can contaminate surgical instruments. However, it would not cause staining or corrosion, decreased lubrication, or spotting.
A tapered point suture needle would most likely be used on:
a) Skin
b) Muscle
c) Tendons
d) Cartilage
b) Muscle
The soft tissue of muscles is usually more susceptible to tearing or other damage, so tapered point suture needles are used to reduce the incidence of trauma as much as possible. Skin, tendon, and cartilage are tougher tissues that generally require cutting point suture needles.
Which of the following is an example of self-retaining forceps?
a) Russian tissue forceps
b) Dressing forceps
c) Allis tissue forceps
d) Adson tissue forceps
c) Allis tissue forceps
Self-retaining forceps have a ratchet-looking device that grasps and retracts tissue. Russian tissue forceps, dressing forceps, and Adson forceps are all examples of thumb forceps.
You are giving instructions to a patient’s owner about administering medication at home. The veterinarian’s instructions say to give the patient eye drops “OU BID.” What do the veterinarian’s instructions mean?
a) Give the patient eye drops in both eyes once per day
b) Give the patient eye drops in the right eye once per day
c) Give the patient eye drops in both eyes twice per day
d) Give the patient eye drops in the right eye twice per day
c) Give the patient eye drops in both eyes twice per day
OU means “in both eyes” and BID means “twice per day.” OD means “right eye,” and s.i.d. or qd mean “once per day.”
Which of the following patients should be administered emetics to empty its stomach contents?
a) A ferret that ingested a toxic plant and is unconscious
b) A cat that ingested a corrosive toxin from its owner’s garage
c) A dog that has ingested a full bottle of its owner’s medication
d) A rabbit that ingested some type of household chemical
c) A dog that has ingested a full bottle of its owner’s medication
Unconscious animals should never be given emetics. Emetics should never be administered when an animal has ingested a corrosive toxin. Rabbits should never be given emetics.
Which of the following animals would most likely be classified in the “dead, dying, or euthanized” category during triage if it had a broken femur?
a) A dog
b) A cat
c) A horse
d) A rabbit
c) A horse
Horses need to stand because they have circulation problems when they lie down, and they need all 4 legs to stand properly. Horses with broken femurs must be euthanized. Dogs, cats, and rabbits can generally be treated with bandages, surgery, or similar therapy.
You are administering a shot in the scruff of a dog’s neck. This type of injection is best described as:
a) Intramuscular
b) Subcutaneous
c) Intravenous
d) Gastrointestinal
b) Subcutaneous
Injections administered below the top layers of the skin are subcutaneous.
You read a patient’s chart that says the patient suffered a laceration from an accident. A laceration is best described as a wound that:
a) Is characterized by the exposure of the dermis and is usually not serious
b) Does not show obvious signs on the skin’s surface but goes deep into the tissue
c) Includes major damage to the skin and other soft tissue and easily gets infected
d) Involves the rupture of a blood vessel below the skin’s surface where blood pools
c) Includes major damage to the skin and other soft tissue and gets easily infected
An abrasion is a wound that is characterized by the exposure of the dermis and is usually not serious. A puncture wound is one that does not show obvious signs on the skin’s surface but goes deep into the tissue. A hematoma involves the rupture of a blood vessel below the skin’s surface where blood pools.
A recumbent patient will be staying at your clinic. When caring for the recumbent patient, you should:
a) House the patient in a kennel big enough for it to move around in
b) Keep the patient far away from areas with lots of activity
c) Fill the patient’s kennel with stiff or thin bedding
d) Clean and groom the patient on a daily basis
d) Clean and groom the patient on a daily basis
Recumbent patients often cannot groom or clean themselves so you should clean or groom them on a daily basis. Grooming is also important for recumbent patients because they get bored easily and enjoy the attention. Recumbent patients should be in kennels large enough to lie in, but not necessarily large enough to move around in. Recumbent patients tend to get bored easily, so keeping them in an area with a lot of activity can keep them stimulated. They also need padded, soft bedding to keep them comfortable.
Which of the following grooming instruments would work best for removing mats in an animal’s coat?
a) Double-sided brush
b) Sticker brush
c) Metal comb
d) Hound glove
c) Metal comb
Double-sided brushes work best for grooming silky coats. Sticker brushes work best for pulling out loose hair. Hound gloves work best for routine grooming.
