Review Flashcards

1
Q

What differentiates gingivitis vs periodontitis?

A

CAL

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2
Q

What is the easiest clinical way to know if gingivitis is plaque induced or non-plaque induced?

A

Plaque induced will go away with prophy

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3
Q

T/F: Diabetes and pregnancy CAUSE periodontitis.

A

FALSE

Increase risk but do not cause it

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4
Q

What are the characteristics for aggressive periodontitis?

A
  1. Younger patients
  2. Systemically healthy
  3. Disease progression does not match clinical findings
  4. Robust antibody response
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5
Q

How do we classify aggressive periodontitis as localized?

A

1st molar must be involved

Molars and incisors and no more than two other teeth

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6
Q

How do we categorize chronic periodontitis as localized?

A

30% or less of probe sites are diseased

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7
Q

How do you differentiate between slight, moderate and severe disease?

A
Slight = 1-2 mm CAL
Moderate = 3-4 mm CAL
Severe = 5 or more CAL
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8
Q

How do you score the gingival index?

A
0 = normal
1 = mild inflam, slight color change, NO bleeding
2 = moderate inflam, redness, edema, BoP
3 = severe inflam, SELF REPORTED BLEEDING
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9
Q

If the patient comes in and says their gums bleed when they brush, eat, or sleep what should you expect some of their GI scores would be?

A

Will have some 3s due to spontaneous bleeding

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10
Q

T/F: You can only give a GI score of 2 if it is bleeding.

A

FALSE

Bleeding always will give a score of 2.

But if inflammation is bad enough without bleeding can still give score of 2

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11
Q

T/F: The Gingival Index is very subjective.

A

True

Doctors can have different scores

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12
Q

What are the scores for the plaque index?

A
0 = no plaque
1 = plaque seen by swiping probe along the margin
2 = moderate amounts of visible plaque
3 = visible plaque seen in abundance
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13
Q

T/F: Disclosing agents are used to do the Loe and Silness plaque index.

A

FALSE

It is a non-disclosed index

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14
Q

What are the dimensions of the PSR probe?

A
Ball = 1/2 mm
Clear = 3 mm
Color = 2 mm

TOTAL = 5.5 mm

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15
Q

What are the PSR codes?

A
0 = colored area visible, no plaque/defective margins, no BoP
1 = colored area visible, no plaque, yes BoP
2 = colored area visible, yes plaque, yes/no BoP
3 = colored area partially visible, yes/no plaque, yes/no BoP
4 = colored area not visible, yes/no plaque, yes/no BoP
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16
Q

Why do we do PSR?

A

Understand patient needs

Can only use it once on a patient

Can not use during maintenance

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17
Q

T/F: With PSR you record the average of each sextant.

A

FALSE

GI = averages per sextant
PSR = worst code is put down per sextant
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18
Q

T/F: If one sextant is recorded as a three in PSR, the patient needs full mouth perio evaluation.

A

FALSE

3 on one sextant = perio eval that sextant

4 on one sextant or 3 on two sextants = full mouth perio eval

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19
Q

Who can get PSR eval?

A

Adults only during the first visit

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20
Q

T/F: BoP is always immediately seen upon probing.

A

False

Takes 30 secs - 1 minute

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21
Q

What is the O’Leary Index?

A

Uses disclosing rinse and look for stained surfaces

Calculated in percentage

Only counts presence/absence

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22
Q

What is a sensitive test?

A

You will diagnose the disease when they have it

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23
Q

What is a specific test?

A

You will know when the patient does not have disease

Will only pick up disease when it is definitely there

24
Q

What is predictive value positive?

A

The probability of disease in a subject with a positive test

25
Q

T/F: Viral infections are self-limiting.

A

True

Will heal with/without treatment

26
Q

What will HSV ulcers often be mistaken for and how do you differentiate?

A

Apthous (stress) ulcers

Apthous are not on keratinized mucosa but HSV are

27
Q

How does recurrent HSV often present?

A

Herpes labialis

28
Q

Zoster ulcers are normally found where? What is specific about these lesions?

A

Tongue, palatal, gingiva

Unilateral with skin lesion on other side of the body

29
Q

What causes thrush?

A

Candida albicans

30
Q

T/F: Thrush is pleomorphic.

A

True

Comes in many different forms

31
Q

T/F: Everyone carries candida in their mouths.

A

True

Only bad when it goes into overdrive

32
Q

What can predispose patients to thrush?

A
  1. Heavy antibiotic use
  2. Immunosuppression
  3. Malnutrition
  4. HIV
  5. Diabetes
33
Q

What are the two types of candidosis presentation?

A

Pseudomembranous (white)

Erythematous candidosis (red gums)

Burning tongue = shiny mass on the tongue

34
Q

T/F: Culture can be a great way to diagnose oral fungal infection.

A

FALSE

Can be misleading because we all have some candidiasis

35
Q

What are the characteristic skin lesions for lichen planus?

A

Wickham striae

36
Q

T/F: Lichen planus is an autoimmune disease.

A

True

37
Q

What is the major concern with lichen planus?

A

May become malignant

38
Q

What is the classic histopathologic presentation of lichen planus?

A

Band-like accumulation of lymphocytes

39
Q

What will be seen in immunofluorescence of Lichen planus?

A

IgM, C3, C4, C5 in basement membrane

40
Q

What is the major characteristic of pemphigoid?

A

Detachment of epithelium from connective tissue

41
Q

T/F: Pemphigoid is an autoantibody reaction.

A

True

42
Q

T/F: Pemphigoid can cause eye problems.

A

True

43
Q

What is the classic characterization of pemphigus?

A

Formation of intraepithelial bullae in the spinus cell layer

44
Q

Which disease causes Acantholysis?

A

Pemphigus

Acantholysis is the formation of the intraepithelial bullae

45
Q

T/F: There will be bleeding in patients with pemphigus.

A

FALSE

Pemphigoid = bleeding
Pemphigus = no bleeding
46
Q

Where do you expect to see NUG?

A

Marginal gingiva esp in the interdental papillae

47
Q

What can predispose patients to NUG?

A

Smoking and stress

48
Q

When would you give antibiotics to a patient with NUG?

A

Only if they have other systemic conditions

49
Q

Periapical cemental dysplasia is a ___________ process of periodontal _______ tissue.

A

Reactive; hard

50
Q

What are some characteristics of periapical cemental dysplasia?

A
  1. Tooth is vital

2. No symptoms

51
Q

What is primary TFO?

A

Excessive force on normal periodontium

52
Q

What is secondary TFO?

A

Normal or excessive force on weakened periodontium

53
Q

What are the three models for chronic periodontitis progression?

A
  1. Continuous - slow and constant
  2. Random burst - short periods of destruction with periods of rest
  3. Asynchronous multiple burst - destruction during defined periods of life
54
Q

What are the two major risk factors for chronic periodontitis?

A

Smoking and diabetes

55
Q

T/F: Risk factors can be modified.

A

True