You are performing a routine examination of a canine patient and you measure his weight at 10 pounds. What is the dog’s weight in kilograms?
a) 4.53 kg
b) 9.04 kg
c) 15.02 kg
d) 22.04 kg
a) 4.53 kg
1 kg = 2.2 lbs
Which of the following is a reason a patient would be immobilized by its bandages?
a) To prevent hemorrhaging at the site of the wound
b) To stop the patient from moving a fractured limb
c) To prevent against infection of the patient’s injury
d) To stop or control swelling at the site of a wound
b) To stop the patient from moving a fractured limb
Patients could make the damage of a fractured limb worse by moving it, so immobilizing the limb is a good idea. Immobilizing a patient will not stop hemorrhaging, prevent infection, or reduce swelling.
A simple fracture is a fracture in which the:
a) Broken bone damages organs or vessels
b) Bone is broken in two pieces
c) Broken bone causes a wound on the skin
d) Bone is broken into more than 2 pieces
b) Bone is broken in 2 pieces
A complicated fracture occurs when the broken bone damages organs or vessels. A compound fracture occurs when the broken bone causes a wound on the skin. A multiple fracture occurs when the bone is broken in more than 2 pieces.
Which of the following would contraindicate fluid therapy:
a) Constipation
b) Pulmonary contusions
c) Tachycardia
d) Shock
b) Pulmonary contusions
Pulmonary contusions may cause fluid to shift into the lungs, which can lead to pulmonary edema. Tachycardia and shock are both common signs of dehydration and indicate the need for fluid therapy.
On an ECG, a progressive lengthening of the PR interval on successive beats accompanied by the occurrence of P waves without QRS complexes would indicate:
a) first-degree AV block
b) Type I second-degree AV block
c) Type II second-degree AV block
d) third-degree AV block
b) Type I second-degree AV block
First degree AV block is indicated by an abnormally long PR interval. Type II second-degree AV block is indicated by a PR interval of generally normal duration with random dropped beats. Third-degree AV block is indicated by a lack of relationship between P waves and QRS complexes.
When administering a Schirmer’s tear test, which of the following results would indicate a diagnosis of keratitis sicca in a feline patient?
a) 9 mm of moisture
b) 11 mm of moisture
c) 12 mm of moisture
d) 14 mm of moisture
a) 9 mm of moisture
Keratitis sicca is indicated in cats with less than 10 mm of moisture. More than this might indicate keratoconjunctivitis in canine, not feline, patients.
What type of bandaging is used to stabilize a fracture prior to surgical repair?
a) Ehmer sling
b) Hobble
c) Velpeau sling
d) Robert Jones bandage
d) Robert Jones bandage
A Robert Jones bandage, which is made of several layers of tightly compressed rolled cotton, is used to stabilize a fracture before surgery. An Ehmer sling is used to support the hind limb following reduction of hip luxation. A hobble is used to prevent excessive abduction of hind limbs. A Velpeau sling is used to provide shoulder support following surgery.
Which of the following drugs must be stored in a secure location, such as a locked cabinet or safe?
a) Nystatin
b) Furosemide
c) Testosterone
d) Chlorpromazine
c) Testosterone
Testosterone is an anabolic steroid and a controlled substance. As a result, veterinary technicians are required to store this drug in a secure location.
Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumor of the:
a) Bone
b) Fibrous tissue
c) Cartilage
d) Blood vessels
c) Cartilage
A tumor of bone is called osteosarcoma. A tumor of fibrous tissue is called fibrosarcoma. A tumor of blood vessels is called hemangiosarcoma.
Which of the following is a possible cause of sinus tachycardia?
a) Acidosis
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hyperthyroidism
d) Ventricular concentric hypertrophy
c) Hyperthyroidism
Excessive amounts of thyroid hormone increase the heart’s force of contraction and is demand for oxygen. Acidosis, hypokalemia, and ventricular concentric hypertrophy are all potential causes of premature ventricular contraction.
A fluid-filled blister measuring 0.3 cm is called a:
a) Bulla
b) Wheal
c) Papule
d) Vesicle
d) Vesicle
A bulla is the same as a vesicle, except it measures more than 0.5 cm. A wheal, also known as a hive, is a flat-topped, raised area of skin that is noticeably redder or paler than the surrounding area. A papule is a circular, reddened area of elevated skin.
When used for wound lavage, povidone-iodine solution:
a) Has an immediate microbial effect and a long-term residual effect
b) Can damage tissues because of its foaming effect
c) Is inactivated by exudates, blood, and organic material
d) Should be used for irrigation only once
c) Is inactivated by exudates, blood, and organic material
Thus, it’s effects will last only a few hours. Chlorhexidine diacetate solution has a longer lasting effect because it is not inactivated by organic material. Choices c and d describe hydrogen peroxide.
When performing venipuncture through the jugular vein, the patient should be placed in:
a) Right lateral recumbency
b) Dorsal recumbency
c) Left lateral recumbency
d) Sternal recumbency
d) Sternal recumbency
With the patient in this position, the restrainer can hold the animal’s front legs with one hand and raise its head with the other, exposing the jugular vein.
You can ensure an adequate blood flow during venipuncture by:
a) Applying alcohol to the puncture site
b) Occluding the vein
c) Inserting the needle with the bevel facing downward
d) Pulling back the plunger as quickly as possible
b) Occluding the vein
Occluding the vein prevents blood from flowing back to the heart and allows it to accumulate in the vein. Applying alcohol to the puncture site will clean the area and help the venipuncturist find the vein before inserting the needle. Inserting the needle with the bevel facing downwards would inhibit blood flow. Pulling the plunger back as quickly as possible could interfere with both the collection process and the sample itself.
You are instructing a patient’s owner about collecting a urine sample. You should instruct the owner to:
a) Take the sample right before the animal goes to sleep
b) Collect all the urine the patient expresses during one bathroom break
c) Bring in the sample as soon as possible after it’s taken
d) Give the animal as much water as possible before taking the sample
c) Bring in the sample as soon as possible after it’s taken
All types of samples should be tested as soon as possible after they’re collected, so it’s important to have the owner bring in the sample as soon as possible. Urine sample should be taken right after the animal wakes up, not right before it goes to sleep. When the owner takes the sample, he or she should wait a few seconds to begin to collect the urine, as the first part of the sample could contain bacteria that could change some test results. Giving the animal excess food or water could also change the results.
A veterinary technician is treating a dog with a mandible that is wider than the maxilla in the area near the premolars. This condition is referred to as:
a) Rostral crossbite
b) Caudal crossbite
c) Distoclusion
d) Mesioclusion
b) Caudal crossbite
A rostral crossbite occurs when one or more of the maxillary incisors are displaced so as to have become lingual to mandibular incisors. A distoclusion occurs when the teeth in the mandible are distal to their maxillary equivalents. A mesioclusion occurs when the mandibular teeth occlude mesial to their maxillary counterparts.
A patient in your clinic had a 10% change in its white blood cell count from one day to the next. These findings are most likely:
a) Significant because a 10% change is large enough to cause concern
b) Insignificant because a 10% change is too low to cause concern
c) Significant because even slight changes in white blood cell count are serious
d) Insignificant because any changes in white blood cell count are unimportant
b) Insignificant because a 10% change is too low to cause concern
A 10% change in white blood cell counts could be due to slight changes in procedure in the lab, so it is not generally considered significant. Changes between 10-20% are usually due to laboratory procedures rather than changes in the patient’s blood.
For which of the following diseases would a veterinary technician most likely conduct a capillary refill time (CRT) test?
a) Cancer
b) Liver disease
c) Cataracts
d) Heart disease
d) Heart disease
To conduct the test, the technician will press on the patient’s gums to see how quickly the capillaries in the gums refill with blood. Since slow blood flow could indicate heart problems, this test can help diagnose heart disease.
Which level is generally tested and analyzed with potassium during a chemical panel?
a) Cholesterol
b) Sodium
c) Calcium
d) SGPT
b) Sodium
Sodium and potassium are generally analyzed together during a chemical panel. Although calcium, cholesterol, and serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase (SGPT) levels may be checked during a chemical panel, they are not analyzed with the potassium levels.
Which of the following materials would be thrown in the regular waste, rather than the biomedical waste?
a) A needle covered in blood from a healthy rabbit
b) Rubber tubing covered in saliva from a raccoon with tuberculosis
c) A scalpel covered with blood from a healthy bird
d) Paper covered in urine from a cat infected with ear mites
d) Paper covered in urine from a cat infected with ear mites
The needle and the scalpel must be disposed of in the biomedical waste because they have sharp edges. The rubber tubing must be disposed of in the biomedical waste because the animal is infected with a disease that can be transmitted to humans.
Which teeth are used primarily for cutting and nibbling?
a) Incisors
b) Canines
c) Premolars
d) Molars
a) Incisors
Canines are primarily used for holding and tearing. Premolars are used primarily for cutting, shearing, and holding. Molars are used primarily for grinding.
